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Horizon 2015 > 2015 > Flashcards

2015 Flashcards

1
Q

Critical phase of flight (not sterile– ie, E&A vs IAC)

A

For all other purposes (i.e., Immediate Action Card versus Emergency & Abnormal Checklist usage), “critical phase of flight” is defined as: ·

Takeoff – Beginning with brake release and ending when the aircraft is brought to a full stop during a rejected takeoff, or when the aircraft is at acceleration height and clearance of all obstacles in the takeoff flight path is assured, landing gear and flaps have been retracted, and airspeed is at least VSE. ·

Landing – Beginning when the landing gear is extended for landing and ending when the aircraft lands and is brought to a full stop, or taxied clear of the landing runway.

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2
Q

What is the minimum landing gear strut extension?

A

1.5 inches

FSM 3.2.10

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3
Q

What do the gear lights in the floor indicate?

A

Alternate Downlock Verification light system

It verifies the down and locked status of the landing gear

SDM 14.6

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4
Q

What does the landing gear inhibit switch do?

A

Selecting the switch to INHIBIT disables electrical command sent to the landing gear solenoid valve for normal extension.

SDM 14.4

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5
Q

Is anti-skid available when using the emergency brake?

A

No

SDM 14.13

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6
Q

What is the minimum parking brake pressure for engine start?

A 
500 psi (right engine)
1000 psi (left engine)

SDM 14.13

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7
Q

If sufficient parking brake pressure is not available for engine start, what can be done?

A
  1. Capture/secure nose wheel with tug
  2. Pump park brake auxiliary pump in right wheel well
  3. Chock left main and nose

FSM 7.4.8

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8
Q

Is nose wheel steering immediately available after selecting the steering switch on?

A

No.
Available after about 8 seconds.
If moved, may cause NOSE STEERING caution

FSM 3.6.2

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9
Q

Can we operate the Q400 without nose wheel steering?

A

If able, taxi to gate using differential braking and power
If unable, get towed to gate

E & A 10.2

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10
Q

Following gear selection, what two indications should be verified?

A
  1. Note 3 green lights, no amber or red
  2. Check hydraulics

FSM 3.15.9

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11
Q

Are brakes always immediately available upon landing touchdown?

A

No.

If low friction (ie, ice) prevents main wheel spin up, control unit will reactivate brakes at 5 seconds after weight-on-wheels

SDM 14.9

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12
Q

Following any gear extension/retraction, if you have an abnormal indication is it acceptable to recycle the gear?

A

No

FSM 3.11.1

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13
Q

What does the LDG GEAR INOP caution light indicate?

A

Failure of a hydraulic sequencing valve or proximity sensor on any of the gear doors

SDM 14.4

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14
Q

Who is responsible for verifying the landing gear position after gear selection?

A

Both pilots

FSM 3.11.2

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15
Q

What battery switches must be on in order to provide APU fire protection?

A

All switches

FSM 7.9.1

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16
Q

After starting the APU, how long should you delay before selecting the BL AIR switch to ON?

A

2 minutes

FSM 7.9.2

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17
Q

After starting the APU, how long should you wait before starting an engine?

A

2 minutes

FSM 7.9.2

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18
Q

What will happen if you conduct the APU FIR TEST with the APU running?

A

APU shuts down

FSM 3.22.4

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19
Q

Where does the APU get its fuel?

A

Left wing collector bay

SDM 4.6

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20
Q

How much fuel does the APU burn?

A

20 gal an hour, 40 gal with bleeds

FSM 7.9.1

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21
Q

After landing, when should the APU be started if needed?

A

After setting the parking brake

FSM 3.19.1

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22
Q

What kind of electrical power does the APU generator provide?

A

28V DC

SDM 4.1

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23
Q

When will the “WARN” segment of the APU GEN switchlight illuminate?

A

When APU is running and generator has not been selected, or
Generator is automatically taken off line while APU is running

SDM 4.4

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24
Q

Critical phase of flight– sterile

A

All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight. -
On climb: 10,000 feet above mean sea level (MSL) - On descent: 10,000 feet above airport field elevation (AFE)

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25
Q

Where do you find contamination levels?

A

QRH 2.3

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26
Q

When may you use MTOP?

A
  1. MTOP performance is provided on the Takeoff Report, and
  2. Actual takeoff weight exceeds the MRTW for NTOP

FSM 3.4.11

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27
Q

Based on QNH, when does the TLR become invalid?

A

When actual QNH is more than .10” below PQNH

FSM 4.3.1

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28
Q

If the TLR is invalid (QNH too Low, or temperature too hot), how would you obtain takeoff performance data?

A

A new Takeoff report must be generated, or

A radio revision may be accepted.

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29
Q

How is landing performance determined if landing TLR is no longer valid or when diverting to an alternate airport?

A

The General Landing Tables may be used to determine landing distance and maximum landing weight requirements.
The tables are in the performance handbook

FSM 4.7.1

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30
Q

Review a sample TLR with FSM Ch 4

A

Seriously, do it.

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31
Q

If an FRA is not specified, at what altitude AFE should flaps be retracted?

A

Takeoff: 1,000’ AFE

Missed: 1,000’AFE (2-engine)
2,000’ above approach minimums or first level-off altitude, whichever is lower (single-engine)

FSM 2.1.17

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32
Q

How do you verify obstacle clearance when leaving the filed route and proceeding direct?

A

Reference the terrain clearance charts against direct route charts to determine sufficient clearance for temperature and icing conditions

Performance Manual

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33
Q

In general terms, explain the difference between terrain clearance and mountain driftdown

A

Terrain clearance: if engine fails from V1 to destination, aircraft’s net altitude capability will clear all obstructions 5sm either side of the intended route by 1,000 feet until reaching destination

Mountain driftdown requires that, if an engine failure occurs, the aircraft will be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from normal cruise altitude and that the aircraft’s net driftdown altitude will clear all obstructions 5sm to either side of the route of flight by 2,000’ until reaching diversion altitude

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34
Q

If unable to maintain airspeed at your current altitude when operating single engine, when do you start descending?

A

Maintain flight level and slow to appropriate Vse (Open or Solid Bug)

If still unable to hold altitude, descend at the appropriate Vse

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35
Q

What does the asterisk (*) next to a flight director mode indicate?

A

Denotes capture mode

SDM 3.9

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36
Q

Where can AFCS Failure or FD Abnormal messages be found?

A

E & A

Top of PFD

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37
Q

How can one differentiate between an automatic autopilot disengagement and a manual disengagement?

A

Automatic:
Aural tone sounds continuously until acknowledged by flight crew
Illumination of A/P DISENG warning lights on glareshield

Manual:
Aural tone 1.5 sec
No A/P DISENG warning

SDM 3.18

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38
Q

Can the AP be engaged with the YD inop?

A

No

FOM 2.3.2

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39
Q

What is Level One Automation?

A

Hand flying, no automation, no flight director

FOM 2.3.2

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40
Q

When can you not use level one automation?

A
  1. Abnormal aircraft system operations
  2. Poor visibility
  3. Strong crosswinds
  4. Windshear
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41
Q

When should you use level one automation?

A

When immediate, direct control of the flight path is necessary, including:
Aircraft upset
Collision avoidance maneuvers
Unexpected response from automation.

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42
Q

What is level two automation?

A

Basic flight director command (with or without autopilot)
ie, VOR, localizer, or heading or wings level hold

FOM 2.3.2

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43
Q

When should you use level two automation?

A

During takeoff and responding to ATC instructions in dynamic terminal environments

FOM 2.3.2

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44
Q

What is level three automation?

A

FMS Command, with or without autopilot

FOM 2.3.2

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45
Q

When should you use level three automation?

A

Situations that permit:
Advance preparation
Review of FMS programming
Complete crew briefings

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46
Q

The flap auto trim feature operates between which flap settings?

A

35 to 15 or 15 to 35

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47
Q

What components operate off the engine accessory gearbox?

A

FMU
Oil Pump
DC Starter-Generator
PMA

SDM 17.3

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48
Q

What components operate off of the propeller reduction gear box?

A

Hydraulic pump
AC Generator
Propeller Control Unit
Prop Overspeed Governor

SDM 17.3

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49
Q

What is the function of the power uptrim?

A

FADEC will increase the operating engine’s power by 10%

SDM 17.19

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50
Q

What’s the difference between ENG FADEC Caution and ENG FADEC FAIL warning?

A

ENGINE FADEC FAIL is a critical fault
–May result in either a power stabilization to flight idle or ground idle, or an engine shutdown

ENGINE FADEC Caution is a cautionary fault
–Requires caution when applying control inputs

SDM 17.18

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51
Q

What is the purpose of the FADEC?

A

Fuel scheduling

Also,
Control various engine bleed valves to prevent compressor surge and stall
Prevent engine overspeed 
Control start sequence
Voltage to PEC
Detects and indicates faults

SDM 17.15

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52
Q

How is the FADEC powered?

A

PMA when NH above 20%
Essential DC bus for engine starts and PMA malfunction

SDM 17.15

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53
Q

Does the auto feather need to be armed for Uptrim to occur?

A

No

SDM 17.19

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54
Q

What components control and regulate the propeller?

A 
PEC-- Propeller Electronic Control
PCU-- Pitch Control Unit
POG-- Propeller Overspeed Governor
Auxiliary Feathering Pump
Propeller Synchophase System

SDM 17.24

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55
Q

By what methods can the propeller be feathered?

A

Auto feathering
Alternate feathering
Manual feathering

SDM 17.24

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56
Q

When in the landing rollout may you use reverse?

A

After all 3 gear are on the ground, and
Above 60 KIAS

FSM 3.17.4

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57
Q

When is it appropriate to use reverse?

A
  1. Braking action poor or antiskid engages due to reduced braking action
  2. When available landing distance is close to required landing distance
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58
Q

What is required after landing if reverse is used?

A

Post-flight inspection of fuselage, propeller, and engine intake areas

FSM 3.17.4

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59
Q

What does the monitoring pilot look for during engine start?

A

ITT less than 920* C
NH accelerates to green arc
Start select switch resets

FSM 3.5.1

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60
Q

After starter reset, when can you commence start of the other engine?

A

SELECT light extinguishes
MAIN BATT load of .40 or less

FSM 3.5.1

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61
Q

Does the APU BL AIR OPEN light need to be extinguished prior to initiating engine start?

A

No

FSM 3.5.1

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62
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

If reported departure weather is below landing minimums, or
if any other operational conditions exist at the departure airport that would preclude a return back to that airport.

FOM 6.6.1

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63
Q

When is a destination alternate required?

A

Always, unless:
1. For at least ONE hour before and ONE hour after the ETA at the destination airport, the appropriate weather reports indicate that:
The ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above airport elevation, and
The visibility will be at least 3 statute miles

  1. The flight is not based on an FMS-based approach unless the aircraft is WAAS-equipped and operational
  2. Exemption 3585 is applied

FOM 6.6.2

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64
Q

What does the weather need to be at the alternate to be legal?

A

Ops Spec C055

FOM 6.6.3

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65
Q

When are two destination alternates required?

A

If weather conditions for the first alternate airport are marginal.

FOM 6.6.2

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66
Q

May a flight be dispatched when the destination visibility is or is forecast to be below landing minimums?

A

Yes, if there is conditional language (PROB or TEMPO), and
Two alternates are listed on the dispatch release, and
The worst weather conditions are not less than 1/2 the minimum visibility required for the instrument approach procedure expected to be used

FOM 6.2.5

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67
Q

You were dispatched under a preplanned amendment. The weather at your scheduled destination has improved but you are unable to contact dispatch. Can you land at your scheduled destination?

A

No.

FOM 4.1.13

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68
Q

To what portion of the wx report does Exemption 3585 provide relief?

A

Conditional remarks

FOM 6.2.5

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69
Q

What is the Type I climb profile?

A

Establish pitch at 5 degrees to accelerate to 240 KIAS
Maintain 240 KIAS in PITCH or IAS mode to 10,000 MSL,
then 5-6 degrees pitch

FSM 3.12.1

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70
Q

What is the Type II climb profile?

A

185 KIAS to FL 250, or until no longer required

FSM 3.12.1

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71
Q

What is the minimum altitude for turning after takeoff with two engines?

A

At or above 400’ AGL provided that ceilings are greater than 1,000 feet and visibility is greater than 3 sm, and
The crew determines that obstruction clearance can be maintained visually

FSM 4.2.1

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72
Q

What is the airplane maximum ambient temperature limit?

A

+50 deg C or ISA +35 deg C, whichever is lower

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73
Q

What is the airplane minimum ambient temperature limit?

A

-54 deg C

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74
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

25,000 ft ASL

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75
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude for takeoff?

A

10,000 ft ASL

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76
Q

What is Horizon’s Vfe speed for Flaps 5?

A

Min: 160 KIAS
Max: 195 KIAS
Structural: 200 KIAS

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77
Q

What is Horizon’s Vfe Speed for Flaps 10?

A

Min: 150 KIAS
Max: 175 KIAS
Strucutral: 181 KIAS

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78
Q

What is Horizon’s Vfe Speed for Flaps 15?

A

Min: Solid or open bug
Max: 165 KIAS
Structural: 172 KIAS

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79
Q

What is Horizon’s Vfe Speed for Flaps 35?

A

Min: Solid or open bug
Max: 155 KIAS
Structural: 158 KIAS

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80
Q

What is Horizon’s Vlo speed?

A

195 KIAS

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81
Q

What is the Landing Gear Extended Speed (Vle)?

A

215 KIAS

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82
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for flight in severe turbulence?

A

210 KIAS

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83
Q

What is Va (maneuvering speed)?

A

204 KIAS

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84
Q

What is Vmin for Flaps 0?

A

180 KIAS

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85
Q

With an engine failure on departure when do you turn to follow the VIA block of the turn procedure?

A

50’ AFE or engine failure above 50’ AFE

FSM 4.2.3

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86
Q

Where are the Obstacle Departure Procedures found?

A

Text block of Jeppesen chart for airport.

FOM 9.1.1

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87
Q

Following an engine failure on departure, how long must the turn procedure be followed?

A

1,000’ AFE

FSM 4.2.2

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88
Q

After takeoff, what is the maximum angle of bank?

A

V2: 15 deg bank
At or above V2 + 10: 30 deg bank

FSM 4.2.2

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89
Q

When should terrain be displayed?

A

Within 30 nm of departure or arrival airport
During terminal operations, unless otherwise limited by a specific aircraft procedure.

FOM 2.3.2

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90
Q

Below what WX should the Captain conduct the approach?

A

When weather is within 300’ of DA, or visibility is less than twice that required for the approach, a Captain-flown approach should be conducted.
If the HGS is inop, then perform a Captain-monitored approach.

FOM 17.1.3

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91
Q

The aircraft must be configured for landing above what altitude?

A

35 deg Flaps: 1,000’ AFE
15 deg Flaps: Prior to FAF for approaches requiring Flaps 15

FSM 3.15.5

92
Q

The aircraft must be stabilized on speed prior to what altitude?

A

500’ AFE

FSM 3.15.6

93
Q

Regarding stabilized approaches, what is the maximum course deviation on an instrument approach?

A

One dot.

FOM 10.1.1

94
Q

Regarding stabilized approach, what is the maximum glidepath deviation on an instrument approach with vertical guidance?

A

One dot above to 1/2 dot below

FOM 10.1.1

95
Q

What is the maximum rate of descent on a stabilized approach between 2,000’ AGL/RA and 1,000’ AFE/RA?

A

2,000 fpm

FOM 10.1.1

96
Q

What is maximum rate of descent below 1,000’ AFE?

A

Rate of descent as necessary to maintain published glidepath; or,
Not in excess of 1,000 fpm

FOM 10.1.1

97
Q

How would lightning in the airport vicinity affect ground operations?

A

5 miles: No headsets
3 miles: All ramp operations are stopped

FOM 8.2.2

98
Q

How far shall echoes/ steep rainfall gradient be avoided in flight?

A

Above FL 230: 20 nm
At or below FL 230:
SAT 0 deg or more: 5 nm or more
SAT less than 0 deg C: 10 nm or more

FOM 12.1.2

99
Q

What is maximum ground wind speed for operations?

A

50 knots
Gust 55 knots

FSM 1.4.5

100
Q

What is the max tailwind allowed for takeoff?

A

20 knots

FSM 1.6.1

101
Q

What is the max tailwind for landing?

A

20 knots

FSM 1.6.1

102
Q

What adjustments shall be made due to reported windshear on takeoff?

A
  1. Appropriate flap setting from TLR
  2. NTOP, Bleeds OFF power
  3. Adjust Vr

FSM 2.1.22

103
Q

What adjustments shall be made due to reported windshear on landing?

A
  1. Normal flap setting
  2. Solid bug
  3. Bleeds OFF
  4. MTOP

FSM 2.1.25

104
Q

When shall intersection departures not be used?

A

Approach end of runway being used is not visible to flight crew

FOM 17.1.3

105
Q

After pushback on an icy ramp, when should you move the condition levers to MAX?

A

Pushback complete
Park brake set
Tug disconnected
Ground personnel clear

FSM 3.6.1

106
Q

What is required if the runway is plowed to less than 150’?

A

Braking action must be fair or better if the crosswind is greater then 10 knots

FOM 12.2.2

107
Q

Under what conditions can the APU be used for engine starts even though a GPU is available?

A
  1. Already operating for bleed air
  2. Engine starts at the gate are prohibited
  3. Engine starts at the gate will delay or be delayed by passenger boarding of the adjacent aircraft.

FSM 3.1.12

108
Q

What systems on the aircraft have fire protection?

A
  1. Engines
  2. APU
  3. Forward and Aft baggage compartments
  4. Lavatory

SDM 8.1

109
Q

What are the cockpit indications of an engine fire?

A

5 lights:

  1. Pull fuel/hyd OFF T-Handle
  2. Master warning
  3. Check Fire Det
  4. BOTH Engine fire Push To Reset

SDM 8.5

110
Q

How do you determine which engine is on fire?

A

PULL FUEL/HYD OFF T-Handle is illuminated

SDM 8.5

111
Q

What does pulling of the Fire T-Handle accomplish?

A
  1. Emergency fuel shutoff valve closes.
  2. Emergency Hydraulic Shutoff closes
  3. FWD and AFT fire bottles arm

SDM 8.7

112
Q

How is an engine fire extinguished?

A

Select EXTG on FPP to discharge halon gas from fire bottle

SDM 8.7

113
Q

After running the appropriate checklist, what is the most direct indication of whether the engine fire has extinguished?

A

ENGINE FIRE PRESS TO RESET extinguishes

SDM 8.5

114
Q

The Q400 has a fire warning tone in the event of an engine fire. How do you silence the tone?

A

Press either left or right ENGINE FIRE PRESS TO RESET lights

SDM 8.5

115
Q

What does the SMOKE warning indicate?

A

Smoke detected in
(1 detector) Forward baggage compartment, or
(2 detectors) Aft baggage compartment

SDM 8.9

116
Q

What indications are associated with a fire in the FWD cargo compartment?

A
  1. Master warning
  2. Smoke warning light
  3. Baggage fwd smoke/extg
  4. Fire Bottle FWD Arm on FPP

SDM 8.10

117
Q

What is the maximum airspeed deviation on a stabilized approach below 500’ AFE?

A

-5/+10 knots of target speed

FOM 10.1.1

118
Q

What is the max bank angle on a stabilized approach less than 500’ AFE?

A

15 degrees

FOM 10.1.1.

119
Q

At an uncontrolled airport, can you enter the pattern on final?

A

Yes, provided the aircraft is established on final no closer than 5 miles and gives way to other traffic in a standard pattern.

FOM 10.1.4

120
Q

What is the minimum weather to conduct a circling approach?

A

MDA of 1,000 feet or the published MDA, whichever is higher, and a visibility of 3 sm or the published visibility, whichever is higher.

FOM 10.1.4

121
Q

The reported weather is below published landing minimums. Can you begin the approach? Of continue the approach once within the FAF?

A

If visibility and outside the FAF: No
If past FAF, may continue the approach.

FOM 10.1.

122
Q

How often does the company iPad need to be synced?

A

Prior to the start of every trip.

FOM 2.9.1

123
Q

Are there any restrictions to where an iPad can be synced?

A

Yes; after check-in prior to the start of every trip.

FOM

124
Q

What is the minimum iPad battery charge?

A

75% to begin flight duty day
30% to begin flight segment

FOM 2.9.1

125
Q

Can you charge your iPad with the EFB if needed?

A

No

FOM 2.9.2

126
Q

Can both pilots simultaneously reference their iPads in flight?

A

No, if there are no X-grips

FOM 2.9.2

127
Q

What is the required flight crew equipment?

A 
FCC Permit
Passport if trip includes leaving country
iPad
Backup Battery Charger
Headset
Company ID
Flashlight
Airman Certificate
Medical
Flight Release

FOM 7.2.5

128
Q

What is the standard takeoff briefing?

A

“Call out 80, V1, and rotate. Call any malfunctions. If before V1, it will be your decision to abort. After V1, I will continue the takeoff.”

FOM 7.2.8

129
Q

What is the maximum taxi speed?

A

25 knots
10 knots if poor braking or slush/snow

FSM 3.8.2

130
Q

By what speed on takeoff do the power levers need to be set in the Rating Power detent?

A

50 KIAS

FSM 3.10.1

131
Q

During the takeoff roll, what items are checked by the pilot monitoring?

A

PFCS shows roll spoilers are retracted
Spoilers advisory light extinguish
AF ARM advisory on ED

FSM 3.10.1

132
Q

What is maximum pitch on takeoff until all wheels lift off?

A

8 degrees

FSM 3.10.2

133
Q

When are flaps retracted on a two-engine Missed Approach?

A

1,000’ AFE, unless otherwise specified by a specific procedure.

FSM 3.16.3

134
Q

On initial climb out, when does the pilot monitoring complete the after takeoff flow and checklist?

A

After contacting ATC and clearing the traffic area
Traffic area = 2,500’ AFE and 4 nm from airport

FSM 3.11.1

135
Q

What is the normal holding speed and configuration?

A

Gear UP, Flaps 0 deg, and 200 KIAS

FSM 3.14.2

136
Q

On approach, when is the missed approach altitude set in the alerter?

A

When the aircraft reaches 1,000’ AFE, or
At the initiation of a missed approach,
whichever comes first

FSM 7.5.3

137
Q

What is the maximum ground speed on the runway after landing?

A

60 kts GS if braking and visibility are good
25 kts GS when:
1. Braking action is less than good
2. Visibility is less than 1,000’ RVR, or
3. Prior to reaching the last 1,000’ from runway end

FSM 3.17.3

138
Q

How close may an aircraft be taxied to an object?

A

10’ lateral without a wing walker
5’ lateral with a wing walker
Never taxi “over” an object

139
Q

What landing pitch attitude may induce a tail strike?

A

Greater than 6 degrees

FSM 3.17.1

140
Q

If the pitch attitude reaches 6 deg nose up or if an excessive sink rate develops on short final, the PF shall correct how?

A

PM- “Six degrees”
PF- “Correcting”
Increase power
No further increase in pitch attitude

FSM 3.17.1

141
Q

How would a tailstrike be indicated?

A

Master Warning
“Touched runway”

SDM 18.2

142
Q

What is Vmin for Flaps 5?

A

160 KIAS

FSM 1.3.1

143
Q

What is Vmin for Flaps 10?

A

150 KIAS

FSM 1.3.1

144
Q

What is Vmin for flaps 15?

A

Solid or open bug (Vref)

FSM 1.3.1

145
Q

What is Vmin for flaps 35?

A

Solid or open bug (Vref)

FSM 1.3.1

146
Q

What are the engine starter cranking limits?

A

70 sec- 2 min OFF
70 sec- 2 min OFF
70 sec- 30 min OFF

FSM 1.4.4

147
Q

When are the engine intake bypass doors required to be open?

A

Engine operation in Icing conditions

FSM 1.5.1

148
Q

Regarding the use of ice protection equipment, what is the definition of Icing Conditions?

A

Ground: 10 deg C or less
Flight: 5 deg C to -40 deg C and visible moisture

FSM 1.5.1

149
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing?

A

32 knots

FSM 1.6.1

150
Q

What is the maximum in flight fuel imbalance between main fuel tanks?

A

600 lbs

FSM 1.7.1

151
Q

When are the tank aux pumps required to be ON?

A

Takeoff and landing

FSM 1.7.1

152
Q

What is the maximum Main, Aux, and Standby Battery load meter reading for takeoff?

A

0.1

FSM 1.8.1

153
Q

What is the minimum battery temperature for takeoff?

A

-20 deg C

FSM 1.8.1

154
Q

Under normal operations, what is the maximum altitude with the landing gear and/or flaps extended?

A

15,000’

FSM 1.8.1

155
Q

Is in flight operation of the power lever aft of the flight idle gate allowed?

A

No

FSM 1.8.1

156
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential limit?

A

5.95 psi

FSM 1.8.1

157
Q

What is the maximum cabin pressure differential during takeoff and landing?

A

0.5 psi

FSM 1.8.1

158
Q

When must bleed air be OFF for takeoff?

A
  1. Tailwind greater than 10 knots
  2. Windshear
  3. MTOP

FSM 1.8.1

159
Q

When must bleed air be OFF for landing?

A
  1. Tailwind greater than 10 kts
  2. Windshear
  3. Reported OAT greater than 39 deg C

FSM 1.8.1

160
Q

Is takeoff with the AHRS in BASIC mode allowed?

A

No

FSM 1.8.1

161
Q

Is takeoff with the AHRS in DG mode allowed?

A

No

FSM 1.8.1

162
Q

If the forward and aft baggage compartments are not empty, how far can the airplane be operated from a suitable airport for landing?

A

1 hour

FSM 1.8.2

163
Q

When using the flight deck speakers, how shall the Hot Mic switches be set on both ARCDUs?

A

OFF

FSM 1.8.2

164
Q

How does the Observer’s INT/RAD switch need to be set when using the flight deck speakers?

A

Centered

FSM 1.8.2

165
Q

Can the APU be operated in flight?

A

No

FSM 1.8.2

166
Q

May the APU be operated unattended with passengers on board?

A

No

FSM 1.8.2

167
Q

May the APU be operated during gravity refueling?

A

No

FSM 1.8.2

168
Q

May the APU be started during refueling?

A

No

FSM 1.8.2

169
Q

What is the APU maximum ambient temperature limitation?

A

50 deg C or ISA plus 35 deg C, whichever is less

FSM 1.8.2

170
Q

What is the APU minimum ambient temperature limitation?

A

-54 deg C

FSM 1.8.2

171
Q

What are the APU starter cranking limits?

A

60 sec - 5 min OFF
60 sec- Mx action required

FSM 1.8.2

172
Q

Can we operate the APU during deice of the aircraft?

A

Yes

FSM 1.8.2

173
Q

When is the autopilot prohibited from being used?

A
  1. Takeoff or Go-around: 1,000’ AFE
  2. Coupled approach: 200’AFE
  3. AIII approach, inop engine, or Flap 0: 1,000’ AFE
  4. Severe icing
  5. Severe or extreme turbulence

FSM 1.8.3

174
Q

The use of MTOP for takeoff is limited to how many minutes?

A

10

FSM 1.4.1

175
Q

When are reduced NP landings prohibited?

A
  1. Solid bug
  2. Bleeds OFF
  3. Tailwind greater than 10 knots
  4. Windshear reported or suspected
  5. Contaminated runway or braking action less than good
  6. Performance derived from E & A

FSM 1.4.4

176
Q

What flap settings are approved for approaches flown in AIII mode?

A

15 deg

FSM 1.8.2

177
Q

For approaches flown in AIII mode, how must the aircraft be configured by the FAF?

A

Gear and flaps in landing configuration

FSM 1.8.2

178
Q

What are the AIII wind limitations?

A

Crosswind: 15 kts
Tailwind: 10 kts
Headwind: 25 kts

179
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature to unfeather the prop?

A

-18 deg C

FSM 1.4.2

180
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for takeoff?

A

0 deg C

FSM 1.4.1

181
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for takeoff into icing conditions?

A

55 deg C for takeoff
65 deg C within 3 minutes

FSM 1.4.1

182
Q

When do we fly Solid Bug on approach below 1,000 AFE?

A
  1. Ref Speeds- INCR
  2. Bank angles greater than 15 deg
  3. Windshear
  4. Gusts greater than 10 knots

FSM 1.4.1

183
Q

What are the takeoff abort memory items?

A

Remove feet from rudder pedals and respond, “Your airplane”
Maintain wings level with the ailerons as appropriate to the wind conditions.
Advise ATC of abort, if applicable
Request emergency equipment, if directed.
Accomplish the Takeoff Abort Checklist on IAC

FSM 2.1.8

184
Q

What events require a takeoff to be aborted prior to V1?

A

Windshear encounter
Engine Fire or Failure
A/F ARM message fails to illuminate on ED
Takeoff warning horn
HGS Failure, “TO WARN”, or loss of HGS symbology during takeoff below 500 RVR when the runway centerline is not in sight.
Exceeding engine limitations
Red (Master Warning)
Takeoff torque not obtained on either engine

FSM 2.1.8

185
Q

What are the Engine Start Abort memory items?

A

___ Condition Lever ….. FUEL OFF
Start Select switch ….. CENTER
Call for Engine Start Abort Checklist

FSM 2.1.19

186
Q

When shall an engine start be aborted by the pilot?

A
  1. Engine ITT approaches or exceeds 920 deg C
  2. NH is not in the green arc within 70 seconds of selecting Condition Levers to START & FEATHER, or
  3. Engine Oil Pressure fails to reach 44 psi by Start SELECT switch reset.

FSM 2.1.19

187
Q

What are the Pitch Control Jam memory items?

A

Autopilot … DISENGAGE
Retain flap setting and approximate airspeed at time of jam
If control still jammed:
Both pilots attempt to control by force against the jam
If unable to overcome jam:
Control column force…Relax
Pitch Disconnect Handle… Pull and turn 90 deg
Control column…. Both pilots attempt pitch control
Aircraft control… Pilot with free control column
Call for the Pitch Control Jam checklist

FSM 2.1.19

188
Q

What are the Roll Control Jam memory items?

A

Autopilot…. DISENGAGE
If control still jammed:
ROLL DISC Handle… Pull and Turn 90 deg
Control wheels…. Both pilots attempt control
Aircraft Control… Pilot with free controls
Call for the Roll Control Jam checklist

FSM 2.1.19

189
Q

What is the Oxygen Mask Donning Procedure?

A

Call “Smoke-Don Mask” or “Oxygen- Don Mask”
Headset… REMOVE
Oxygen Mask…DON
If smoke or fumes are present
Regulator (if required) … Emergency
Communications… Establish
Headset…ON
Hot Mic…OFF
Utilize interphone switch for crew communications
Mask/MIC switch… MASK

FSM 2.1.20

190
Q

What is the Missed Approach Procedure?

A 
Press GA button on Power LEVER and call "Missed Approach"
Rotate to Flight Director (10 deg)
Simultaneously with rotation, advance POWER levers to detent.
Call "Set Power"
When pitch is 10 deg:
Call "Flaps One Notch Up"
"Positive Rate"
"Gear Up"

Ref FSM 3.16.3 for remainder

191
Q

What is the appropriate pilot response to a “Too Low- Flaps” EGPWS alert?

A

Missed Approach

FSM 2.1.21

192
Q

What it the appropriate pilot response to a “Too Low- Flaps” EGPWS alert?

A

Missed approach

FSM 2.1.21

193
Q

If windshear is encountered on takeoff after V1, when shall rotation occur?

A

Vr(W) or 2,000’ runway remaining
Follow T/O WS Pull up Warning procedures

FSM 2.1.21

194
Q

What indications are associated with a fire in the AFT carago compartment?

A
  1. Master warning
  2. SMOKE warning light
  3. BAGGAGE AFT SMOKE/EXTG Switchlight
  4. FIRE BOTTLE AFT ARM on FPP
  5. VENT INLET and OUTLET CLOSED
  6. FIRE BOTTLE AFT ARM

SDM 8.13

195
Q

How is a fwd/aft cargo compartment fire extinguished?

A
  1. High rate fire extinguisher discharges immediately when BAGGAGE AFT SMOKE/EXTG is pushed
  2. Low rate will discharge about 7 minutes later

SDM 8.14

196
Q

What indications, if any, would you have for a fire in the lavatory?

A

Flight attendant calls

SDM 8.16

197
Q

Is the APU fire protection system automatic or manual?

A

Automatic

SDM 4.9

198
Q

Can you manually extinguish an APU fire?

A

Yes
Push guarded EXTG switchlight

SDM 4.9

199
Q

What is the normal hydraulic system pressure?

A

3000 psi

SDM 12.2

200
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch in each system?

A

40% of normal volume

SDM 12.5

201
Q

What systems are powered by the #1 hydraulic system?

A 
Brakes
Antiskid
Rudder
Flaps
PTU
Inboard roll spoilers
Elevator

SDM 12.3

202
Q

What backs up the #1 hydraulic pump?

A

Electrically driven Standby Hydraulic Pump

SDM 12.2

203
Q

When will the STBY HYD PUMP turn on automatically?

A
  1. Number 1 Engine fails
  2. Flaps are greater than 0 with parking brake released.

SDM 12.6

204
Q

Will the green switchlight illuminate if the STBY HYD PUMP is automatically activated?

A

No

SDM 12.6

205
Q

What systems are powered by the #2 hydraulic system?

A 
Landing gear
Outboard roll spoilers
Steering
Elevators
Rudder
Emergency/parking brake

SDM 12.3

206
Q

What backs up the #2 hydraulic pump?

A

Power Transfer Unit

SDM 12.6

207
Q

What powers the PTU?

A

1 hydraulic system

SDM 12.6

208
Q

Will the green ON switchlight illuminate if the PTU is automatically activated?

A

No

209
Q

When will the PTU automatically activate?

A

Parking brake is OFF, and

  1. Flaps selected >0
  2. Loss of oil pressure in #2 engine, or
  3. Loss of #2 hydraulic system pressure

Also,
#1 Main hydraulic system is operational, and
Normal fluid quantity in #2

SDM 12.6

210
Q

How do you know if the PTU is automatically activated?

A

Crosshatch section of PTU switchlight is green.

SDM 12.7

211
Q

How are the hydraulic systems protected from fluid loss?

A

Isolation valve closes.

SDM 12.8

212
Q

If hydraulic systems #1 and #2 fail, is braking available?

A

Emergency braking only.

SDM 14.11

213
Q

What is the purpose of the #3 hydraulic system?

A

Provides hydraulic pressure to the left and right inboard elevator PCU’s.

SDM 12.2

214
Q

What powers the #3 hydraulic system?

A

Gas charged accumulator maintained by DCMP (DC Motor Pump)

SDM 12.2

215
Q

When stating “HYD #3 ISOL VLV Ckd” on the Before Start checklist, what are you verifying has been checked?

A

Press IN Hyd #3 ISOL VALVE
Confirm #3 pressure rises to 2,600 to 3,200 psi
Press out

FSM 3.4.10

216
Q

What is Vmin for flaps 10?

A

150 KIAS

FSM 1.3.1

217
Q

What is Vmin for flaps 15?

A

Solid or Open bug(Vref)

FSM 1.3.1

218
Q

What is Vmin for flaps 35?

A

Solid or Open Bug (Vref)

FSM 1.3.1

219
Q

What are the names of the passenger cabin doors?

A

Forward passenger door; Aft passenger door

SDM 1.1

220
Q

Of the annunciated doors, how is an unsecured door annunciated on the flight deck?

A

Master Warning
Fuselage Doors Warning Lights
3 Warning Tones
MFD Doors System page shows red triangle

SDM 1.29

221
Q

Which doors have a ditching dam?

A

Main cabin door; Fwd Type II/III Emergency Exit

SDM 1.29

222
Q

Explain the O2 Mask’s 3 modes of operation

A
  1. Normal: Ambient air/O2 Mixture, which varies with cabin altitude
  2. 100% switch :
223
Q

Explain the O2 mask’s 3 modes of operation

A
  1. Normal: Ambient air/O2 mixture, which varies with cabin altitude
  2. 100% switch: 100% O2
  3. Emergency (4:00 position): 100% O2 at a slight positive pressure

SDM 1.23

224
Q

Where are the portable fire extinguishers located onboard the aircraft?

A
  1. Behind Captain’s seat (1)
  2. Forward emergency stowage compartment (1)
  3. Aft emergency stowage compartment (2)

SDM 7.5

225
Q

How many portable oxygen bottles are in the cabin of the aircraft?

A

6

SDM 7.6

226
Q

Where are the two flight attendant mobility oxygen bottles located?

A
  1. Forward left-hand overhead bin
  2. Aft right hand overhead bin

SDM 7.6

Horizon 2015 (2 decks)

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