2016 SWA PC Check Flashcards
1
Q
3 Conditions require you to do a preflight exterior inspection?
A
Originating Flight, Aircraft Change, FO Change
2
Q
How does the Captain verify the maintenance status is acceptable for flight?
A
All write-ups are properly deferred or cleared.
Aircraft systems and controls can be safely actuated and no maintenance repairs are in progress.
MEL/CDL items agree with remarks in the Dispatch Release.
3
Q
How would you recognize a TR failure during your preflight in a Classic?
A
TR1 or TR2 Failure.
The DC ammeter on TR1 and TR2 would register zero amps and the DC voltmeter would register 22-30 volts.
TR3 Failure.
The DC ammeter on TR3 would register zero amps and the DC voltmeter would register zero volts.
4
Q
Does the NG aircraft have any additional indication(s)?
A
Does the NG aircraft have any additional indication(s)?
Yes. The TR UNIT light will illuminate, indicating
On the ground -
A single failure of TR1, TR2, or TR3.
In Flight –
A failure of TR1, or
A failure of TR2 and TR3.
5
Q
You’re preparing to depart BWI on a scheduled flight to an international destination. What documents must be on board?
A
- International Forms Kit
* Crew Passports
6
Q
What kind of servicing and provisioning must you ensure has been completed before departing?
A
The aircraft must have lavatory and potable water servicing. It is Southwest Airlines policy to transport ice for the return leg in the aircraft cargo bin.
7
Q
The Dispatch Release will indicate whether you have been dispatched under Flag Operation or OpSpec A012. What will vary, depending on the method of dispatch?
A
Required Fuel Onboard at Takeoff.
8
Q
You have a few minutes to study for your particular destination. Where can you find individualized Route Briefs for your flight?
A
EFB or SWALife
9
Q
It’s the first flight of the day, and a seal is missing on a clear plastic container with two seals. Neither a SWA Mechanic nor a contract maintenance technician is immediately available. Can a Pilot replace the seal?
A
Yes, if the other seal is intact, the container has not been tampered with, and there are no other items in the container. Ensure the WN-966/966i is annotated in the resolution block.
10
Q
During your preflight on an originator, you discover a tripped circuit breaker behind the First Officer’s seat. You suspect it was tripped inadvertently the previous night by the terminating crew. Can you reset the circuit breaker and continue your preflight?
What is the proper procedure?
A
The Flight Deck Crew should not reset a tripped circuit breaker on the ground until Maintenance has determined that it is safe to reset. Aircraft logbook documentation is required and includes one of the following:
Any time a tripped circuit breaker is reset by a Flight Deck Crew Member, an Info-Only entry is required in the aircraft logbook. The Maintenance Controller’s name must be included in the entry. If Maintenance Control directs the tripped circuit breaker is not to be reset, the defect is entered into the logbook.
11
Q
During the Captain’s Flight Deck Preparation on an originator, the OFF light does not extinguish when the Flight Recorder Test Switch is moved to TEST. Is this a successful test? Should the OFF light be extinguished after the test switch is returned to the normal (guarded) position?
A
No, this test is not successful. The OFF light should extinguish when the test switch is moved to TEST. After returning the switch to the normal (guarded) position, the OFF light will be illuminated (with the engines shut down and AC power available).
12
Q
You’re at the gate with an inoperative APU and require a ground air start. Which engine will you start first? Why?
A
Engine #1, to minimize the hazard to the ground crew.
13
Q
What is the minimum duct pressure required for the ground air start?
A
Classic - 30 psi. Allow for a 0.5psi reduction per thousand feet above sea level.
NG – Not Applicable
14
Q
After engine start and prior to push from the gate, what must be accomplished before placing the #1 generator online?
A
Verify with the Ground Crew that the towbar and nose wheel are aligned prior to placing the generator on the buses.
15
Q
After pushback is complete and the ground crew has departed, you determine a two-engine taxi is appropriate and need to perform a Crossbleed start. What must the crew first do? How much Duct Pressure is required to start?
A
Ensure the area behind the aircraft is safe to accomplish the crossbleed start. Advance thrust lever to obtain a minimum duct pressure is 30 psi (subtract 0.5 psi per thousand feet above sea level).
16
Q
After pushback has commenced, do not make _____ or _____ power changes with the towbar connected.
A
Electrical or hydraulic.
17
Q
You are starting the #2 engine. Before the start lever is raised to IDLE you notice no N1 rotation. What should you do?
A
Accomplish the Aborted Engine Start checklist in the QRC.
18
Q
During engine start, the START VALVE OPEN alert comes on and starts flashing. What is the proper procedure to deal with this problem?
A
Perform the QRH “Start Valve Open” checklist.
19
Q
After starting the first engine (through the rollback), what is the only After Start Flow item that is allowed prior to Pushback Crew departure?
A
Configure the air conditioning panel as appropriate for conditioned air.
20
Q
You have completed a normal pushback and start of the #2 engine. You elect to single engine taxi. How will you configure the Bleed Air control panel?
A
Right PACK Switch – AUTO/HIGH ISOLATION VALVE Switch – CLOSE Left PACK Switch – AUTO/HIGH
Left Engine BLEED Air Switch – OFF APU BLEED Air Switch – ON
Right Engine BLEED Air Switch – ON
21
Q
After pushback, if the taxi clearance is to a runway different from the runway planned in the FMC, what must be accomplished?
A
Program the correct runway in the FMC, confirm takeoff performance on OPC, and re-accomplish the Pilot Flying Briefing. Conduct the Departure Plan Checklist. This must be done either prior to taxi or coordinate to stop the aircraft prior to takeoff.
22
Q
After a two engine start, you decide to single engine taxi. Do the engine idle limitations for Engine Shutdown apply to a shutdown following ramp departure?
A
No.
23
Q
During single and dual engine taxi use caution when exceeding the following recommended thrust values: _____ percent N1 congested ramps, _____ percent N1 non-congested ramps, and _____ percent N1 taxiways.
A
35, 40, 45
24
Q
You are planning a two engine taxi in hot weather. What is the recommended configuration for maximum cooling air to the Passengers?
A
Both Pack Switches – AUTO/HIGH Isolation Valve Switch – CLOSED Left Engine Bleed Air Switch – OFF APU Bleed – ON
Right Engine Bleed Air Switch – ON
25
In an NG aircraft, with LNAV armed on the ground, LNAV guidance becomes active at _____ ft. AGL.
50
26
Southwest Airlines is not authorized for takeoff visibility below _____ RVR unless the Jeppesen -9A page lists HGS _____ RVR.
500 300
27
During takeoff (NG), you slowly advance the thrust levers. By the time you push the TOGA button the aircraft is past 95 knots. You expect the thrust levers to advance to the FMC N1 setting, but they do not. What caused the thrust levers to remain where you last set them and how can you manage the situation?
Because the aircraft was greater than 84 KIAS when the TOGA button was pushed, the autothrottle engaged in THR HLD mode. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot must then set the thrust levers manually. The autothrottles will remain in the THR HLD mode until 800 ft. RA.
28
Takeoff or landing is not authorized if the most current runway friction Mu report includes what value?
20 or less on any section of the runway.
29
You’re preparing for an HGS Takeoff at 300 RVR. What is the maximum steady crosswind allowed? Peak gust tailwind?
10 knots 10 knots
30
Above what speed will the Autobrakes apply maximum braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle during takeoff roll in the Classic? In the NG?
90 knots in both the Classic and NG aircraft
31
With the First Officer as PF and at 100 knots on takeoff roll, the FO’s sliding window comes open. Should the takeoff be continued? If you continue, when would you attempt to close the window?
Continue the takeoff. The aircraft is safe to fly. Do not attempt to close the window until at least 400 ft AGL.
32
While waiting to take off, ATC issues a Windshear Alert for the departure end of the runway. Can you take off?
No. Do not take off if known windshear exists at the airport.
33
Immediately after passing V1 on the takeoff roll on a long runway, a MASTER CAUTION light illuminates. You perceive a large percentage the runway remains in front of you. Is there still time to reject the takeoff?
Why or why not?
Rejecting the takeoff after V1 is not recommended unless the Captain judges the airplane incapable of flight. If excess runway remains after V1, there is no assurance that the brakes have the capacity to stop the airplane before the end of the runway. Under runway limited conditions, if the reject procedure is initiated after V1, the airplane may not be stopped before reaching the end of the runway.
34
After a normal takeoff, when can VNAV be selected? What will it command the AFDS to do?
In no case should the VNAV be selected before flap retraction is complete. When VNAV is selected, the AFDS will command immediate acceleration to 250 (default climb speed below 10,000 feet) knots or slower if FMC restriction exists.
35
Shortly after takeoff the fire bell sounds, and both master FIRE WARN lights and the WHEEL WELL fire light illuminate.
What does this indicate?
The indication means the temperature in the main wheel well has risen to a level that the single fire detector loop senses a fire.
36
Could hot brakes alone cause this condition?
Boeing engineering analysis indicates that the brakes alone cannot generate enough heat to activate the fire detector system.
37
What fire protection is available in the wheel well?
None.
38
During climb-out on a clear day, you encounter a TCAS Resolution Advisory as a result of an approaching aircraft that you observe. You assess the aircraft is “not a factor” and decide to disregard the TCAS guidance. No deviation from your ATC clearance is required. Is this the correct procedure?
No, this is not correct. Flight Crews must immediately respond to TCAS information.
39
If you only notify ATC of this occurrence, are your reporting requirements complete?
No. A TCAS RA requires an Immediate Notification of Dispatch as described in FOM Chapter 22. The Captain will contact Dispatch as soon as practical via the most expeditious means available.
40
What is the proper response to any TCAS Resolution Advisory?
Disengage the autopilot. Disengage the autothrottle. Smoothly adjust pitch and thrust to satisfy RA command. Follow the planned lateral path unless contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action.
41
While climbing out, you elect to use the Vertical Speed mode. What will you expect from the AFDS (Autoflight/Flight Director System)?
While climbing out, you elect to use the Vertical Speed mode. What will you expect from the AFDS (Autoflight/Flight Director System)?
The AFDS will use pitch to control the vertical speed as desired. If the selected climb rate is too low, the autothrottle will reduce engine thrust resulting in a less efficient climb. If the selected climb rate is too high, the autothrottle will advance the engine to the N1 limit. The airspeed may start to decay, also resulting in a less efficient climb or unsafe speed.
42
You have a non-normal situation occur at cruise altitude. Using the “Challenge-Response-Response” method, you accomplish the QRH/QRC checklist.
What is the job of the PM and PF using this method?
(PM) - Read the checklist item, then give the response.
(PF) - Verify/guard critical items or systems, then repeat the response.
(PM) - Accomplish the action.

43
You decide to program the FMC Descent Forecast Page with the proper descent winds and temperature/altimeter setting.
How do you calculate the proper ISA Deviation?
On a standard day, the temperature at FL 180 is approximately 21־oC. Refer to the enroute wind and temperature summary on the Dispatch Release. Calculate the difference between the forecast ־21( temperature at FL 180 and the ISA Temperature oC), and enter that value.
For example: The release shows a forecast temperature at FL 180 of 16־oC, or 5 degrees warmer than ISA. You should enter +5 into the FMC.
12000 18000 30000
00/050M24 01/035M16 040/023 01
44
You’re at cruise in your NG aircraft and get a STANDBY POWER OFF light. What does this indicate? What does this light
indicate in the Classic?
NG
The Battery Bus, AC Standby Bus or DC Standby Bus (or any combination) is/are unpowered.
Classic
The AC standby bus is unpowered only.
This light functions both on the ground and in the air the NG and Classic.
45
You have accomplished the CARGO BAY FIRE Checklist including the pressing of the FWD discharge button. How soon must you land?
60 minutes
46
You experience an engine failure in a Classic at FL370. You attempt to start the APU immediately, but it fails to start. What should you do before you attempt another start?
Maximum operating altitude for the APU in the Classic is FL350. Wait a minimum of 90 seconds and descend below FL350 before attempting another start.
47
While airborne, you just received an indication from the A Flight Attendant that the Wireless Broadband System is not working. You notice that the Broadband Control DC circuit breaker (P6-1-B-17) has tripped. Can you reset the circuit breaker?
No. The in-flight reset of a tripped circuit breaker should only be accomplished when directed by the QRH.
48
At FL370, as the Pilot Flying, you experience a #1 engine failure. If driftdown is required, how do you perform the driftdown maneuver?
• Disconnect autothrottle if engaged. Manually set CON thrust.
• Set engine out MAX ALT in the MCP.
• Select LVL CHG.
• Set ENG OUT SPD in the MCP Initiate turn (if
required).
• At single engine altitude, maintain CON thrust.
49
As the Pilot Monitoring, what are your duties?
* Select CON thrust in the FMC.
* Select L ENG OUT on the FMC CRZ page.
* Notify ATC.
50
What are the turbulent air penetration speeds above
| 15,000’MSL?
NG
280kt/0.76 Mach
Classic
280kt/0.73 Mach
51
You are flying on a VNAV PATH descent, but did not program the Descent Forecast Page. Passing FL180, you set the local altimeter setting of 30.45. What will most likely occur to the VNAV mode at that point?
With a local altimeter of 30.45 set, the aircraft will now be about 500 feet high on the path. VNAV will revert to VNAV SPD.
52
During a VNAV Idle Path Descent, does the FMC attempt to maintain target speed? If not, how can you “help” the aircraft stay at target speed?
The FMC does not attempt to maintain target speed during an Idle Path Descent. If necessary, you may use the thrust levers or the speedbrake to stay at the target speed.
53
During a VNAV PATH descent, you get a DRAG REQUIRED message. What does this mean? Should you deploy speedbrakes?
This message indicates that your airspeed is more than 10 knots above the planned target speed. You may or may not need to deploy speedbrakes depending on speed restrictions.
54
If you get high, what means do you have to get back on the PATH?
```
• Deploy the speedbrake
• Increase the descent speed in the FMC
• Increase the descent speed using Speed
Intervention
• Use vertical speed
```
55
You have been cleared for an ILS approach. When is it appropriate to select the MCP Approach Mode and why?
VOR/LOC or LNAV should be used to intercept the localizer course. After VOR/LOC capture, select the Approach Mode. If Approach Mode selected prior to course capture, the aircraft could descend on the glide slope regardless of course guidance.
56
During an ILS approach, when must crews execute a missed approach?
* The CDI exceeds a 2 dot deflection while on the final approach segment in IMC.
* A 2 dot low glideslope deflection on the final approach segment in IMC.
* In the NG, the expanded LOC pointer becomes “unfilled” while on the final approach segment in IMC.
* Either pilot directs a go-around.
57
You’re the PF on a Flaps 40 approach in the weather. Autothrottles and autopilot are engaged. At Decision Altitude, the runway environment is not in sight. To direct a Missed Approach, the correct callout is:
“Go Around, Flaps 15.”
58
After calling for the Missed Approach, you advance the thrust levers to the desired go-around thrust and push TO/GA once.
What is the callout for the PM?
What do you expect him/her to do with the thrust levers?
“Go Around.”
| Adjust thrust levers, as necessary.
59
What will occur when you push the TO/GA button?
Pushing the TO/GA button once will disconnect the autopilot and cause the autothrottle to advance the thrust levers to a reduced go-around setting.
60
When can you re-engage the autopilot?
1000 feet AAE
61
At 1000 ft AAE, with the MCP airspeed window closed, what should the callout be for the PF?
“Flaps 5.”
62
During a normal two-engine missed approach after pushing the TO/GA button, will the MCP window be open or closed?
What will cause the window to open?
When the TO/GA button is pushed, the MCP airspeed window will close. The window will open when: a manual selection of Vertical Speed or Level Change, the Autopilot is engaged, or the Flight Director transitions to Altitude Acquire.
63
During the missed approach, what guidance will the Flight Director provide:
In Pitch Mode? In Roll Mode?
Pitch
15 degrees nose up until reaching programmed rate of climb, - then - target airspeed for each flap setting.
Roll
Ground track at time of engagement. When a missed approach exists in the FMC, the go- around track hold mode will automatically transition to LNAV.
64
What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing Pressure Altitude limit?
8,400 Feet
65
You are landing a -800 equipped with Split Scimitar Winglets. What bank angle at touchdown will result in the lower ventral strake hitting the ground?
8.8 degrees.
66
What is the maximum crosswind to ensure sufficient ground clearance using the “wing low” crosswind landing technique alone?
15 knots of crosswind
67
On short final in your -800, sudden loss of airspeed occurs due to a -10 knot gust. You add some thrust, but the aircraft experiences a high, hard bounce. At this point, what should you do?
Initiate a go-around. Apply go-around thrust and use normal go-around procedures.
68
If you elect to try and “save” the landing described above, what could occur?
A tail strike could occur. If higher-than-idle power is maintained through initial touchdown, automatic speedbrake deployment may be disabled even when speedbrakes are armed. During the resultant bounce, if thrust levers are then retarded to idle, automatic speedbrake deployment can occur. This will result in a loss of lift and nose-up pitching moment that can result in a tail strike or hard landing. Almost all tail strikes that occur during landing result in significant damage to the aircraft
69
What is the maximum speed to exit via a high speed taxiway?
60 knots ground speed
70
After landing, during taxi in, a MASTER CAUTION light comes on, but is promptly reset without noting the specific cause. Is this the proper procedure? What important malfunction could be missed?
No, this is not the proper procedure. All MASTER CAUTION lights should be investigated, no matter what phase of flight. An ENGINE CONTROL (NG only) light (which only occurs on the ground and with the engine operating) could be missed, potentially causing a significant delay on the next flight.
71
In the gate area, a 90 degree turn into the gate is required. You decide to lead the turn, with your nose gear aligning on the J-line just before the Ramp Agent stops your aircraft.
Is this the proper procedure? What might result in this case?
This is not the correct procedure. Align the aircraft properly from the top of the J-line. Otherwise, a “tail drift” could result and the entire aircraft might not be inside the safety zone at shut down.
72
After engine shutdown, you get an FMS message (NG only) stating a Flap 30 limit was exceeded, max speed 174.8. What must you do now?
You must write up the flap exceedance in the logbook. Notify Dispatch and Maintenance Control.
73
Maintenance Control says to document the exceedance using an “Info Only” logbook entry. Is this OK?
An “Info Only” write up for any flap overspeed is not correct.
74
You are terminating your NG aircraft at an out station with no Southwest Maintenance. Your #1 Engine oil quantity during the Parking Checklist is 62 percent. Do you need to request oil servicing?
Yes, 65 percent is the minimum NG terminating oil quantity for non-Southwest Maintenance bases.
75
Below what quantity must you request servicing when terminating a Classic at an out station with no Southwest Maintenance?
2.5 gallons.
76
You experience an aircraft malfunction during a flight, but successfully complete the flight and arrive at the planned gate. A Maintenance Technician meets the aircraft and you describe the malfunction in detail to him. He acknowledges the problem and leaves to contact Maintenance Control, while you clean up the flight deck to get ready to go the hotel.
Have you completed your duties?
No. Flight Deck Crew Members are responsible for recording any mechanical defects encountered or observed during operation of the aircraft. Complete the logbook write-up and ensure the Mechanic has no further questions regarding the malfunction.
77
What is normal A system pressure?
3000 psi
78
What would Hydraulic A system quantity indicate with a leak in the engine driven pump or its associated lines?
What about the electric pump or its associated lines?
20% (due to standpipe).
0%
79
With a loss of system A, what does the A - Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
A - Flight Control LOW PRESSURE::Indicates hydraulic pressure to the primary flight controls (Aileron, Elevator, and Rudder) is low due to the complete loss of system A.
80
With a loss of system A, what does the FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicate?
FEEL DIFF PRESS: Indicates an excessive differential hydraulic pressure sensed in the elevator feel computer between hydraulic systems A and B.
81
What happens when you move the associated Flight Control switch to STBY RUD, as directed by the QRH?
The associated hydraulic system will no longer power the flight controls. The Standby Rudder pump and PCU will power the rudder.
82
What causes the Standby Hydraulic System to automatically activate?
1) Low pressure in hydraulic systems A and/or B with flaps extended, and either in flight, or on the ground with wheel speed greater than 60 KIAS
Note: Auto operation does not deactivate the flight control low pressure light.
Note: When airborne and the flaps are retracted, the standby pump shuts off and the valve closes (Standby Rudder ON light extinguishes).
2) Force Fight Monitor triggered.
3) (CL) The Rudder Pressure Reducer failed to
change system A pressure (to the rudder PCU) to normal at 700’ RA on landing.
83
What does the Force Fight Monitor System do?
Detects opposing pressure between main rudder PCU A and B actuators. If opposing force is detected, the FFM automatically turns on the Standby Hydraulic Pump and power the standby rudder PCU to provide the pilot with adequate rudder control.
84
What does the Rudder Pressure Reducer do and why?
Reduces system A pressure to the rudder PCU above 1000’ RA to give the pilot more time to react to large rudder deflections. Pressure should be returned to normal at 700’ RA on approach to landing.
Note: The NGs have a Rudder Pressure Limiter that performs a similar function by reducing both A and B pressure by 25% to limit full rudder authority in flight. This occurs at speeds above approx. 135 KIAS.
85
With a loss of the A system, what major aircraft system will be affected, and what additional procedure will you eventually have to accomplish?
Landing Gear - Manual Gear extension.
86
```
With the loss of System A hydraulics, will the following systems be available upon landing?
• Braking
• Thrust Reverse
• Nose Wheel Steering
• Ground Spoilers
• Flight Spoilers
```
Braking – Yes, via normal brakes powered by the B system.
• Thrust Reverse – Yes, at a slower rate due to being powered by the Standby system.
• Nose Wheel Steering – Yes, via alternate steering powered by System B.
• Ground Spoilers – No.
• Flight Spoilers – Yes, 2 (NG) / 1 (CL) on each
wing via the System B hydraulics.
87
Is the Alternate Nose Wheel Steering automatic?
No, Alternate Nose Wheel Steering must be selected.
88
Is the selection of Alternate Nose Wheel Steering directed by the QRH?
Yes.
89
Where is the Alternate Nose Wheel Steering switch located?
The Switch is located on the Captain’s forward instrument panel.
90
If the Alternate Nose Wheel Steering switch is set to ALT, can you tow the aircraft?
The switch must be returned to NORM prior to the aircraft being towed.
91
Where can you find the maximum speed for landing gear extension?
Placard on the forward panel near the gear handle.
92
What is normal B system pressure?
3000 psi
93
What would Hydraulic B system quantity indicate with a leak in the engine driven pump or its associated lines?
What about the electric pump or its associated lines?
0%
0%
94
* Is any residual B fluid retained when the B quantity indicates zero?
* If so, why?
Yes, for operation of the PTU.
In the event of a loss of the B hydraulic system, a small amount of B system fluid is retained (standpipe) for operation of the auto slats via the PTU.
Note: Hydraulic system A powers a pump that uses B fluid to move the auto slats to the full extend position if required
95
With a loss of system B, what does the B - Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
B - Flight Control LOW PRESSURE: Indicates hydraulic pressure to the primary flight controls (Aileron, Elevator, and Rudder) is low due to the complete loss of system B
96
With a loss of system B, what does the FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicate?
FEEL DIFF PRESS: Indicates an excessive differential hydraulic pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer between hydraulic systems A and B.
97
With a loss of system B, does the YAW DAMPER light illuminate?
Even though the yaw damper is inoperative, the YAW DAMPER light will not illuminate until the B FLIGHT CONTROL switch is placed to OFF or STBY RUD.
98
With a loss of system B, can the Yaw Damper be cycled OFF then ON to regain the system?
No. The Standby Yaw Damper can only be engaged if both Flight Control switches are placed to STBY RUDDER and the Yaw Damper switch is then placed back to ON. (NG)
99
With a loss of the B system, what major aircraft system will be affected, and what additional procedure will you eventually have to accomplish?
The Trailing Edge Flaps will be affected and will have to be extended electrically via the Alternate Flap Extension Procedure
100
What happens when you position the Alternate Flaps Master Switch to ON?
Allows the flaps to be controlled electrically by:
• Activating the Standby Hydraulic pump.
• Closing the Trailing Edge Flap bypass valve.
• Arming the Alternate Flaps Position Switch
101
What happens when you move the Alternate Flaps Position Switch to DOWN?
* The LEDs are immediately driven to the full extend position via the standby hydraulic system
* The TEF are electrically extended as long as the switch is held down.
102
Once extended by the Alternate Flaps Position Switch, can the trailing edge flaps be raised?
Yes
103
Is there asymmetry protection while extending/retracting the trailing edge flaps electrically?
No.
104
Once manually extended, can the leading edge devices be raised?
No.
105
Is there a limitation regarding electrically moving the trailing edge flaps?
Yes, the alternate flap duty cycle is one complete cycle then 5 minutes off. A complete cycle is 0-15 and back to 0. The alternate flap position switch must be in the OFF position for 15 seconds before reversing direction of movement.
106
```
With the loss of System B hydraulics, will the following systems be available upon landing?
• Braking
• Thrust Reverse
• Nose Wheel Steering
• Ground Spoilers
• Flight Spoilers
```
• Braking – Yes, via alternate brakes powered by the A system
• Thrust Reverse – Yes, at a slower rate due to being powered by the Standby system
• Nose Wheel Steering – Yes, via normal steering powered by System A
• Ground Spoilers – Yes, via the A system
• Flight Spoilers – Yes, 2 (NG) / 1 (CL) on each
wing via the System A hydraulics
107
Are any additional OPC selections required prior to landing?
Yes, Loss of System B: Flaps 15
108
Where would you find the maximum speed that an Alternate Flap Extension can be initiated?
Placarded on forward instrument panel.
• NG: 230 KIAS
• CL: 230 KIAS
109
What does the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicate when airborne with the flaps up?
A fault occurs in the auto speed brake system or wing load alleviation system (as installed).
110
Say this occurs during an approach. Are any OPC adjustments required?
Yes. You must go to the MEL button and then select Auto Speed Brakes Inoperative
111
What causes the SPEED BRAKES EXTENDED light to illuminate?
* The speed brake lever is beyond the armed position, and
* TEF are more than 10, or
* RA is less than 800 ft
112
What conditions must be met for the speed brakes to automatically deploy on landin
• Speed Brake lever in the armed position
• Speed brake armed light illuminated
• RA less than 10’
• Landing gear strut compression or wheel spin
up
• Both thrust levers at Idle.
113
Are there any limitations associated with Speed Brake usage?
* Do not use below 1000’ AGL
* In flight, do not use with the flaps extended
* In flight, do not extend beyond the flight detent
114
What is the purpose of the wing load alleviation system?
The load alleviation system protects the wing from exceeding design load margins with the flight spoilers deployed under certain high gross weight and airspeed conditions. If the system is activated, it will automatically move the speed brake handle to the 50% position. Movement past the 50% point is restricted but in an emergency can be overridden.
115
What types of LEDs are installed on the B737and what are their normal positions?
• LE Flaps that are either UP or Full Extend
• LE Slats that can be Up, Extend, or Full
Extend
116
What does the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light indicate?
Leading Edge devices are not in the commanded position or a leading edge asymmetry is detected.
117
When do the LE Slats move to the Full Extend position in the:
• -300/500?
• -700?
• -800?
Flap lever is moved beyond
| •5 •5 • 25
118
What is the maximum altitude to extend the flaps?
20,000’
119
When is the Trailing Edge Flap Load Relief function operative?
• -300/500? • -700?
• -800?
Trailing edge flaps in positions:
• 40
• 30, and 40
• 10, 15,25, 30, and 40
120
Will the flaps move when a new position is selected?
No.
121
What is the difference between the Classic and NG flap asymmetry detection?
The difference is the NG has an FSEU and the classic has a comparator in the indicator.
122
(PF) If a go-around is conducted after experiencing a TE Flap asymmetry, what is your initial callout?
“Go-Around
123
PM) What are the Pilot Monitoring actions when the PF calls “Go Around?”
* Verify TO/GA on the FMA.
* Reply, “Go Around.”
* Adjust thrust levers, as necessary.
* Verify go-around pitch attitude (initially 15o).
124
What will happen when you subsequently position the landing gear lever UP?
It will retract and the landing configuration warning horn will sound.
125
Should you consider maintaining your current configuration?
Yes, in order to minimize distractions
126
hen manually flying the aircraft, can the stab trim wheel move automatically?
Yes, the Speed Trim System will automatically move the stab trim in conditions like takeoff, climb, and go-around.
127
What conditions have to exist for the system to operate?
The system operates if the aircraft has a low gross weight, aft CG, and high thrust setting with the autopilot off.
128
What does the Mach Trim system do?
The system provides automatic repositioning of the elevators as a function of Mach number to prevent Mach tuck (the control column will move).
129
Where can you find the max speeds to operate with the Mach Trim inoperative?
AOM Chapter 3, QRH Section 9, Mach Trim System MEL.
• NG: 280 knots / .82 Mach
• CL: .74 Mach
130
What does the Autoslat system do?
Provides stall protection by moving the LE slats from the EXT to the FULL EXT position prior to stick shaker to improve stall characteristics at high angles of attack.
131
Does the Autoslat system work if the aircraft is clean?
Provides stall protection by moving the LE slats from the EXT to the FULL EXT position prior to stick shaker to improve stall characteristics at high angles of attack.
132
Does the Autoslat system work if the aircraft is clean?
No, the trailing edge flaps must be at positions 1, 2, or 5 (and 10, 15 and 25 in the -800).
133
What are the primary and backup sources of power for the Autoslats?
The primary power source is Hydraulic System B If B is lost, System A powers the PTU which uses residual system B fluid to drive the Auto Slats.
134
What is the purpose of the STAB TRIM MAIN ELECT and the STAB TRIM AUTOPILOT cutout switch located on the control stand?
To allow the autopilot or main electric trim inputs to be disconnected from the stabilizer trim motor.
135
Is there another way to stop operation of the main electric and autopilot trim?
Yes, the control column actuated cutout switches stop the main electric and autopilot trim when the control column movement opposes trim direction.
136
What is the purpose of the STAB TRIM override switch on the center pedestal?
When the STAB TRIM OVERRIDE switch is positioned to OVERRIDE, electric trim can be used regardless of control column position.
137
What does the stabilizer trim wheel do?
Manually positions the stabilizer. Manual rotation of the trim wheel can be used to override autopilot or main electric trim.
138
What does the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM light indicate if it illuminates while arming the system for landing?
In this situation, a malfunction exists in the automatic braking system.
139
When is the use of flaps 40 recommended?
Flaps 30 is the normal setting for landing, but flaps 40 landings are recommended in the following situations:
• Negative [bracketed] OPC stopping margin
under Min(2) for flaps 30.
• Reported braking action is less than GOOD.
• Weather is at or near minimums for the
approach to be flown.
140
In order to meet AUTOBRAKE MAX OPC generated approximate stopping margins, Max manual braking must be initiated at what point?
Nose wheel touchdown.
141
Is landing authorized on a runway has brackets around the Max stopping margin for a given flap setting?
No. Choose another flap setting or runway that provides a positive stopping margin.
142
Can you safely initiate a rejected landing after reverse thrust deployment?
No. A go-around is not an option after the reverse thrust reverser levers are raised.
143
What would cause the landing gear handle to not move UP after takeoff?
Failure of the air/ground safety sensor or failure of the landing gear lever lock solenoid.
144
If the air/ground safety sensor has failed in the ground position, what indications might you have?
CDU would still display the Takeoff Reference page, the intermittent warning horn will sound with the TE Flaps retracted, and/or the Takeoff Configuration warning light will illuminate with the TE Flaps retracted.
145
What is the purpose of the landing gear lever lock solenoid?
Prevents the LANDING GEAR lever from being moved to the UP position while on the ground.
146
What is the purpose of the override trigger on the LANDING GEAR lever?
The trigger bypasses the landing gear lever lock.
147
How does the Manual Gear Extension Access Door affect operation of the landing gear in an NG?
If the Manual Gear Extension Access Door is open, normal landing gear extension is possible if system A pressure is available. Landing gear retraction is disabled.
148
If the Manual Gear Extension Access Door is open in an NG, will the landing gear lever move to the UP position?
Yes. If the access door was open the gear lever would be able to be positioned to UP but all three landing gear would remain down and locked. In addition, all three red lights will be illuminated.
149
How does the Classic manual gear extension differ?
The Manual Gear Extension Access Door does not affect operation of the landing gear.
150
Where can you find the max landing gear extension/retraction speeds?
Placard on the forward panel near the gear handle (235/270 KIAS).
151
During landing gear retraction, what stops the wheels from spinning
Main gear wheels are stopped by the brakes. Nose wheels are stopped by snubbers
152
If a main wheel tire is damaged on an NG during takeoff roll, braking of the main gear during retraction may be affected. What protection is provided to prevent damage to components in the wheel well?
A fitting is provided in the wheel well ring opening. If a spinning tire with loose tread impacts the fitting, the affected gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position.
153
What happens when the LANDING GEAR lever is placed in the OFF position?
Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system
154
In the Classic, how can you verify landing gear position?
For a main landing gear, you must use the viewer in the main passenger cabin. The viewer is located adjacent to the third window behind the aft overwing exit and one foot left of center. You must lift the carpet to sight through the viewer. The WHEEL WELL light switch should be placed ON.
155
What visual indications are you looking for?
If the gear is down and locked the red paint stripes should be aligned on the down lock and the side struts.
156
How can you verify landing gear position in the NG?
The landing gear indicator lights on the overhead panel provide a verification of landing gear position.
157
How can the gear be manually extended?
Manual gear extension can be attempted by pulling the manual gear release handles on the floor of the flight deck.
158
What happens when the gear handles are pulled?
Pulling the handles releases the uplocks which allows the gear to free-fall to the down and locked position.
159
Is the gear warning horn still available after a manual gear extension attempt?
Yes. The landing gear warning horn is deactivated only when all gear are down and locked.
160
Is normal braking available after manual gear extension?
Yes.
161
Is nose wheel steering available after manual gear extension?
Yes, unless the gear lever was stuck in the OFF position.
162
Are there any Immediate Action Items for Wheel Well fire?
no
163
Is Wheel Well fire on the QRC?
no
164
Could the Wheel Well fire indication be coming from the nose wheel well?
No, the nose wheel well does not have a fire detection system.
165
Does the main wheel well have a fire extinguishing system?
no
166
Is the Wheel Well fire system a single or dual loop detection system?
Single loop
167
What is the maximum operating speed with the landing gear extended?
320 KIAS
168
If the Wheel Well Fire light does not extinguish with the landing gear extended, what are some things must you consider
Among other things, you should consider landing at the nearest suitable airport, range/fuel burn issues, and possible passenger evacuation.
169
Where is the EVACUATION checklist located?
Back cover of the QRH and the Yoke
170
Where can you find more detailed information regarding a planned passenger evacuation?
AOM Chapter 5
171
If time allows, what are some of the items the captain should brief the Flight Attendants on?
```
Type of emergency
• Time available
• Who will notify PAX to evacuate (Captain or
Flight Attendant)
• Exits to be used
• Possible adverse conditions
```
172
Is full completion of the Evacuation checklist mandatory?
No. Full completion or sequence is not mandatory but good judgement and an evaluation of the situation must be considered.
173
Does an inoperative RA affect approach minimums, if so how?
Approaches are not authorized below 4000 RVR or 3⁄4 SM because the associated flight director will not be available. If the Captain’s radio altimeter is inoperative, the flight director will disappear at glideslope capture on an ILS approach.
Approaches below 4000 RVR or 3⁄4 SM require both flight directors be operative and used for the approach.
174
How does this affect the decision to divert to an alternate?
The weather at an alternate will be much more of a consideration since it will need to be at or above 4000 RVR or 3/4 mile.
175
If the C/B associated with a failed radio altimeter was found to be out, should you consider a reset?
A reset should not be considered if the aircraft can safely be diverted to an alternate.
Per AOM Chapter 3 Limitations: The in-flight reset of a tripped circuit breaker should only be accomplished when directed by the QRH. Allow approximately two minutes for cooling before resetting.
176
What are the levels of automation?
• FMC Level, the FMC is controlling pitch and/or roll
• MCP Level, the MCP is controlling pitch and/or roll
• Manual Flight, the pilot is controlling pitch and roll
Levels of automation may be interchanged, meaning it is possible to be in the FMC level of automation in roll, and MCP level in pitch. You must monitor automation to stay aware of the pitch and roll modes to avoid automation confusion.
177
What is our core principle of managing the automation system?
* Verbalize—Announce MCP mode changes and FMC inputs.
* Verify—Confirm these inputs and the appropriate mode annunciation.
* Monitor—Monitor mode annunciations, expected aircraft performance, and compliance with ATC clearances.
* Intervene—If the actual aircraft performance or automation mode differs from intended/expected, resolve the difference and ensure compliance with ATC clearances
178
At the top of descent, what will the autothrottle do and what will the FMA indicate?
The autothrottle will reduce thrust to idle.
| The FMA will initially display RETARD, and then ARM.
179
perationally, what does ARM indicate?
ARM indicates that no autothrottle mode is engaged. The pilot can move the thrust levers without interference from the autothrottle. Minimum speed protection is provided
180
During the descent you notice that the airspeed is slower than the target descent speed. What can you do to maintain the planned target speed?
Because the autothrottle is in the ARM mode, you can manually increase the thrust. When the airspeed returns to the planned target speed, manually reduce the thrust to idle.
181
If you take no action and the airspeed continues to decay, how will the autothrottle behave?
During an idle path descent, if the airspeed decays to 15 knots below target, the autothrottle will engage and increase airspeed to target minus 10. When this occurs the FMA will change from ARM to
FMC SPEED.
182
During an idle path descent you elect to use speed intervention. What do you expect the aircraft to do?
• The MCP speed window will open
• The AFDS will command pitch to follow MCP
airspeed
• The autothrottle will command idle thrust
• The FMA will change from VNAV PATH to
VNAV SPEED
• Path guidance will not be followed
• The aircraft will not descend below an FMC
altitude constraint, but there is no guarantee that it cross a “at” altitude constraint.
183
Descending with 8000 in MCP Altitude window, what will occur if the Altitude intervention button is pushed?
The highest FMC altitude constraint above 8000 feet will be deleted. With each successive push of the button the next highest altitude will be deleted until all altitudes above 8000 have been deleted. Altitudes at or below the MCP altitude will not be affected by pushing the altitude intervention button.
184
What is our policy regarding flight directors?
Both flight directors will remain in view and be used at all times when correct path guidance is available.
185
What is our policy regarding CWS pitch or roll?
CWS pitch or roll modes should only be used momentarily. The intent is for both flight directors to remain in view and to be used at all times when correct path guidance is available. Momentary use of CWS is allowed
186
You are departing SEA runway 16C, and just as you rotate an engine fails. What guidance will the flight director give you for pitch? What guidance will the flight director give you for roll?
• If an engine fails in TOGA, the flight director pitch command will be;
• V2, if airspeed is below V2
• Existing speed, if airspeed is between V2 and V2 +
20
• V2+20,ifairspeedisaboveV2+20
If an engine fails in TOGA, the flight director roll command will be;
• If LNAV was selected prior to TOGA, the flight director will command the FMC track
• If LNAV was not selected prior to TOGA, the flight director will command wings level. No heading or ground track guidance will occur until another roll mode is selected (above 400 feet AGL).
187
When would you push the TOGA button a second time?
If full go-around thrust is desired. If the missed approach has a non-standard missed approach climb gradient, full go-around thrust must be used.
188
You are originating a NextGen aircraft with no external power available. During your preflight duties, you start the APU. You place the APU switch to START momentarily, and then release it to the ON position. As you do this, the amber BAT DISCHARGE light illuminates. Is this considered normal?
The amber BAT DISCHARGE light may illuminate during an APU start with no AC power on the aircraft. This is considered normal. With AC power available, the APU will start off the Transfer Bus #1.
189
You are in MDW on a hot day in your heavy NG aircraft. A bleeds-off takeoff is required. After engine start, you are distracted by passenger issues and forget to close the engine generator switches, leaving both transfer busses powered by the APU generator. All checklists are completed without noticing the error. At 10,000 feet, you turn the APU off. What happens to your electrical system?
The engine generators are automatically connected to their related transfer busses by the automatic generator online feature. This action occurs only once in flight, and only in the situation described above (APU fails or is turned off once airborne). If the error is caught before the APU is turned off, the engine generators may still be selected manually.
190
You are enroute to OAK from SEA in the Classic. As you begin your descent for arrival into OAK, you get a master caution light and ELEC system annunciator. You notice it is the No. 1 HIGH OIL TEMP light. Will the generator drive disconnect automatically?
No. This automatic disconnect feature, due to high oil temperature, is only available in the NextGen aircraft.
191
What is the minimum battery voltage to start the APU?
No minimum voltage is required for an APU start.
192
On an originating flight, which Crew Member is responsible for testing the Overheat/Fire Warning System?
Testing the Fire/Overheat Warning System is accomplished by both the Captain and the First Officer.
193
Shortly after arriving at your aircraft the First Officer informs you that the wheel well fire light will not test. What may be the problem?
Wheel well fire detection functions using only AC electrical power. If the FIRE/OVHT is performed using only battery power, the wheel well fire light will not illuminate. If AC power is online, the wheel well fire detection system is operative.
194
What would your actions be to handle a Wheel Well Fire in flight?
Comply with the QRH MATM items on the cover of the QRH and the WHEEL WELL FIRE check list. Extend the gear and land at the nearest suitable airport.
195
When will the wheel well fire light extinguish?
When the temperature of the detector has decreased below the onset temperature
196
You are doing a last minute swap into a cold Classic aircraft. After powering up the aircraft how long must you wait before testing the cargo fire detection system and what must you be cautious about?
The system requires up to 2.5 minutes to complete the power-up self-tests so it is not reliable until then. You must use extreme care when accomplishing this test. If you mistakenly push the MX TEST button or the MX SETUP switch you could cause damage to the system and possibly render the system inoperative.
197
What are some differences between the Classic and the non –ETOPS NextGen cargo fire suppression systems?
The control panels are in different places, with the Classic positioned on the Captain's overhead panel and the NextGen on the center console. The primary system differences are that the Classic provides temperature and smoke detection and has two fire bottles. When selected, the bottle 1 will fully discharge with the BTL 1 DISCH light blinking until the bottle is empty, then illuminate steady. After 15 minutes bottle 2 will slowly discharge over 45 minutes with the BTL 2 DISCH light blinking until it is fully discharged, and then remains steady.
The NextGen provides only smoke detection and only has one bottle. When the discharge button is pushed, the bottle will fully discharge and the DISCH light will illuminate (may take up to 30 seconds). Both systems provide 60 minutes of fire suppression when functioning properly.
198
How do you discharge the extinguisher?
Rotate the FIRE handle to the stop and hold for one second.
199
During engine shutdown you see a Ramp Agent point to your #2 engine with one wand, and with the other wand make a fanning motion behind his back. What does this signal mean? How would you handle the situation?
The signal is for an engine fire, and with no flight deck indication it is likely a tailpipe fire. During shutdown, call for the Engine Tailpipe Fire checklist. If the tailpipe fire occurs during engine start, perform the Aborted Engine Starts Checklist then refer to the Engine Tailpipe Fire checklist. Engine tailpipe fires typically are associated with engine shutdown, caused by a fuel spray nozzle which discharges fuel onto the hot engine tailpipe section, although they can occur during other phases of ground operations.
200
Although the Classic and NG aircraft both have 2 fuel boost pumps in each tank, what is the difference in operation?
The Classic has 6 identical pumps. The center tank check valves open at a lower pressure than do the main tank check valves. This ensures that center tank fuel is used before main tank fuel, even though all fuel pumps are operating at the same pressure. In NG aircraft, the center tank pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps. This ensures that center tank fuel is used before main tank fuel, even though all fuel pumps are operating.
201
As you are completing your originating cockpit flow, you notice the crossfeed valve does not open. As you investigate the cause you find the crossfeed valve circuit breaker has tripped. Can you reset it?
Contact Maintenance (through Dispatch, if necessary). If Maintenance is in agreement, the crossfeed valve can be reset. Resetting the circuit breaker requires a logbook entry including the Maintenance Controller’s name.
202
During your cockpit set up you position the center tank fuel pumps on and the low pressure light for the left center pump remains illuminated. You check circuit breakers, and find the Center Left circuit breaker tripped. Can you try resetting the circuit breaker? Can we dispatch?
A pilot may not reset a fuel pump circuit breaker even on the ground. Contact Maintenance, record the tripped circuit breaker in the logbook.
203
While at cruise altitude, the aircraft fuel temperature drops to -38C. Would you receive any type of warning that the fuel tank temperature has dropped below the minimum limit of -37C? What would you do in this situation?
No, there is not a warning for low fuel temperature. It is necessary to be cognizant of fuel tank temperature, especially while at high cruise altitudes for extended time. If the fuel temperature drops below -37C, refer to the QRH Fuel Low Temp checklist. The QRH directs the pilot to increase airspeed, descend or deviate to a warmer airmass to achieve a TAT equal to or higher than the fuel temp limit. TAT will increase .5 to .7C for each .01 of Mach airspeed increase. In extreme conditions it may be necessary descend to as low as FL250.
204
After holding, you are on a vector for the approach and should land with about 4100 pounds of fuel. After you program the approach into the FMC, it shows landing with 3800 pounds. Should you declare Minimum Fuel to ATC?
You should verify that the routing in the FMC is truly the distance you will fly. There are situations where quickly programming an approach will add 30 or more miles to your routing that you will not actually fly. If the Captain (or Dispatcher) determines that landing fuel will be less than 4000 pounds, the Captain will declare Minimum Fuel.
205
During cruise flight in an NG, you notice that you have a 300 pounds fuel imbalance. You open the crossfeed valve verifying operation, and then turn off the pumps on the low side, without informing your First Officer. Thirty minutes later you notice that one of the fuel gauges has turned amber and IMBAL is displayed. What does this mean and will it go away?
When a fuel imbalance reaches 1000 pounds, the low side gauge will indicate amber and IMBAL will display. Inform your First Officer, then turn all main pumps on, ensure the crossfeed valve remains open, and then turn off the low side pumps. When the imbalance is restored to within 200 pounds the amber indication will cease.
206
You have just landed your -700 in San Diego in the summer after a long flight and the fuel temperature reads 0 degrees C. What must you think about and accomplish?
When the fuel tank temperature is less than 5 degrees C, check for cold-soaked fuel frost (CSFF) on both surfaces of the wing. The B737 is susceptible on both upper and lower wing surfaces, most notably between the fuselage and the engine pylon. Check the wings for CSFF ten to fifteen minutes after gate arrival. Cold soaked fuel frost up to 1/8 inch on the lower wing is permissible, but no CSFF on the upper wing surface is allowed. Three methods are approved for CSFF removal: Radiant heating, adding fuel to raise the fuel tank temperature to 5 degree C or Type I deicing.
207
What are the two methods of defueling?
Defueling may be accomplished by boost pump pressure or suction. Both methods may be used together for more rapid defueling
208
How do you transfer fuel from the center tank to the right main tank?
You use the manual defuel valve, the refuel station, and the fuel control panel to transfer fuel between tanks per AOM Chapter 16.
209
You are operating an aircraft with an inoperative #1 fuel quantity indicator. It is required to dripstick the tank. What must the Captain do?
The Captain must monitor any fueling operation requiring the use of dripsticks to ensure the accuracy of the readings.
210
Where do you find the dripstick tables?
They are available on the OPC, found in the MEL section.
211
What are the OPC assumptions in calculating Approximate Stop Margin?
Touchdown occurs no later than 1500 feet from the usable end of the runway. Selecting reverse thrust within 2 seconds after touchdown and attaining the planned reverse thrust level within 8 seconds after touchdown. Speedbrake deployment, thrust at idle, runway condition, and proper winds programmed. The OPC then includes a 15 percent additional safety factor on the total calculated landing distance. The Min(2), Med(3), and Max(M) values are calculated using the deceleration rates for auto brake settings
2, 3, and Max, respectively.
212
What changes are made if you select the AIII button?
The OPC subtracts 1150 feet from the stopping margins to account for the possibility of a long landing due to AIII flare guidance.
213
On descent you find the weather goes below 4000 feet RVR. What changes to the OPC should be selected and why?
Selecting the RVR
