2016 Flashcards

1
Q

Starter limits

A

5 consecutive attempts, 60 seconds between each attempt and 30 minutes after the 5th attempt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cranking limits

A

20 seconds max duration, 3 consecutive cranking periods with 5 minutes between cranks and 30 minutes after the 3rd crank.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rotor engagement limits

A

55 KTS within 20 degrees of nose, 35 KTS from all other directions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Start RBK wind limits

A

Maximum N1 55% during start
Maximum engine oil temp 115 deg
Maximum engine oil press 16 PSI after 60 sec
Maximum duration 15 minutes
Wind: 60 KTS within 45 degrees of nose, 40 KTS from all other directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aural Warnings

A
IAS >= 80kts and >= 8.8 FLI.
Torque 1 + 2 greater than 102.5%
Excessive load factor
Excessive fore or aft cyclic (on the ground)
N1 exceeds 102.3%
N1 divergence > 6%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Max oil pressure on engine start

A

128 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Min fuel press for engine start

A
  1. 8 PSI prior to start

3. 6 PSI during start and operating phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

DC electrical max voltage

A

30 Volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

DC electrical max current

A
160 amps (displayed as 100% on load meter)
"doesn't apply during start and 1st minute after engine start"
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gross Weight limits

A

9590 static limit
9480 flight ops
8900 unrestricted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cabin area load limits

A

125 lbs per square feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Baggage compartment load limits

A

440 lbs max, 125 lbs per foot on center, 61.5 on outboard .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acceleration limits

A

3.5 to .5 positive G’s at 6718 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DA limits

A

Max DA 10,000 ft for takeoff and landing

18,000 for forward flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lateral CG limits

A

Hovering limits winds to 55 kts within 20 degrees of nose and 35 kts from all other directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

NR hi limits

A

135 kias/40 AOB. Shall be in high for all flight greater than 10’ AGL and all lateral flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Nr rotor brake limit

A

170 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nr minimum emergency transient

A

295 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nr minimum stabilized

A

320 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nr min operating range

A

320-345 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Continuous operation range

A

345-360 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nr restricted power on operating range

A

360-395 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Maximum Nr power off

A

395 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Maximum Nr

A

420 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

3 hz chopped tone

A

345 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

10 hz chopped tone

A

380 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

OEI continuous rating

A
  1. 4 FLI marking

66. 3% torque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

OEI 2 Min rating

A
  1. 2 FLI marking

75. 5% torque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

OEI 30 second rating

A
  1. 8 FLI marking

77. 7% torque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hover flight

A

Any zero or near zero ground speed in winds of 35 knots and below.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Transition flight

A

Flight from zero to 80 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cruise flight

A

Flight above 80 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Maximum permissible forward airspeed

A

175 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Slope limits

A

10 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Rotor brake limits

A

170 RPM max
5 minute cooling between applications, after three consecutive applications allow 10 minutes cooling.
Maximum braking time is 13 seconds.

36
Q

Hoist load limit

A

Max load 600 lbs

37
Q

Heavy hoist (300-600 lbs)

A

30 second rest period

38
Q

Normal hoist (300 or less lbs)

A

10 second rest period

39
Q

No load

A

no rest required

40
Q

Max cargo hook load

A

2,000

41
Q

Fuel jettison limits

A

airspeed between 40-120 KIAS, climb/descents up to 1500 fpm, landing gear extended if below 60KIAS.

42
Q

Prohibited maneuvers

A

Aerobatic flight

Practice autorotations

43
Q

Weight limited maneuvers

A

9590 when static, towed, or taxiing
9480 for flight operations
Above 9200:
a) prolonged hover operations (>1 min)
b) Operational AUF maneuvers
Above 8900:
a) Shipboard landings
b) All rotary wing air intercept maneuvers an AUF tactical training maneuvers
c) Practice single engine maneuvers using training switch

44
Q

Absolute VNE power on

A

175 KIAS

45
Q

Absolute VNE power off

A

135 KIAS

46
Q

Cabin door movement

A

80 KIAS

47
Q

Cabin door removed

A

120 KIAS

48
Q

Cabin door locked open

A

100 KIAS

49
Q

Rescue hatch movement

A

60 KIAS, 30 sideward

50
Q

Rescue hatch locked open

A

80 KIAS, 35 sideward

51
Q

Max airspeed with skis installed

A

120 KIAS

52
Q

Landing on snow with skis installed

A

35 KGS

53
Q

Max sideward flight

A

35 Kts

54
Q

Max landing speed

A

60 KGS

55
Q

Abrupt cyclic movements

A

> 110 KIAS

56
Q

Brake speed above 8900

A

30 KGS

57
Q

Brake speed below 8900

A

38 KGS

58
Q

Landing light extension speed

A

135 KIAS

59
Q

Max speed with cargo load

A

90 KIAS

60
Q

Max speed with floats armed or inflated

A

90 KIAS

61
Q

Max speed with Nr in high

A

135 KIAS

62
Q

Max slope landing

A

10 degrees

63
Q

AOB limit with external load

A

30 degrees

64
Q

AOB limit with Nr in HI

A

40 degrees

65
Q

AOB limit > 110 KIAS

A

45 degrees

66
Q

AOB limit

A

60 degrees

67
Q

Flight Director IAS mode

A

> 40 KIAS

68
Q

Flight Director VS mode

A

> 70 KIAS, 0-3000 fpm

69
Q

Flight Director ALT mode

A

> 70 KIAS

70
Q

Flight Director IAS-ALT mode

A

> 40 KIAS

71
Q

Flight Director IAS-VS mode

A

> 40 KIAS, 0-3000 fpm

72
Q

Flight Director HDG SEL mode

A

> 40 KIAS

73
Q

Flight Director NAV mode

A

> 40 KIAS

74
Q

Flight Director APPR mode

A

> 40 KIAS, 12 degree GP

75
Q

Flight Director T-HOV

A

Below 2500 RADALT

76
Q

Flight director HOV AUG mode

A

Visual hover maneuvers

77
Q

Flight Director GA mode

A

> 25’ AGL

78
Q

The permanently offset lateral fins and the cambered vertical fin provide sufficient horizontal lift to maintain balanced flight at airspeeds above ____ & ____ KIAS in straingt and level flight?

A

120-125 KIAS

79
Q

What is the suggested airspeed during climb out of a single engine failure inflight

A

Vx or Vy

80
Q

Land/ditch Immediately

A
Crew and passengers - alerted
Wheels/Floats - as required
Land/ditch
EFSLs - both off
Emergency electrical cutoff - as required
Rotor Brake (land only) - On
Emergency egress - execute
81
Q

Emergency Egress

A
Wait
Hold
Jettison
Cords
Harness
Egress
Inflate
82
Q

The TR provides power directly to the?

A

Battery buss

83
Q

Which AC system provides power to the TR?

A

2 AC system

84
Q

Dual Engine Failure inflight

A

Complete big 4 (airspeed 75-105)
Turn toward desired landing area/into wind
At 200’ RADALT - wheels recheck
At 125’ RADALT - initiate flare. Control rate to arrive at 20 deg nose up at 75’ RADALT; inflate floats as req’d
Maintain flare until desired airspeed is reached - 30 kt plus half the wind speed.
Assume five degree nose up, wings level landing attitude.
At 25’ RADALT - collective (cushion the landing)

85
Q

Internal Fire

A

Designate crewmember to fight the fire
Affected equipment - Off
Circuit Breakers - Pull (for affected circuits)
Rack blower circuit breaker - Pull (for avrack fire R5/4)
Heat cool switches - Off
Ram Air, Doors, and CP window - Closed
200’ checlist - Complete

If fire persisits
Emergency electrical cutoff - Off
If fire persisits
Land/ditch immediately
If fire goes out
Land as soon as possible
86
Q

AC System max voltage

A

120 volts

87
Q

AC System max current

A

29 Amps indicated by 100% on the load meter.