2016 remembered Flashcards

1
Q

Mechanism of action of phenytoin

A

Na channel blocker

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2
Q

What is best measure of lung function in kid with respiratory muscular disease? (eg
myasthenia gravis)

A

FVC

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3
Q

Best measure of lung function in kid with obstructive disease?

A

FEV1

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4
Q

Which drug to use for listeria?

A

Ampicillin

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5
Q
Child has EEG and features consistent with absence epilepsy. First line tx?
Ethosuximide
Carbamazepine
Sodium valproate
Lamotrigine
Keppra
A

Ethosuximide

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6
Q
What cells does MHC II attach to?
Macrophages
Natural Killer cells
T cells
Neutrophils
A

T cells

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7
Q

What gene is responsible for APACED?

A

AIRE gene

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8
Q

What of the following is resistance to cephalosporins?

A

Enterococcus faecalis

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9
Q

?6yo Indigenous girl who has been unwell 3 times in last 6 months. Now has had 3 days of
coryzal symptoms with the X-Ray shown. On examination has reduced air entry right side.XRay (Borderline large heart with right pleural effusion)

Myocarditis
Pericarditis
Dilated cardiomyopathy

A

?Myocarditis

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10
Q

What do you give for anti freeze swallowed by a child?

A

Sodium bicarb to correct systemic acidosis

fomepizole to inhibit enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase

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11
Q

Child with sickle cell anaemia, lethargy, weakness, no fevers. Amoxicillin week before. No splenomegaly, slightly enlarged liver.

Aplastic anaemia
Parvovirus
Splenic sequestration
Hyperhaemolysis

A

Aplastic crisis is defined as an acute illness associated with haemoglobin below baseline for that patient associated with a substantially decreased reticulocyte count (usually <1%). Usually associated with acute infection including parvovirus.
May be associated with enlarged spleen as

Splenic sequestion is defined as a haemoglobin drop of at least 20gm/l below baseline level for that patient with an acutely enlarged spleen. Mild to moderate thrombocytopenia is often present. Reticulocyte count is equal to or greater than patient’s usual baseline. Consider co-existent aplastic anaemia if reticulocyte count is low.

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12
Q
Girl with Turner’s syndrome presents with bruising from early age.
APTT high
PT normal
Fibrinogen normal
Hb low
Platelets normal

Haemophilia A
Von Willebrand’s Disease

A

Haemophilia A (deficiency of Factor 8)

Hemophilia is a disease almost exclusively of males because the defective gene is found on the X chromosome. The deficiency or absence of either of 2 clotting elements—factor VIII or factor IX—leads to the clinical condition described as hemophilia A or hemophilia B,

Females are generally asymptomatic carriers; this condition is so rare in females that another cause of unexplained or problematic bleeding should be considered before this condition. For example, a traumatic effusion or pigmented villonodular hyperplasia is more likely than hemophilia as an etiology for a bleeding disorder in a female

e.g. a girl not only inherited 1 diseased X chromosome with mild factor IX hemophilia from her father, but she also has Turner (XO) syndrome. The child’s only X chromosome had the hemophilia gene.

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13
Q

You suspect a child has hereditary angioedema. What is the best screening test?

C4 level
CH50 haemolytic complement test

A

C4 level

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14
Q

Child with fevers, pneumonia. Found to have low sodium 124, normal potassium, normal
Cr?

Cause
SIADH
Diabetes Insipidus

A

SIADH

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15
Q

Child with polyuria, polydipsia. Preferred water over formula milk from 12mo on.
Bloods Na
Water deprivation test:
Serum osmolality normal at 1 hour, 2 hours
Urine osmolality slightly increased at 1 and 2 hours after water deprivation then more
increase with ddAVP

A

How much is the increase. If >100%, then DI

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16
Q

Mum and dads bloods are shown. It appears mum has beta thal and dad has sickle cell. No adult Hb is shown on the cord blood. Is this;

Normal variation
Beta trait
Sickle cell trait
beta/sickle
beta thal
A

beta/sickle

Sickle cell beta thalassemia is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Sickle cell beta thalassemia occurs when one abnormal gene for the production of hemoglobin S is inherited from one parent and one abnormal gene for the production of beta thalassemia is inherited from the other parent.

A baby testing positive for sickle cell beta thalassemia will have higher than normal fetal hemoglobin Hgb F with Hgb S and little to no presence of adult hemoglobin (Hgb A).

In a person affected with sickle cell beta thalassemia, some of the red blood cells sickle in shape, subsequently hemolyzing resulting in anemia, which is a hallmark of sickling diseases. And because of the reduced production of beta-globin chains prevents the development of normal red blood cells, the production of both quantity and quality of red blood cells is affected. As a result, the sickled cells do not live as long as normal red blood cells, tend to get stuck in blood vessels and block flow of blood to certain parts of the body. These consequences can lead to poor growth, impaired physical activity, bone deformities, fragile bones and enlargement of the liver and spleen.

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17
Q

Homeless 14yo girl has baby. Refuses blood test and has had no antenatal care.
What immunisation regime do you give baby?

Hep B vaccine
Hep B vaccine + Hep B immunoglobulin
All immunoglobulin

A

Hep B vaccine + Hep B immunoglobulin

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18
Q

Urine dipstick gets mistaken for blood with which agent?

Options – ascorbic acid, myoglobin, urates, rifampicin

A

myoglobin

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19
Q

7 yo girl with pubic hair and body odour. No breast development. Bone age 7years
21 OHP – 2.7 (upper normal 2.7)
Androgen – N
DHEAS – N

Cause?
Premature adrenarche
Central precocious puberty
CAH

A

Premature adrenarche

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20
Q

Question about mums of kids with brain tumours (50) and mums of kids without brain tumours (50). Total in study is 100.
Case control study of who took folate beforehand (20 of mums with kids with brain tumours) and 10 of mums in control who didn’t have brain tumour took folate
What is odds ratio?

1/5
2/5
3/7

A

~ 1/5

Odds Ratio = AD/BC = 200/1200

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21
Q

Kid with Sa02 85%RA and wheeze. Given tx for asthma but no improvement. CXR AP and
lateral – decrease volume in UL

Cause:
Upper lobe collapse
Mediastinal mass
Bronchogenic cyst

A

Upper lobe collapse

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22
Q

Child comes in with fatigue, weakness, limp and left hip pain. ?Visual problems. X Ray pelvis
and hips shows lytic lesion in left hip.

Dx?
Neuroblastoma
Osteosarcoma
Ewings
Osteochondral cyst
A

Ewing’s

Osteosarcoma

  • an aggressive malignant neoplasm that arises from primitive transformed cells of mesenchymal origin (and thus a sarcoma) and that exhibits osteoblastic differentiation and produces malignant osteoid.
  • any patients first complain of pain that may be worse at night, may be intermittent and of varying intensity and may have been occurring for some time.
  • Teenagers who are active in sports often complain of pain in the lower femur, or immediately below the knee. If the tumor is large, it can present as overt localised swelling.
  • Sometimes a sudden fracture is the first symptom
  • A characteristic often seen in an X-ray is Codman’s triangle, which is basically a subperiosteal lesion formed when the periosteum is raised due to the tumor. Films are suggestive, but bone biopsy is the only definitive method to determine whether a tumor is malignant or benign.

Ewings

  • a type of cancer that forms in bone or soft tissue.
  • Symptoms may include swelling and pain at the site of the tumor, fever, and a bone fracture.
  • The most common areas where it begins are the legs, pelvis, and chest wall.
  • In about 25% of cases, the cancer has already spread to other parts of the body at the time of diagnosis.[3]
  • Complications may include a pleural effusion or paraplegia.
  • more common in males (1.6 male:1 female) and usually presents in childhood or early adulthood, with a peak between 10 and 20 years of age. It can occur anywhere in the body, but most commonly in the pelvis and proximal long tubular bones, especially around the growth plates. The diaphyses of the femur are the most common sites, followed by the tibia and the humerus.
  • Thirty percent are overtly metastatic at presentation
  • most common osseous presentation is a permeative lytic lesion with periosteal reaction - “onion-skin” type periosteal reaction.
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23
Q

Child knocked in eye during some trauma at school. Normal neurology except left RAPD.

Damage to which structure caused this?
Retinal detachment
Orbital blow out fracture
Hyphema
Subconjunctival haemorrhage
A

Retinal detachment or Orbital blow out fracture

Causes:

  • Optic nerve disorders: Unilateral optic neuropathies are common causes of RAPD.
  • Demyelination Optic neuritis: Even very mild optic neuritis with a minimal loss of vision can lead to a very strong RAPD.
  • Ischemic optic neuropathies: These include arteritic (Giant Cell Arteritis) and non-arteritic causes. Usually there will be a loss of vision or a horizontal cut in the visual field.
  • Glaucoma: While glaucoma normally is a bilateral disease, if one optic nerve has particularly severe damage, an RAPD can be seen.
  • Traumatic optic neuropathy: This includes direct ocular trauma, orbital trauma, and even more remote head -injuries which can damage the optic nerve as it passes through the optic canal into the cranial vault.
  • Optic nerve tumor: This is a rare cause and includes primary tumors of the optic nerve (glioma, meningioma) or tumors compressing the optic nerve (sphenoid wing meningioma, pituitary lesions, etc.).
  • Compressive optic neuropathy with or without orbital disease: This could include compressive damage to the optic nerve from thyroid related orbitopathy (compression from enlarged extraocular muscles in the orbit), orbital tumors, or vascular malformations.
  • Radiation optic nerve damage
  • Hereditary optic neuropathies, such as Leber’s optic neuropathy (usually eventually bilateral) and other inheritable optic neuropathies.
  • Other optic nerve infections or inflammations: Cryptococcus can cause a severe optic nerve infection in the immunocompromised. Sarcoidosis can cause inflammation of the optic nerve. Lyme disease can affect the optic nerve.
  • Optic atrophy status: post papilledema - This is usually bilateral.
  • Post Surgical damage to the optic nerve: This could include damage following retrobulbar anesthesia; damage following orbital hemorrhage related to eye, orbital, sinus, or plastic surgery; damage following neurosurgical procedures such as pituitary tumor resection; and damage related to migration of an orbital plate after surgery to correct a blow-out fracture.

Retinal conditions - Usually, retinal disease has to be quite severe for an RAPD to be clinically evident.

  • Ischemic retinal disease: Causes include ischemic central retinal vein occlusion, central retinal artery occlusion, severe ischemic branch retinal or arterial occlusions, severe ischemic diabetic or sickle-cell retinopathy.
  • Ischemic ocular disease (Ocular ischemic syndrome): This usually arises from obstruction of the ophthalmic or carotid artery on one side.
  • Retinal detachment: A RAPD can often be seen if the macula is detached, or if at least two quadrants of retina are detached.
  • Severe macular degeneration: If unilateral and severe, a RAPD can be seen. Usually the visual acuity would be less than 20/400.
  • Intraocular tumor: Retinal and choroidal tumors including melanoma, retinoblastoma, and metastatic lesion could lead to a RAPD if severe.
  • Retinal infection: Cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, and other causes of retinitis can lead to a RAPD if there is extensive disease.
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24
Q

Child in respiratory distress at birth. Massive cardiomegaly on CXR
Cause?

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

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25
Q

Baby, respiratory distress at birth. Cyanotic.
CXR – nil cardiomegaly

Cause?
TGA
TAPVR

A

TGA

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26
Q

Some spiel about how kids away from their natural homes don’t do well. What is the most common health complication?

Dental carries
Emotional and behavioural problems
Developmental problems

A

Emotional and behavioural problems

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27
Q

Difficult 5yo child causing trouble at home and school. Yelling and out of control. Best
therapy?

CBT
Multisystem therapy
Play therapy
Parental therapy

A

?Parental therapy

The cornerstones of treatment for ODD usually include:

  • Parent training.
  • Parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT).
  • Individual and family therapy.
  • Cognitive problem-solving training.
  • Social skills training.

As part of parent training, you may learn how to manage your child’s behavior by:

Giving clear instructions and following through with appropriate consequences when needed
Recognizing and praising your child’s good behaviors and positive characteristics to promote desired behaviors

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28
Q

16yo girl with lower abdominal pain, not pregnant or menstruating, non surgical abdomen,
tender from PV exam. Swab grows gram neg diplococci. Best tx?

IM ceftriaxone and azithromycin
IM ceftriaxone
Metronidazole
Azithromycin only

A

IM ceftriaxone and azithromycin

29
Q

Treatment for child with clostridium difficile not responding to oral metronidazole

IV metronidazole
Ciprofloxacin
Clindamycin
Vanc

A

Vanc

30
Q

. Child with early morning seizures, drooling, EEG spike and wave ?temporal lobe.
Developmentally normal. Difficult concentration.
Dx?

Benign rolandic epilepsy (centro temporal spikes)
Landau-Kleffner
Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy

A

Benign rolandic epilepsy (centro temporal spikes)

Landau-Kleffner - loss of language comprehension and verbal expression

31
Q

NMDA receptor encephalitis associated with which cancer?

Hepatoblastoma
Ovarian tumour
Optic glioma

A

Ovarian tumour

Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis, which results from antibodies directed against NMDA receptors, is a variety of paraneoplastic limbic encephalitis. It typically presents, like other forms of limbic encephalitis, with several days of progressively severe amnesia and behavioral disturbances. Then psychosis, seizures, involuntary movements, and autonomic instability often occur and eclipse the prodrome. This disorder typically occurs in young adult women.

The classic example of anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis consists of amnesia with mood change and depersonalization, involuntary movements, and seizures in a young woman eventually found to be harboring an ovarian teratoma. Overall, almost 50% of young adult women with this disorder harbor an ovarian teratoma, which presumably has triggered an antibody response to its neural tissue.

32
Q

Child post BMT matched sibling, mild oedema, systolic murmur 2/6, fevers despite amphotericin, acyclovir and meropenum

GVHD
veno occlusive disease
aspergillus fermigaturs

A

GVHD?
Acute GVHD most often occurs within the first 100 days of transplant. It can happen quickly. It can range from a mild problem to a very serious and life threatening problem.
- skin can cause rashes. In severe cases it can affect the entire body.
- liver can cause mild to severe changes in the liver; if severe, liver failure
- GIT: nausea, diarrhea, and belly pain.

Chronic GVHD most often occurs within the first two years after transplant. It is a slower process. It can range from mild to life-threatening. Can affect any tissue in the body.

Symptoms of GVHD:
o Skin rash or color changes on any part of the skin
o Itching
o Not feeling hungry
o Weight loss
o Dry, thick scaly skin
o Watery, frequent, bloody or large volume stools
o Belly pain or cramping
o Long lasting nausea or vomiting
o Dry mouth, thick plaques in the mouth
o Dry eyes, crusting of the eyes in the morning
o Burning or sandy feeling in the eyes
o Burning or redness of the palms and soles
o Tea colored urine
o Low grade fevers: 99°- 100°F without chills

veno occlusive disease

  • a condition in which some of the small veins in the liver are obstructed. It is a complication of high-dose chemotherapy given before a bone marrow transplant (BMT) and is marked by weight gain due to fluid retention (ascites), increased liver size, and raised levels of bilirubin in the blood.
  • toxic: cyclophosphamide

aspergillus fumigatus

  • Fungal infections have become an increasing cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who are undergoing allogeneic bone marrow transplantation (BMT). This may reflect newer preparative regimens to avoid rejection, intensification of therapies to prevent graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), mismatched or unrelated transplantations, or environmental exposures [3]. - Established risk factors for invasive fungal infections among BMT recipients include duration of neutropenia before engraftment, use of glucocorticosteroids, type of transplant, underlying disease, age of transplant recipient, and presence and treatment of GVHD
  • The median time to onset of IMI after transplantation was 102 days (range, 18–470 days). More than 85% of infections were diagnosed after post-BMT day 60
  • Infection was multifocal in 9 (60%) of 15 patients. CNS involvement was present in 11 (73%) of 15 patients and was confirmed by craniotomy in 4 patients and by autopsy in 2 patients. In 5 patients, brain abscess was presumed on the basis of CT or MRI findings consistent with a brain abscess, and mold infection documented from other sites (skin, sinus, or pulmonary nodules). The respiratory tract was involved in 10 (67%) of 15 patients and presented most often as nodular infiltrates. Skin involvement occurred in 4 (27%) of 15 patients, and there was 1 case each of sinus infection and suppurative thyroiditis with thyrotoxicosis.
33
Q

Baby 28/40 develops fever, respiratory distress day 10

enterococcus, e coli, group b strep, klebsiella

A

late onset

enterococcus, then klebsiella and e. coli

coagulase neg staph most common (staph epidermidis)

34
Q

Baby 28 or 30/40 develops apneoa

enterococcus, e coli, group b strep, klebsiella

A

early onset

GBS (also e. coli)

35
Q

Which drug precipitates when added with calcium?

Erythromycin
Ceftriaxone
Cefotaxime
Gentamicin

A

Ceftriaxone

36
Q

Mechanism of action of erythromycin as pro-kinetic drug in GI motility

Serotonin agonist
Dopamine agonist
Motilin agonist

A

Motilin receptor agonist

Erythromycin A and other 14-membered ring macrolide antibiotics have a gastrointestinal motility stimulating effect; it has been known for over 20 years that they act as a motilin receptor agonist in the gut and gallbladder

Macrolide, bacteriostatic activity or inhibits growth of bacteria, especially at higher concentrations. By binding to the 50s subunit of the bacterial rRNA complex, protein synthesis and subsequent structure and function processes critical for life or replication are inhibited.

37
Q

Study performed and need to work out positive likelihood ratio

A

positive likelihood ratio

Work out sens then spec and +ve LR = sens/1- spec

38
Q

Picture of 4yo girl with peeling, erythematous painful skin on her face and fevers
Dx? Kawasaki’s
Staph scalded skin

A

Need more info.

Staph scalded skin

  • generally affects children < 5 years of age, and can be a severe and potentially life threatening illness, particularly in neonates
  • caused by dissemination of Staphylococcus aureus exfoliative toxins which causes lysis within the superficial layers of the skin, resulting in large thin-walled bullae which quickly break down, leaving raw denuded areas
  • Neonates – periumbilical infection, conjunctivitis, bullous impetigo and ‘septic spots’ are common sites
  • Infants – infected eczema, paronychia, boils, impetigo and skin trauma are common causes.

Kawasaki

  • Presence of prolonged unexplained fever ≥ 5 days (fever > 38.5°C) with at least 4 of the following criteria:
    1. Bilateral non-exudative conjunctivitis
    2. Polymorphous rash
    3. Cervical lymphadenopathy (at least 1 lymph node >1.5cm in diameter)
    4. Mucositis - cracked red lips, injected pharynx or strawberry tongue
    5. Extremity changes - erythema of palms/soles, oedema of hands/feet (acute phase), and periungual desquamation (convalescent phase)
39
Q

Child with painful legs, swollen ankles, knees, most joints, erythematous raised bumpy rash over torso. Fevers to 40 degrees every day (cyclical) Picture of rash on chest and peeling on palms of hands

Dx? 
Kawasaki
SLE
Systemic JIA
Dermatomyositis
A

Systemic JIA

under 16 years of age and:

  • arthritis in one or more joints with or preceded by fever of at least 2 weeks’ duration that is documented to be daily (“quotidian”) for at least 3 days
  • accompanied by 1+:
    (1) evanescent (nonfixed) erythematous rash,
    (2) generalized lymph node enlargement,
    (3) hepatomegaly and/or splenomegaly,
    (4) serositis
40
Q

Determine risk of CF for child of uncle of another affected child with CF?

1: 400
1: 200

A

??sibling of carrier = 2/3 risk of carrier
partner - carrier rate in Aus 1/25
child has 1/4 risk of getting both recessive genes

2/3 x 1/25 x 1/4 = 2/300 = 1/150

41
Q

What is the most common disease detected on newborn screening?
Congenital hypothyroidism
CF
PKU

A

CF

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

  • Incidence is 1 in 13 000 Queensland babies.
  • PKU causes autism, intellectual disability and seizures. It is managed with a low phenylalanine diet through childhood.

Congenital hypothyroidism

  • Incidence is 1 in 3 000 Queensland babies.
  • If treatment is begun soon after birth, later intelligence is normal.
  • Clinical signs are hard to detect until brain damage has already occurred.

Cystic fibrosis

  • Incidence is 1 in 2 800 Queensland babies.
  • Impaired digestive and respiratory function. Early detection allows genetic counselling and early treatment, delays in symptoms and prolongs life.

Galactosaemia

  • Incidence is 1 in 44 000 Queensland babies.
  • In babies with the disorder, build up of galactose causes liver failure, intellectual disability, seizures, serious infections, cataracts, and if untreated, death.
  • Treatment is a milk-free diet.

CAH is an inherited condition affecting about 1 in 15,000 babies.

42
Q

Baby with jaundice, cataracts

  • galactossaemia
  • Tyrosinemia
A

galactossaemia
- hepatomegaly (an enlarged liver), cirrhosis, kidney failure, cataracts, vomiting, seizure, low blood sugar (hypoglycemia), lethargy, brain damage, and ovarian failure.

Infants affected by galactosemia typically present with symptoms of lethargy, vomiting, diarrhea, failure to thrive, and jaundice.

43
Q

Baby with FTT from 2/52 onwards, diarrhoea. Changed from breast milk to low allogenic formula (no cows milk). Diarrhoea persists.

Cause?
Lactose intolerance
Cows milk allergy
Glucose-galactose deficiency
Fructose intolerance
A

Glucose-galactose deficiency

  • a rare condition in which the cells lining the intestine cannot take in the sugars glucose and galactose, which prevents proper digestion of these molecules and larger molecules made from them.
  • generally becomes apparent in the first few weeks of a baby’s life. Affected infants experience severe diarrhea resulting in life-threatening dehydration, increased acidity of the blood and tissues (acidosis), and weight loss when fed breast milk or regular infant formulas. However, they are able to digest fructose-based formulas that do not contain glucose or galactose.
44
Q

Half life of gentamicin based on 12 hour dose of 180mg, peak at 6mmol/k and trough 1mmol/k

2 hours
3 hours
4 hours
6 hours
12 hours
A

??

45
Q

Mechanism of resistance to flucloxacillin by methicillin resistant Staph aureus?

A

Resistance is usually conferred by the acquisition of a nonnative gene encoding a penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a), with significantly lower affinity for β-lactams. This resistance allows cell-wall biosynthesis, the target of β-lactams, to continue even in the presence of typically inhibitory concentrations of antibiotic.

*PBP2a is encoded by the mecA gene, which is carried on a distinct mobile genetic element (SCCmec), the expression of which is controlled through a proteolytic signal transduction pathway comprising a sensor protein (MecR1) and a repressor (MecI).

46
Q

Child with spastic diplegia, walks with a frame, can go up stairs holding rail, uses wheelchair for long distance.
What GMFCS score is it?

A

GMFCS III

GMFCS Level I
• Can walk indoors and outdoors and climb stairs without using hands for support
• Can perform usual activities such as running and jumping
• Has decreased speed, balance and coordination

GMFCS Level II
• Can climb stairs with a railing
• Has difficulty with uneven surfaces, inclines or in crowds
• Has only minimal ability to run or jump

GMFCS Level III
• Walks with assistive mobility devices indoors and outdoors on level surfaces
• May be able to climb stairs using a railing
• May propel a manual wheelchair and need assistance for long distances or uneven surfaces

GMFCS Level IV
• Walking ability severely limited even with assistive devices
• Uses wheelchairs most of the time and may propel own power wheelchair
• Standing transfers, with or without assistance

GMFCS Level V
• Has physical impairments that restrict voluntary control of movement
• Ability to maintain head and neck position against gravity restricted
• Impaired in all areas of motor function
• Cannot sit or stand independently, even with adaptive equipment
• Cannot independently walk but may be able to use powered mobility

47
Q

Child cuts bottom of foot on sea shell. Develops erythema, swelling ?OM or cellulitis. Not improving with oral Abs ?cephalexin or fluclox.

Next IV option?
IV timentin
IV metronidazole
IV flucloxacillin

A

IV flucloxacillin

48
Q

Most common cause of infection in dental caries.

A

The most common bacteria associated with dental cavities are the mutans streptococci, most prominently Streptococcus mutans and Streptococcus sobrinus, and lactobacilli.

49
Q

Child from Africa, no hx fevers, weight loss, cough. Positive Mantoux test. CXR shown – no obvious lesions. Tx?

Nil
Ethambutol, rifampicin, isoniazid
Isoniazid only

A

Isoniazid only

50
Q

Biggest difference between a child with conduct disorder and oppositional defiance disorder?
Emotional lability
Bullying and threatening others
Spiteful and vindictive

A

Isoniazid only

51
Q

Best treatment for autistic child with behavioural problems?

Clonidine
Risperidone
Haloperidol
methylphenidate

A

Clonidine - ADHD
**Risperidone - irritibility
Haloperidol
methylphenidate - ADHD

52
Q

Best therapy for teenager with bulimia nervosa?
CBT
Child centred parental therapy

A

CBT

53
Q
Treatment of bipolar in teenagers?
Olanzapine
Quetiapine
Lithium
Sodium valproate
Fluoxetine
A
second gen antipsychotics first iinr for mania:
Olanzapine - mania
**?Quetiapine - mixed
ariprazole
risperidone

mood stabiliser:
Lithium - resistant disease, teratogenic
Sodium valproate - teratogenic
Lamotrigine - maintenance thrapy

antidepressants:
Fluoxetine
escitalopram
sertraline

54
Q

What is the main determinant of blood pressure at rest?

Cardiac output
Venous return
Afterload
Systemic vascular resistance
HR
A

?Systemic vascular resistance
?HR

BP = (HR x SV) x TPR
CO = HR x SV

The cardioaccelerator center stimulates cardiac function by regulating heart rate and stroke volume via sympathetic stimulation from the cardiac accelerator nerve. The cardioinhibitor center slows cardiac function by decreasing heart rate and stroke volume via parasympathetic stimulation from the vagus nerve. The vasomotor center controls vessel tone or contraction of the smooth muscle in the tunica media. Changes in diameter affect peripheral resistance, pressure, and flow, which in turn affect cardiac output.

55
Q

What is the main reason why a baby with ?VSD goes into heart failure?

Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance
Decreased systemic vascular resistance
Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
Decreased systemic vascular resistance
Decreased systemic vascular pressure
?Decreased/increased pulmonary pressure
A

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance

56
Q

Most common cause of community acquired pneumonia in kids in Australia

Streptococcus pneumonia
Mycoplasma
Staph aureus

A

The most common cause of bacterial pneumonia in the < 5 year olds is Streptococcus

The most common cause of bacterial pneumonia in the > 5 year olds is Mycoplasma

57
Q

Most likely symptom of serotonin syndrome?
Miosis
Hyperreflexia
Hypotension

A

SS: Hyperreflexia; myadriasis, HTN

HARMFUL:
Hyperthermia
Anticognitive: delirium, confusion, agitation
Reflexes++
Myoclonus (jerking/twitching)/myadriasis
Fast HR
Unconsciousness
Loss of GI control - nausea, diarrhoea
FEVER:
Fever
Encephalopathy
Vitals unstable: tachycardia, diaphoresis, HTN
Elevated enzymes (CK)
Rigidity of muscles
58
Q

Child with swallowed foreign body. Drooling and coughing.
CXR – coin at distal end of oesophagus
Next step?

Urgent endoscopy for removal
Re-XRay next day to ensure it passes through
Gastric lavage or similar option

A

Drooling and coughing. –> ?urgent endoscopy

59
Q

Prader Willi causes:

  • feeding in infancy
  • height/stature-
  • puberty
A
  • poor tone –> poor suck –> feeding
  • height - short stature (GH deficiency)
  • delayed puberty - hypogonadism –> undescended testes in males and benign premature adrenarche in females.
60
Q

Definition of perinatal mortality rate.

A

The World Health Organization defines perinatal mortality as the “number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1,000 total births, the perinatal period commences at 28 completed weeks gestation, and ends seven completed days after birth”

61
Q

What is Pearson correlation?

What does a chi square test look at?

A

A Pearson correlation is a number between -1 and 1 that indicates the extent to which two variables are linearly related.

The chi-square independence test is a procedure for testing if two categorical variables are related in some population.

62
Q
Which disease is most infectious amongst non immunised in highly immunised community?
Measles
Mumps
Polio
Influenza
A

Measles

63
Q

Picture of baby born with weeping lesion left side of chest ?vesicular ?pustular What
infection could mum have to cause this?
HSV
Varicella zoster infection

A

HSV

64
Q
Audiometry picture
Good bone conduction both ears
Poor air conduction
Cause?
Bilateral sensorineural hearing loss
Unilateral etc
A

Bilateral sensorineural hearing loss

65
Q

When do you find high urinary methylmalonic acid?

Vit B 6 deficiency
Vit B 12 deficiency

A

Vit B 12 deficiency

66
Q

Baby with petechial, jaundice, hepatomegaly, microcephaly -

Toxoplasmosis
CMV
Rubella
Syphilis
Varicella
Parvovirus
A

CMV

?toxo ?rubella

67
Q

Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus and dilated ventricles on CT

Toxoplasmosis
CMV
Rubella
Syphilis
Varicella
Parvovirus
A

CMV

68
Q

Child with dev delay and autistic features. ?Extra thumb.

Triplet repeat
CGH array
Karyotype
MECP gene

A

??triplet repeat. Fragile X (FMRP)

Most common cause of Autism

69
Q

Child with normal development to 12mo then developmental regression, hand flapping

Triplet repeat
CGH array
Karyotype
MECP gene

A

MECP2 gene (Rett)