2014.2 Flashcards
- A transdermal fentanyl patch is often used for management of cancer pain. After application, the time to reach peak plasma levels is:
- A. 1hr
- B. 2hrs
- C. 4hrs
- D. 12hrs
- E: 24hrs
E. 24 h
ANZCA pain book 6.5.1
“The time to peak blood concentration is generally between 24 and 72 hours after initial patch application and after the patch is removed, serum fentanyl concentrations decline gradually, with a mean terminal half‐life ranging from 22 to 25 hours” (MIMS, 2008)
- Pharmacological studies are undertaken in several phases. A phase 3 study involves:
- A Animal studies
- B Testing of drug on healthy volunteers
- C Observational studies on patients with disease
- D Post marketing surveillance
- E Randomised controlled trials on target population
E. RCT on target population
Myles textbook p.137
Phase I: first administration in humans (usually healthy volunteers). Confirm/establish basic PK and toxicology data. (n=20-100)
Phase II: selected clinical investigations in target population, aimed at establishing dose-response (‘dose finding’) relationship, plus some evidence of efficacy and safety
Phase III: full scale clinical evaluation of benefits, potential risks and cost analyses
… (from australianclinicaltrials.gov.au):
Phase III studies are done to study the efficacy of an intervention in large groups of trial participants (from several hundred to several thousand) by comparing the intervention to other standard or experimental interventions (or to non-interventional standard care). Phase III studies are also used to monitor adverse effects and to collect information that will allow the intervention to be used safely.
Phase IV: post marketing surveillance (thousands of patients)
- A pregnant patient 28/40 gestation is involved in a high-speed MVA. On admission to the DEM she complains of sudden onset severe chest pain. Her vital signs show HR 120, BP 160/100, SpO2 95% RA and her ECG shows ST depression. Most likely diagnosis is:
- A. Cardiac contusion
- B. Tension pneumothorax
- C. Aortic dissection
- D. Sternal fracture
- E. Myocardial infarction
C. Aortic dissection
Blunt chest trauma and pregnancy both risk factors
- A 5 year-old child with recently diagnosed Duchenne muscular dystrophy has an inhalation induction with sevoflurane for closed reduction of a distal forearm fracture. No other drugs have been given. 10 minutes later the child suffers a cardiac arrest. After a further 5 minutes a venous blood sample shows a potassium level of 8.5mmol/L. The most likely mechanism for the hyperkalaemia is:
- A MH
- B ARF
- C Cardiomyopathy
- D Rhabdomyolysis
- E Crush injury
D. Rhabdomyolysis
CEACCP - Neuromuscular disorders and anaesthesia (2011)
“Inhalation anaesthetics have been implicated in the rhabdomyolysis seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy patients secondary to their effects of further increasing mycoplasmic calcium. It has been difficult to elucidate whether the metabolic reaction seen is related to an anaesthesia-related rhabdomyolysis or a true malignant hyperthermia.”
Gurnaney, Pediatric Anesthesiology 2009 - ‘Malignant hyperthermia and muscular dystrophies’:
We did not find an increased risk of malignant hyperthermia susceptibility in patients with DMD or BD compared with the general population. However, dystrophic patients who are exposed to inhaled anesthetics may develop disease-related cardiac complications, or rarely, a malignant hyperthermia-like
syndrome characterized by rhabdomyolysis
- A 30yr old pregnant patient develops contractions at 30/40 gestation. Which of the following can not be used for tocolysis?
A. Clonidine B. Indomethacin C: Magnesium D. Salbutamol E. Nifedipine
A. Clonidine (no tocolytic effect)
Indomethacin is an appropriate (first-line) tocolytic for the pregnant patient in early preterm labor (
- In a patient with intraorbital haemorrhage, following local anaesthetic injection, the adequacy of occular perfusion is best assessed by:
- A. Angiography
- B. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
- C. Direct ophthalmoscopy
- D. Intra-occular pressure tonometry
- E. Palpation of the globe by an experienced physician
B. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
Royal college of anaesthetists and opthalmologists consensus document
http://www.rcoa.ac.uk/system/files/LA-Ophthalmic-surgery-2012.pdf
Document page 26
“Indirect ophthalmoscopy should be performed to look for evidence of central retinal artery perfusion compromise”
- What is the appropriate post-operative ibuprofen dosage for a one year old child tds?
- A. 5mg/kg
- B. 7.5mg/kg
- C. 10mg/kg
- D. 15mg/kg
- E. 20mg/kg
C. 10 mg/kg
Frank Shann - Drug Doses
- You are inducing a 4yr old child with Arthrogrophysis multiplex congenita. After you administer the induction agents, you find it difficult to place the laryngoscope. What is the likely complication?
- A. Malignant hyperthermia
- B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- C. TMJ rigidity
- D. Opioid-induced rigidity
- E. Inadequate depth of anaesthesia
C. TMJ rigidity
OHA p298: Arthrogryposis
Skin and SC tissue abnormalities, contracture deformities, micrognathia, cervical spine and jaw stiffness, congenital heart disease (10%), difficult airway and venous access, sensitive to thiopental, hypermetabolic response is probably not MH
- What is the best measure of the anticoagulant effect of Dabigatran?
- A. APTT
- B. Dilute thrombin time
- C. Prothrombin time
- D. Bleeding time
- E. TEG
B. Dilute thrombin time
Horlocker article.
http://www.chumontgodinne.be/files/ PradaxaPracticalquestionsFinalSept2011.pdf
In situations where an assessment of the anticoagulant activity of dabigatran is
required, the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) test, which is widely available, provides an approximate indication of the anticoagulation intensity achieved with dabigatran.
If required, a more sensitive quantitative test with the diluted Thrombin Time (Hemoclot®) can be performed.
The INR is less affected by dabigatran and should therefore not be used.
- What is the ratio of compression to breaths for neonatal resuscitation?
- A. 3:1
- B. 15:1
- C. 30:1
- D. 15:2
- E. 30:2
A. 3:1
ARC neonatal resus guidelines
- In patients with refractory elevated ICP, bilateral decompressive craniectomy is associated with reduction in ICP and also results in:
- A. Reduced duration of ventilation
- B. Reduced duration of hospitalisation
- C. Improved overall mortality
- D. Worse long-term neurological outcome
- E. Unchanged long-term neurological outcome
D. Worse long-term neurological outcome
CEACCP - Traumatic brain injury: an evidence-based review of management (2013)
‘For intracranial hypertension refractory to medical therapy, decompressive craniotomy can be used. A section of skull vault is removed, allowing the brain to expand and ICP decrease. However, there is little consensus on its use. Results from the DECRA study did not resolve this uncertainty. Contrary to expectations, outcome was significantly poorer for patients randomly assigned to receive decompressive craniotomy compared with those who received standard care. Consequently, decompressive craniotomy is currently reserved for when other methods of ICP control have failed. It is hoped that the RESCUEicp trial, now ongoing, will provide further evidence.’
Cochrane review:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16437469
“There is no evidence to support the routine use of secondary DC to reduce unfavourable outcome in adults with severe TBI and refractory high ICP. In the pediatric population DC reduces the risk of death and unfavourable outcome.”
DECRA trial (NEJM 2011) - decreased ICP, decreased days of ventilation and ICU stay, but worse outcome at 6 months.
RESCUE study - worse functionally but no difference in mortality.
2014 article:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24662856
61.Tumour lysis syndrome causes all of the following biochemical abnormalities EXCEPT:
- A. Hyperkalaemia
- B. Hypernatraemia
- C. Hyperphosphataemia
- D. Hyperuricaemia
- E. Hypocalcaemia
B. Hypernatraemia
Medscape:
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/282171-overview#showall
Clinically, the syndrome is characterized by rapid development of hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and acute renal failure.
CEACCP - Intensive care management of patients with haematological malignancy (2010)
- You are performing an interscalene nerve block using a nerve stimulator when your patient begins to hiccough. You should aim to position the tip of your needle more
- A) Anterior
- B) Posterior
- C) Cephalad
- D) Caudal
- E) Superficial
B. Posterior
Stimulating phrenic nerve (anterior)
Therefore redirect posteriorly
- The characteristic respiratory pattern in a patient with an acute C5 spinal cord injury is
- A. Rapid respiratory rate
- B. Arterial hypoxaemia
- C. Chest wall immobility
- D. Preserved cough
- E. Preserved inspiratory force
A. Rapid respiratory rate
- Tavi vs max medical therapy nonoperable aortic stenosis reduction in risk at 30 days of
- A. AMI
- B. AKI
- C. Death
- D. Atrial fibrillation
- E. Stroke
???
In the PARTNER trial (see below), TAVI had significantly increased incidence of stroke, vascular complications and major bleeding at 30 days, compared with standard therapy. No difference at 30 days for any of the other outcomes, including death, AMI, AKI, or AF. Reduction in death and cardiac symptoms (NYHA III or IV) at 1 year with TAVI.
PARTNER trial - Leon et al, NEJM (2010): ‘Transcatheter Aortic-Valve Implantation for Aortic Stenosis in Patients Who Cannot Undergo Surgery’
Results: A total of 358 patients with aortic stenosis who were not considered to be suitable can- didates for surgery underwent randomization at 21 centers (17 in the United States). At 1 year, the rate of death from any cause (Kaplan–Meier analysis) was 30.7% with TAVI, as compared with 50.7% with standard therapy (hazard ratio with TAVI, 0.55; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.40 to 0.74; P
- Medial peribulbar block tip max distance (in mm) past equator for minimal vein injury
- A. 5
- B. 10
- C. 15
- D. 20
- E. 25
A. 5 mm
NYSORA - Local and regional anesthesia for eye surgery:
‘Medial canthus approach: The needle is introduced at the medial junction of the lids, nasal to the lacrimal caruncle, in a strictly posterior direction to a depth of 15 mm or less. At this level, the space between the orbital wall and the globe is similar in size to that of the inferior and temporal approach and is free from blood vessels.’
If average axial length is 23-34 mm, then 15 mm or less is definitely no more than 5 mm past the equator…
- A patient has suffered flash burns to half of the left upper limb, all of the left lower limb and the anterior surface of the abdomen. The approximate percentage of the body surface which has been burnt is:
- A. 18%
- B. 23%
- C. 32%
- D. 41%
- E. 48%
C. 32%
Rule of 9’s:
Half of upper limb: 4.5
All of lower limb: 18
Anterior surface abdomen: 9
- You are anaesthetising an ASA 1 woman for a laparoscopic gynaecological procedure. How long does it take for the PaCO2 to peak?
* A. 90min
B. 15-30 mins
During uneventful CO2 -pneumoperitoneum, PaCO2 progressively increases to reach a plateau 15 to 30 minutes after the beginning of CO2 insufflation in patients under controlled mechanical ventilation during gynecologic laparoscopy in the Trendelenburg position.
(some online textbook)
- Anaemia post partial gastrectomy is most likely due to:
- A folate deficiency secondary to steatorrhea
- B ongoing haemorrhage from stomal ulcer ‘(yes Stomal not stomach)’
- C malabsorption of iron
- D Vit B deficiency due to loss of intrinsic factor
- E folate deficiency due to lack of appetite
D. B12 deficiency due to loss of intrinsic factor.
Iron absorbed in duodenum
Folate in jejunum
B12 in terminal ileum (but needs intrinsic factor, secreted by stomach)
Shouldn’t have steatorrhea with gastrectomy - pancreatic enzymes still secreted.
- 65year old for video assisted thoracoscopic lower lobe wedge resection. Surgeon requests lung isolation and one lung ventilation.
Predictors of intraoperative hypoxia are:
- A central rather than peripheral lesion
- B left sided lesion
- C low Aa Oxygen gradient when ventilating both lungs
- D right sided lesion
- E supine rather than lateral position
A,D and E all predictors of intraop hypoxia.
?Poor recall (possibly all except…)
CEACCP - Hypoxaemia during one-lung anaesthesia (2010)
Factors predictive of hypoxaemia during OLV include: ventilation of the left rather than the right lung, low oxygen partial pressure on two lungs, absence of reduction of perfusion to areas of lung pathology, and supine position rather than the lateral decubitus position
- Small air bubbles in the arterial line system will reduce:
- A. Dampening coefficient
- B. ?Extrinsic Coefficient
- C. Measured systolic pressure
- D. Measured MAP
- E. Resonant frequency
C and E
CEACCP - Blood pressure measurement (2007):
Some damping is inherent in any system and acts to slow down the rate of change of signal between the patient and pressure transducer. This can be caused by occlusion of the arterial system, a bubble interrupting the saline column, or using a soft cannula and tubing. Some damping is useful, however, as it reduces the resonant frequency of the pressure transducing system. The amount of damping in a system is indicated by the ‘damping factor’.
Q95: RPT. Capnograph trace form a patient that is intubated and ventilated. What does it indicate?
- A. Endotracheal intubation
- B. Gas sample line leak
- C. ETT cuff leak
- D. Obstructive disease
- E. Spontaneous breaths
B. Gas sample line leak (not sure what the trace looked like but this is always the answer!)
98.’You extubate a young woman after a dental procedure under GA. She has a history of hereditary angioedema and in recovery she develops airway oedema. Best treatment
- A. FFP
- B. IV Adrenaline
- C. IV corticosteroids
- D. IV promethazine
- E. Nebulized adrenaline
A. FFP
UpToDate - Hereditary angioedema: treatment of acute attacks.
- adrenaline, corticosteroids, antihistamines no use
- 1st line C1 esterase inhibitors
- if not available, use FFP
- A previously well 65 year old female develops acute shortness of breath 3 days post hip replacement. The most appropriate investigations to confirm PE is
- A. CTPA
- B. D-dimer
- C. Echo
- D. Ecg
- E. V/Q scan
A. CTPA