2016 SWA PC Check Flashcards
3 Conditions require you to do a preflight exterior inspection?
Originating Flight, Aircraft Change, FO Change
How does the Captain verify the maintenance status is acceptable for flight?
All write-ups are properly deferred or cleared.
Aircraft systems and controls can be safely actuated and no maintenance repairs are in progress.
MEL/CDL items agree with remarks in the Dispatch Release.
How would you recognize a TR failure during your preflight in a Classic?
TR1 or TR2 Failure.
The DC ammeter on TR1 and TR2 would register zero amps and the DC voltmeter would register 22-30 volts.
TR3 Failure.
The DC ammeter on TR3 would register zero amps and the DC voltmeter would register zero volts.
Does the NG aircraft have any additional indication(s)?
Does the NG aircraft have any additional indication(s)?
Yes. The TR UNIT light will illuminate, indicating
On the ground -
A single failure of TR1, TR2, or TR3.
In Flight –
A failure of TR1, or
A failure of TR2 and TR3.
You’re preparing to depart BWI on a scheduled flight to an international destination. What documents must be on board?
- International Forms Kit
* Crew Passports
What kind of servicing and provisioning must you ensure has been completed before departing?
The aircraft must have lavatory and potable water servicing. It is Southwest Airlines policy to transport ice for the return leg in the aircraft cargo bin.
The Dispatch Release will indicate whether you have been dispatched under Flag Operation or OpSpec A012. What will vary, depending on the method of dispatch?
Required Fuel Onboard at Takeoff.
You have a few minutes to study for your particular destination. Where can you find individualized Route Briefs for your flight?
EFB or SWALife
It’s the first flight of the day, and a seal is missing on a clear plastic container with two seals. Neither a SWA Mechanic nor a contract maintenance technician is immediately available. Can a Pilot replace the seal?
Yes, if the other seal is intact, the container has not been tampered with, and there are no other items in the container. Ensure the WN-966/966i is annotated in the resolution block.
During your preflight on an originator, you discover a tripped circuit breaker behind the First Officer’s seat. You suspect it was tripped inadvertently the previous night by the terminating crew. Can you reset the circuit breaker and continue your preflight?
What is the proper procedure?
The Flight Deck Crew should not reset a tripped circuit breaker on the ground until Maintenance has determined that it is safe to reset. Aircraft logbook documentation is required and includes one of the following:
Any time a tripped circuit breaker is reset by a Flight Deck Crew Member, an Info-Only entry is required in the aircraft logbook. The Maintenance Controller’s name must be included in the entry. If Maintenance Control directs the tripped circuit breaker is not to be reset, the defect is entered into the logbook.
During the Captain’s Flight Deck Preparation on an originator, the OFF light does not extinguish when the Flight Recorder Test Switch is moved to TEST. Is this a successful test? Should the OFF light be extinguished after the test switch is returned to the normal (guarded) position?
No, this test is not successful. The OFF light should extinguish when the test switch is moved to TEST. After returning the switch to the normal (guarded) position, the OFF light will be illuminated (with the engines shut down and AC power available).
You’re at the gate with an inoperative APU and require a ground air start. Which engine will you start first? Why?
Engine #1, to minimize the hazard to the ground crew.
What is the minimum duct pressure required for the ground air start?
Classic - 30 psi. Allow for a 0.5psi reduction per thousand feet above sea level.
NG – Not Applicable
After engine start and prior to push from the gate, what must be accomplished before placing the #1 generator online?
Verify with the Ground Crew that the towbar and nose wheel are aligned prior to placing the generator on the buses.
After pushback is complete and the ground crew has departed, you determine a two-engine taxi is appropriate and need to perform a Crossbleed start. What must the crew first do? How much Duct Pressure is required to start?
Ensure the area behind the aircraft is safe to accomplish the crossbleed start. Advance thrust lever to obtain a minimum duct pressure is 30 psi (subtract 0.5 psi per thousand feet above sea level).
After pushback has commenced, do not make _____ or _____ power changes with the towbar connected.
Electrical or hydraulic.
You are starting the #2 engine. Before the start lever is raised to IDLE you notice no N1 rotation. What should you do?
Accomplish the Aborted Engine Start checklist in the QRC.
During engine start, the START VALVE OPEN alert comes on and starts flashing. What is the proper procedure to deal with this problem?
Perform the QRH “Start Valve Open” checklist.
After starting the first engine (through the rollback), what is the only After Start Flow item that is allowed prior to Pushback Crew departure?
Configure the air conditioning panel as appropriate for conditioned air.
You have completed a normal pushback and start of the #2 engine. You elect to single engine taxi. How will you configure the Bleed Air control panel?
Right PACK Switch – AUTO/HIGH ISOLATION VALVE Switch – CLOSE Left PACK Switch – AUTO/HIGH
Left Engine BLEED Air Switch – OFF APU BLEED Air Switch – ON
Right Engine BLEED Air Switch – ON
After pushback, if the taxi clearance is to a runway different from the runway planned in the FMC, what must be accomplished?
Program the correct runway in the FMC, confirm takeoff performance on OPC, and re-accomplish the Pilot Flying Briefing. Conduct the Departure Plan Checklist. This must be done either prior to taxi or coordinate to stop the aircraft prior to takeoff.
After a two engine start, you decide to single engine taxi. Do the engine idle limitations for Engine Shutdown apply to a shutdown following ramp departure?
No.
During single and dual engine taxi use caution when exceeding the following recommended thrust values: _____ percent N1 congested ramps, _____ percent N1 non-congested ramps, and _____ percent N1 taxiways.
35, 40, 45
You are planning a two engine taxi in hot weather. What is the recommended configuration for maximum cooling air to the Passengers?
Both Pack Switches – AUTO/HIGH Isolation Valve Switch – CLOSED Left Engine Bleed Air Switch – OFF APU Bleed – ON
Right Engine Bleed Air Switch – ON
In an NG aircraft, with LNAV armed on the ground, LNAV guidance becomes active at _____ ft. AGL.
50
Southwest Airlines is not authorized for takeoff visibility below _____ RVR unless the Jeppesen -9A page lists HGS _____ RVR.
500 300
During takeoff (NG), you slowly advance the thrust levers. By the time you push the TOGA button the aircraft is past 95 knots. You expect the thrust levers to advance to the FMC N1 setting, but they do not. What caused the thrust levers to remain where you last set them and how can you manage the situation?
Because the aircraft was greater than 84 KIAS when the TOGA button was pushed, the autothrottle engaged in THR HLD mode. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot must then set the thrust levers manually. The autothrottles will remain in the THR HLD mode until 800 ft. RA.
Takeoff or landing is not authorized if the most current runway friction Mu report includes what value?
20 or less on any section of the runway.
You’re preparing for an HGS Takeoff at 300 RVR. What is the maximum steady crosswind allowed? Peak gust tailwind?
10 knots 10 knots
Above what speed will the Autobrakes apply maximum braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle during takeoff roll in the Classic? In the NG?
90 knots in both the Classic and NG aircraft
With the First Officer as PF and at 100 knots on takeoff roll, the FO’s sliding window comes open. Should the takeoff be continued? If you continue, when would you attempt to close the window?
Continue the takeoff. The aircraft is safe to fly. Do not attempt to close the window until at least 400 ft AGL.
While waiting to take off, ATC issues a Windshear Alert for the departure end of the runway. Can you take off?
No. Do not take off if known windshear exists at the airport.
Immediately after passing V1 on the takeoff roll on a long runway, a MASTER CAUTION light illuminates. You perceive a large percentage the runway remains in front of you. Is there still time to reject the takeoff?
Why or why not?
Rejecting the takeoff after V1 is not recommended unless the Captain judges the airplane incapable of flight. If excess runway remains after V1, there is no assurance that the brakes have the capacity to stop the airplane before the end of the runway. Under runway limited conditions, if the reject procedure is initiated after V1, the airplane may not be stopped before reaching the end of the runway.
After a normal takeoff, when can VNAV be selected? What will it command the AFDS to do?
In no case should the VNAV be selected before flap retraction is complete. When VNAV is selected, the AFDS will command immediate acceleration to 250 (default climb speed below 10,000 feet) knots or slower if FMC restriction exists.
Shortly after takeoff the fire bell sounds, and both master FIRE WARN lights and the WHEEL WELL fire light illuminate.
What does this indicate?
The indication means the temperature in the main wheel well has risen to a level that the single fire detector loop senses a fire.
Could hot brakes alone cause this condition?
Boeing engineering analysis indicates that the brakes alone cannot generate enough heat to activate the fire detector system.
What fire protection is available in the wheel well?
None.
During climb-out on a clear day, you encounter a TCAS Resolution Advisory as a result of an approaching aircraft that you observe. You assess the aircraft is “not a factor” and decide to disregard the TCAS guidance. No deviation from your ATC clearance is required. Is this the correct procedure?
No, this is not correct. Flight Crews must immediately respond to TCAS information.
If you only notify ATC of this occurrence, are your reporting requirements complete?
No. A TCAS RA requires an Immediate Notification of Dispatch as described in FOM Chapter 22. The Captain will contact Dispatch as soon as practical via the most expeditious means available.
What is the proper response to any TCAS Resolution Advisory?
Disengage the autopilot. Disengage the autothrottle. Smoothly adjust pitch and thrust to satisfy RA command. Follow the planned lateral path unless contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action.
While climbing out, you elect to use the Vertical Speed mode. What will you expect from the AFDS (Autoflight/Flight Director System)?
While climbing out, you elect to use the Vertical Speed mode. What will you expect from the AFDS (Autoflight/Flight Director System)?
The AFDS will use pitch to control the vertical speed as desired. If the selected climb rate is too low, the autothrottle will reduce engine thrust resulting in a less efficient climb. If the selected climb rate is too high, the autothrottle will advance the engine to the N1 limit. The airspeed may start to decay, also resulting in a less efficient climb or unsafe speed.
You have a non-normal situation occur at cruise altitude. Using the “Challenge-Response-Response” method, you accomplish the QRH/QRC checklist.
What is the job of the PM and PF using this method?
(PM) - Read the checklist item, then give the response.
(PF) - Verify/guard critical items or systems, then repeat the response.
(PM) - Accomplish the action.

You decide to program the FMC Descent Forecast Page with the proper descent winds and temperature/altimeter setting.
How do you calculate the proper ISA Deviation?
On a standard day, the temperature at FL 180 is approximately 21־oC. Refer to the enroute wind and temperature summary on the Dispatch Release. Calculate the difference between the forecast ־21( temperature at FL 180 and the ISA Temperature oC), and enter that value.
For example: The release shows a forecast temperature at FL 180 of 16־oC, or 5 degrees warmer than ISA. You should enter +5 into the FMC.
12000 18000 30000
00/050M24 01/035M16 040/023 01
You’re at cruise in your NG aircraft and get a STANDBY POWER OFF light. What does this indicate? What does this light
indicate in the Classic?
NG
The Battery Bus, AC Standby Bus or DC Standby Bus (or any combination) is/are unpowered.
Classic
The AC standby bus is unpowered only.
This light functions both on the ground and in the air the NG and Classic.
You have accomplished the CARGO BAY FIRE Checklist including the pressing of the FWD discharge button. How soon must you land?
60 minutes
You experience an engine failure in a Classic at FL370. You attempt to start the APU immediately, but it fails to start. What should you do before you attempt another start?
Maximum operating altitude for the APU in the Classic is FL350. Wait a minimum of 90 seconds and descend below FL350 before attempting another start.
While airborne, you just received an indication from the A Flight Attendant that the Wireless Broadband System is not working. You notice that the Broadband Control DC circuit breaker (P6-1-B-17) has tripped. Can you reset the circuit breaker?
No. The in-flight reset of a tripped circuit breaker should only be accomplished when directed by the QRH.
At FL370, as the Pilot Flying, you experience a #1 engine failure. If driftdown is required, how do you perform the driftdown maneuver?
• Disconnect autothrottle if engaged. Manually set CON thrust.
• Set engine out MAX ALT in the MCP.
• Select LVL CHG.
• Set ENG OUT SPD in the MCP Initiate turn (if
required).
• At single engine altitude, maintain CON thrust.
As the Pilot Monitoring, what are your duties?
- Select CON thrust in the FMC.
- Select L ENG OUT on the FMC CRZ page.
- Notify ATC.
What are the turbulent air penetration speeds above
15,000’MSL?
NG
280kt/0.76 Mach
Classic
280kt/0.73 Mach
You are flying on a VNAV PATH descent, but did not program the Descent Forecast Page. Passing FL180, you set the local altimeter setting of 30.45. What will most likely occur to the VNAV mode at that point?
With a local altimeter of 30.45 set, the aircraft will now be about 500 feet high on the path. VNAV will revert to VNAV SPD.
During a VNAV Idle Path Descent, does the FMC attempt to maintain target speed? If not, how can you “help” the aircraft stay at target speed?
The FMC does not attempt to maintain target speed during an Idle Path Descent. If necessary, you may use the thrust levers or the speedbrake to stay at the target speed.
During a VNAV PATH descent, you get a DRAG REQUIRED message. What does this mean? Should you deploy speedbrakes?
This message indicates that your airspeed is more than 10 knots above the planned target speed. You may or may not need to deploy speedbrakes depending on speed restrictions.
If you get high, what means do you have to get back on the PATH?
• Deploy the speedbrake • Increase the descent speed in the FMC • Increase the descent speed using Speed Intervention • Use vertical speed
You have been cleared for an ILS approach. When is it appropriate to select the MCP Approach Mode and why?
VOR/LOC or LNAV should be used to intercept the localizer course. After VOR/LOC capture, select the Approach Mode. If Approach Mode selected prior to course capture, the aircraft could descend on the glide slope regardless of course guidance.
During an ILS approach, when must crews execute a missed approach?
- The CDI exceeds a 2 dot deflection while on the final approach segment in IMC.
- A 2 dot low glideslope deflection on the final approach segment in IMC.
- In the NG, the expanded LOC pointer becomes “unfilled” while on the final approach segment in IMC.
- Either pilot directs a go-around.
You’re the PF on a Flaps 40 approach in the weather. Autothrottles and autopilot are engaged. At Decision Altitude, the runway environment is not in sight. To direct a Missed Approach, the correct callout is:
“Go Around, Flaps 15.”
After calling for the Missed Approach, you advance the thrust levers to the desired go-around thrust and push TO/GA once.
What is the callout for the PM?
What do you expect him/her to do with the thrust levers?
“Go Around.”
Adjust thrust levers, as necessary.
What will occur when you push the TO/GA button?
Pushing the TO/GA button once will disconnect the autopilot and cause the autothrottle to advance the thrust levers to a reduced go-around setting.
When can you re-engage the autopilot?
1000 feet AAE
At 1000 ft AAE, with the MCP airspeed window closed, what should the callout be for the PF?
“Flaps 5.”
During a normal two-engine missed approach after pushing the TO/GA button, will the MCP window be open or closed?
What will cause the window to open?
When the TO/GA button is pushed, the MCP airspeed window will close. The window will open when: a manual selection of Vertical Speed or Level Change, the Autopilot is engaged, or the Flight Director transitions to Altitude Acquire.
During the missed approach, what guidance will the Flight Director provide:
In Pitch Mode? In Roll Mode?
Pitch
15 degrees nose up until reaching programmed rate of climb, - then - target airspeed for each flap setting.
Roll
Ground track at time of engagement. When a missed approach exists in the FMC, the go- around track hold mode will automatically transition to LNAV.
What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing Pressure Altitude limit?
8,400 Feet
You are landing a -800 equipped with Split Scimitar Winglets. What bank angle at touchdown will result in the lower ventral strake hitting the ground?
8.8 degrees.
What is the maximum crosswind to ensure sufficient ground clearance using the “wing low” crosswind landing technique alone?
15 knots of crosswind
On short final in your -800, sudden loss of airspeed occurs due to a -10 knot gust. You add some thrust, but the aircraft experiences a high, hard bounce. At this point, what should you do?
Initiate a go-around. Apply go-around thrust and use normal go-around procedures.
If you elect to try and “save” the landing described above, what could occur?
A tail strike could occur. If higher-than-idle power is maintained through initial touchdown, automatic speedbrake deployment may be disabled even when speedbrakes are armed. During the resultant bounce, if thrust levers are then retarded to idle, automatic speedbrake deployment can occur. This will result in a loss of lift and nose-up pitching moment that can result in a tail strike or hard landing. Almost all tail strikes that occur during landing result in significant damage to the aircraft
What is the maximum speed to exit via a high speed taxiway?
60 knots ground speed
After landing, during taxi in, a MASTER CAUTION light comes on, but is promptly reset without noting the specific cause. Is this the proper procedure? What important malfunction could be missed?
No, this is not the proper procedure. All MASTER CAUTION lights should be investigated, no matter what phase of flight. An ENGINE CONTROL (NG only) light (which only occurs on the ground and with the engine operating) could be missed, potentially causing a significant delay on the next flight.
In the gate area, a 90 degree turn into the gate is required. You decide to lead the turn, with your nose gear aligning on the J-line just before the Ramp Agent stops your aircraft.
Is this the proper procedure? What might result in this case?
This is not the correct procedure. Align the aircraft properly from the top of the J-line. Otherwise, a “tail drift” could result and the entire aircraft might not be inside the safety zone at shut down.
After engine shutdown, you get an FMS message (NG only) stating a Flap 30 limit was exceeded, max speed 174.8. What must you do now?
You must write up the flap exceedance in the logbook. Notify Dispatch and Maintenance Control.
Maintenance Control says to document the exceedance using an “Info Only” logbook entry. Is this OK?
An “Info Only” write up for any flap overspeed is not correct.
You are terminating your NG aircraft at an out station with no Southwest Maintenance. Your #1 Engine oil quantity during the Parking Checklist is 62 percent. Do you need to request oil servicing?
Yes, 65 percent is the minimum NG terminating oil quantity for non-Southwest Maintenance bases.
Below what quantity must you request servicing when terminating a Classic at an out station with no Southwest Maintenance?
2.5 gallons.
You experience an aircraft malfunction during a flight, but successfully complete the flight and arrive at the planned gate. A Maintenance Technician meets the aircraft and you describe the malfunction in detail to him. He acknowledges the problem and leaves to contact Maintenance Control, while you clean up the flight deck to get ready to go the hotel.
Have you completed your duties?
No. Flight Deck Crew Members are responsible for recording any mechanical defects encountered or observed during operation of the aircraft. Complete the logbook write-up and ensure the Mechanic has no further questions regarding the malfunction.
What is normal A system pressure?
3000 psi
What would Hydraulic A system quantity indicate with a leak in the engine driven pump or its associated lines?
What about the electric pump or its associated lines?
20% (due to standpipe).
0%
With a loss of system A, what does the A - Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
A - Flight Control LOW PRESSURE::Indicates hydraulic pressure to the primary flight controls (Aileron, Elevator, and Rudder) is low due to the complete loss of system A.
With a loss of system A, what does the FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicate?
FEEL DIFF PRESS: Indicates an excessive differential hydraulic pressure sensed in the elevator feel computer between hydraulic systems A and B.
What happens when you move the associated Flight Control switch to STBY RUD, as directed by the QRH?
The associated hydraulic system will no longer power the flight controls. The Standby Rudder pump and PCU will power the rudder.
What causes the Standby Hydraulic System to automatically activate?
1) Low pressure in hydraulic systems A and/or B with flaps extended, and either in flight, or on the ground with wheel speed greater than 60 KIAS
Note: Auto operation does not deactivate the flight control low pressure light.
Note: When airborne and the flaps are retracted, the standby pump shuts off and the valve closes (Standby Rudder ON light extinguishes).
2) Force Fight Monitor triggered.
3) (CL) The Rudder Pressure Reducer failed to
change system A pressure (to the rudder PCU) to normal at 700’ RA on landing.
What does the Force Fight Monitor System do?
Detects opposing pressure between main rudder PCU A and B actuators. If opposing force is detected, the FFM automatically turns on the Standby Hydraulic Pump and power the standby rudder PCU to provide the pilot with adequate rudder control.
What does the Rudder Pressure Reducer do and why?
Reduces system A pressure to the rudder PCU above 1000’ RA to give the pilot more time to react to large rudder deflections. Pressure should be returned to normal at 700’ RA on approach to landing.
Note: The NGs have a Rudder Pressure Limiter that performs a similar function by reducing both A and B pressure by 25% to limit full rudder authority in flight. This occurs at speeds above approx. 135 KIAS.
With a loss of the A system, what major aircraft system will be affected, and what additional procedure will you eventually have to accomplish?
Landing Gear - Manual Gear extension.
