Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2014 AQP > 2014 AQP > Flashcards

2014 AQP Flashcards

1
Q

Which slats have anti-ice protection?

A

Outboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What source(s) of hot air are available for engine cowl anti-ice?

A

Respective engine only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When should Anti-ice be selected to on?

A

When ICE DETECTED alert is displayed or icing conditions exist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What must the crew do when the automatic anti-ice system turns the anti-ice on automatically?

A

Turn IGN OVRD to on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The wingspan on the MD-11 is approximately?

A

169 FT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At what altitude will an alert appear if the Crew Rest Module is not closed and latched?

A

17750 FT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The main cargo door is electrically controlled and actuated by what source?

A

Independent hydraulic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When fully charged, a self-contained battery will provide sufficient power to operate the emergency lights for how long?

A

10 Min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

With the Emergency Lighting switch in the ARM position, the system will illuminate automatically when

A

Primary lighting fails or normal electrical power is interrupted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Power to the emergency lighting system is provided sequentially in what priority?

A

Right Emergency AC Bus, Left Emergency DC Bus, Emergency lighting battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the power source for emergency operation of the cabin doors?

A

Pneumatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the power source for normal cabin door operation?

A

Electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where is the inflatable evacuation slide/life raft combination located?

A

Inside the forward left and right cabin doors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many high pressure oxygen cylinders are carried onboard UPS MD-11 aircraft to provide oxygen to the crew, observers and supernumerary stations and positions?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

After the oxygen mask is restowed into the box and doors are shut, what must you do to stop the flow of oxygen to the mask, reset the microphone from mask to boom and retract the OXY ON flag?

A

Push the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET lever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many engine driven hydraulic pumps are there for each engine?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What backup hydraulic power source is located in system 3?

A

Electrically driven auxiliary pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What components provide backup hydraulic pressure across the three hydraulic system?

A

Reversible motor pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What components provide backup hydraulic pressure to the rudders and stabilizer trim?

A

Non-reversible motor pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many channels are available in the Hydraulic System Controller (HSC)?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the minimum quantity for hydraulic systems 1 and 2 during preflight?

A

4.75 Gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A level one, HYD_QTY LO alert will appear when the respective hydraulic system fluid quantity is less than what amount after engine start?

A

2.5 Gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

During normal operations with the hydraulic system in auto, what is the status of the hydraulicpumps?

A

The left pump normally powers the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the function(s) of the auxiliary pumps?

A

Provide pressure to system 3 on the ground or in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
During engine start, when will the HSC automatically turn off auxiliary pump 1?
When a start switch is moved to on.
26
How many reversible motor pumps are installed on the aircraft?
2
27
In auto, when are the reversible motor pumps commanded off?
The condition that caused them to be commanded on no longer exists.
28
In auto, when are the reversible motor pumps commanded on?
The engine driven pumps are unable to maintain pressure during taxi, takeoff or landing
29
How many non-reversible motor pumps are installed on the aircraft?
2
30
Which systems or components are protected by the non-reversible motor pumps?
Hydraulic system 2 provides backup to the upper rudder and horizontal stabilizer.
31
How are the non-reversible motor pumps turned on in flight?
The pumps are always armed and turn on when the primary system pressure falls below acertain level
32
What is the purpose of the hydraulic system enhancement system?
Automatically shuts off to retain enough fluid in system 3 for pitch and roll control
33
Which hydraulic system components are tested during the hydraulic preflight test?
Auxiliary and reversible motor pumps
34
Which hydraulic system components are tested during the hydraulic preflight engine driven pumptest?
Left and right engine driven pumps
35
What is the resulting hydraulic system configuration when the hydraulic system reverts to the manualmode of operation?
The hydraulic system is configured to its normal configuration except that both reversiblemotor pumps turn on
36
What is the trim rate of the stabilizer?
The stabilizer automatically operates at two different rates as a function of airspeed and/oraltitude to provide optimum performance
37
All primary and secondary flight controls are hydraulically powered by which system?
At least two and in some cases all three hydraulic systems
38
To avoid wing twist when are the outboard ailerons locked out?
When the flaps, slats, and landing gear are retracted
39
What are the three different input sources to the elevators?
Control wheel, Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS), Autopilot
40
Which computer(s) is responsible for Elevator Load Feel (ELF) function?
Flight Control Computers (FCCs)
41
What does yaw damping provide?
The yaw damper provides turn coordination and Dutch roll damping through the upper andlower rudder
42
When is parallel rudder available?
When the autopilot is engaged in takeoff, go-around, and single and dual land modes
43
What conditions are required for spoilers to automatically extend upon landing?
Spoiler handle armed and flaps extended 31º or more
44
During a normal landing, flaps 35 spoilers armed, when will the spoilers extend?
One-half deployment upon main wheel spin-up, full deployment after nose geartouchdown
45
During a rejected takeoff below 80 knots with the spoilers armed when will the spoilers extend?
Any two throttles are moved to reverse thrust
46
During a rejected takeoff above 80 knots with the spoilers armed when will the spoilers extend?
Any two throttles are moved to idle
47
Which flap segment is the cockpit flap handle directly connected to?
Inboard flap control valve
48
When does the Flap Limiting system operate?
Speeds above 175 knots and flaps between 22º and 50º
49
What is the purpose of the Flap Limiting system?
Prevent flap extension or automatically retract flaps at certain speeds and flap settings
50
How is the slat system controlled and actuated?
Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated
51
When does the automatic slat extension system extend the slats?
Just after stick shaker activation when within airspeed parameters
52
When is the automatic slat extension system inhibited?
Above .55 mach/280 knots
53
How many longitudinal trim motors are installed on the aircraft?
2
54
What is the purpose of the Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS)?
Enhance longitudinal stability with the autopilot disengaged
55
Which control surface(s) does the Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS) have authority over?
Elevators and Stabilizer
56
List three functions of the Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS).
Pitch rate damping, stall protection, pitch attitude protection
57
What source(s) does the stall warning system use to provide stall warning?
Angle of attack and Speed
58
Which source is most reliable for stall warning?
Angle of attack
59
During all phases of flight, except takeoff, what is the neutral (baseline) position of the outboardailerons?
4º droop trailing edge down
60
What is the maximum tire speed?
204 KIAS
61
Which hydraulic system retracts and extends the landing gear?
System 3
62
What happens if the main gear door handle is in the horizontal position with the door open when thehydraulic system 3 is pressurized?
The door will Close.
63
To prevent serious structural loads on the center gear what should you ensure during refueling,loading and unloading of the aircraft?
Ensure the center gear is not chalked ..
64
How does the ground sensing system operate?
Mechanically when nose strut is compressed/extended
65
The brakes are powered by which hydraulic systems?
1 and 3
66
How many brake accumulators are in each brake system?
3
67
How many brake applications are available from a fully charged brake accumulator system?
10
68
What brake pressure indication is required for adequate brake pressure during parked operation?
Pressure must be in the white band.
69
When does the anti-skid system prevent tire skidding by reducing individual brake pressure asrequired?
During automatic or manual braking unless selected off
70
Which phase(s) of flight is the Automatic Brake System (ABS) available?
Landing and rejected takeoff
71
What conditions are required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) to arm during landing mode?
IRU 1 and 2 operational, Flaps > 28º or more, Hydraulic systems 1 and 2 normal
72
What conditions are required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) landing mode to activate?
Throttles retarded to idle, brake pedals released, spoilers deployed
73
What conditions are required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) to arm for takeoff?
Autobrake selector in Takeoff, spoilers ARMED, flaps in takeoff range
74
What condition(s) are required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) to activate?
Automatic or manual ground spoiler deployment
75
During a rejected takeoff with the Automatic Brake System (ABS) properly armed what type ofbraking will be applied?
Below 100 knots min braking, above 100 knots max braking
76
How can you rearm the Automatic Brake System (ABS) after it automatically disarms?
Cycle the AUTOBRAKE selector to off and the back to desired setting
77
What does a blanked out portion on an individual tire/brake display indicate?
Data for that tire or brake is not available
78
When can the gear warning horn NOT be silenced with the gear horn OFF button?
Flaps in the landing range with the landing gear not down
79
How does a failure of hydraulic systems 1or 3 effect nose wheel tiller steering?
Nose wheel steering is limited to 25º in the direction of the inoperative system
80
Which of the following occurs with the failure of the ground sensing mechanism to shift to the flightmode?
Pressurization will not function in automatic, Airborne engine 2 reverse thrust is possible
81
What is the maximum taxi weight?
633,00 lbs
82
What is the maximum takeoff weight?
630,500 lbs
83
What is the maximum landing weight with the center gear extended?
491,500 lbs
84
What is the maximum zero fuel weight with the center gear extended?
461,300 lbs
85
What is the maximum allowable tailwind for takeoff or landing?
10 Knots
86
What is the maximum lateral fuel imbalance between tanks 1 and 3?
2,500 lbs
87
What is the maximum start EGT (no time limit) for a GE engine?
750 deg C
88
What is the maximum ground start EGT for a PW engine?
535 deg C
89
What is the maximum in-flight start EGT for a PW engine?
650 deg C
90
When must the autopilot be off during a non-precision approach?
Applicable minimums minus 50 ft.
91
What is the maximum autoland weight?
491,500 Lbs( center gear extended)
92
What is the maximum runway slope allowed?
+/- 2%
93
ALL ENGINE FLAMEOUT
ENG IGN OVRD SWITCH OVRD ONADG DEPLOY
94
TAILPIPE FIRE
FUEL SWITCH OFF
95
ENGINE ABNORMAL START (HOT, HUNG OR NO START)
FUEL SWITCH OFF
96
TWO ENGINES INOPERATIVE
THROTTLE MCTFLAPS(unless on final) UPSPEED(unless on final) Driftdown or UP/ RET Vmin + 30GEAR(unless committed) UPSLATS(unless on final) RETRACT
97
97. CABIN ALTITUDE
OXYGEN MASKS ON/100%OUTFLOW VALVE VERIFY CLOSED
98
CRG FIRE LWR
FLASHING CARGO FIRE AGENT DISCH SWITCH PUSH
99
ENG 2 A-ICE DUCT
ENGINE 2 THROTTLE OFF
100
ENGINE ___ FIRE (OR SEVERE DAMAGE)
THROTTLE IDLE
101
FMS route modifications are practiced in every CQ training event? True or False
TRUE
102
Techniques for accomplishing FMS route modifications can be found in the PTG, Chapter 8?True or False
TRUE

2014 AQP (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions