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2014 AQP > 2014 AQP > Flashcards

2014 AQP Flashcards

1
Q

Which slats have anti-ice protection?

A

Outboard

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2
Q

What source(s) of hot air are available for engine cowl anti-ice?

A

Respective engine only.

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3
Q

When should Anti-ice be selected to on?

A

When ICE DETECTED alert is displayed or icing conditions exist.

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4
Q

What must the crew do when the automatic anti-ice system turns the anti-ice on automatically?

A

Turn IGN OVRD to on.

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5
Q

The wingspan on the MD-11 is approximately?

A

169 FT.

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6
Q

At what altitude will an alert appear if the Crew Rest Module is not closed and latched?

A

17750 FT

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7
Q

The main cargo door is electrically controlled and actuated by what source?

A

Independent hydraulic system

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8
Q

When fully charged, a self-contained battery will provide sufficient power to operate the emergency lights for how long?

A

10 Min

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9
Q

With the Emergency Lighting switch in the ARM position, the system will illuminate automatically when

A

Primary lighting fails or normal electrical power is interrupted.

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10
Q

Power to the emergency lighting system is provided sequentially in what priority?

A

Right Emergency AC Bus, Left Emergency DC Bus, Emergency lighting battery

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11
Q

What is the power source for emergency operation of the cabin doors?

A

Pneumatic

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12
Q

What is the power source for normal cabin door operation?

A

Electrical

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13
Q

Where is the inflatable evacuation slide/life raft combination located?

A

Inside the forward left and right cabin doors

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14
Q

How many high pressure oxygen cylinders are carried onboard UPS MD-11 aircraft to provide oxygen to the crew, observers and supernumerary stations and positions?

A

4

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15
Q

After the oxygen mask is restowed into the box and doors are shut, what must you do to stop the flow of oxygen to the mask, reset the microphone from mask to boom and retract the OXY ON flag?

A

Push the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET lever.

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16
Q

How many engine driven hydraulic pumps are there for each engine?

A

2

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17
Q

What backup hydraulic power source is located in system 3?

A

Electrically driven auxiliary pumps

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18
Q

What components provide backup hydraulic pressure across the three hydraulic system?

A

Reversible motor pumps

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19
Q

What components provide backup hydraulic pressure to the rudders and stabilizer trim?

A

Non-reversible motor pumps

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20
Q

How many channels are available in the Hydraulic System Controller (HSC)?

A

2

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21
Q

What is the minimum quantity for hydraulic systems 1 and 2 during preflight?

A

4.75 Gallons

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22
Q

A level one, HYD_QTY LO alert will appear when the respective hydraulic system fluid quantity is less than what amount after engine start?

A

2.5 Gallons

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23
Q

During normal operations with the hydraulic system in auto, what is the status of the hydraulicpumps?

A

The left pump normally powers the system

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24
Q

What is the function(s) of the auxiliary pumps?

A

Provide pressure to system 3 on the ground or in flight

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25
Q

During engine start, when will the HSC automatically turn off auxiliary pump 1?

A

When a start switch is moved to on.

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26
Q

How many reversible motor pumps are installed on the aircraft?

A

2

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27
Q

In auto, when are the reversible motor pumps commanded off?

A

The condition that caused them to be commanded on no longer exists.

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28
Q

In auto, when are the reversible motor pumps commanded on?

A

The engine driven pumps are unable to maintain pressure during taxi, takeoff or landing

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29
Q

How many non-reversible motor pumps are installed on the aircraft?

A

2

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30
Q

Which systems or components are protected by the non-reversible motor pumps?

A

Hydraulic system 2 provides backup to the upper rudder and horizontal stabilizer.

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31
Q

How are the non-reversible motor pumps turned on in flight?

A

The pumps are always armed and turn on when the primary system pressure falls below acertain level

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32
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic system enhancement system?

A

Automatically shuts off to retain enough fluid in system 3 for pitch and roll control

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33
Q

Which hydraulic system components are tested during the hydraulic preflight test?

A

Auxiliary and reversible motor pumps

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34
Q

Which hydraulic system components are tested during the hydraulic preflight engine driven pumptest?

A

Left and right engine driven pumps

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35
Q

What is the resulting hydraulic system configuration when the hydraulic system reverts to the manualmode of operation?

A

The hydraulic system is configured to its normal configuration except that both reversiblemotor pumps turn on

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36
Q

What is the trim rate of the stabilizer?

A

The stabilizer automatically operates at two different rates as a function of airspeed and/oraltitude to provide optimum performance

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37
Q

All primary and secondary flight controls are hydraulically powered by which system?

A

At least two and in some cases all three hydraulic systems

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38
Q

To avoid wing twist when are the outboard ailerons locked out?

A

When the flaps, slats, and landing gear are retracted

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39
Q

What are the three different input sources to the elevators?

A

Control wheel, Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS), Autopilot

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40
Q

Which computer(s) is responsible for Elevator Load Feel (ELF) function?

A

Flight Control Computers (FCCs)

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41
Q

What does yaw damping provide?

A

The yaw damper provides turn coordination and Dutch roll damping through the upper andlower rudder

42
Q

When is parallel rudder available?

A

When the autopilot is engaged in takeoff, go-around, and single and dual land modes

43
Q

What conditions are required for spoilers to automatically extend upon landing?

A

Spoiler handle armed and flaps extended 31º or more

44
Q

During a normal landing, flaps 35 spoilers armed, when will the spoilers extend?

A

One-half deployment upon main wheel spin-up, full deployment after nose geartouchdown

45
Q

During a rejected takeoff below 80 knots with the spoilers armed when will the spoilers extend?

A

Any two throttles are moved to reverse thrust

46
Q

During a rejected takeoff above 80 knots with the spoilers armed when will the spoilers extend?

A

Any two throttles are moved to idle

47
Q

Which flap segment is the cockpit flap handle directly connected to?

A

Inboard flap control valve

48
Q

When does the Flap Limiting system operate?

A

Speeds above 175 knots and flaps between 22º and 50º

49
Q

What is the purpose of the Flap Limiting system?

A

Prevent flap extension or automatically retract flaps at certain speeds and flap settings

50
Q

How is the slat system controlled and actuated?

A

Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated

51
Q

When does the automatic slat extension system extend the slats?

A

Just after stick shaker activation when within airspeed parameters

52
Q

When is the automatic slat extension system inhibited?

A

Above .55 mach/280 knots

53
Q

How many longitudinal trim motors are installed on the aircraft?

A

2

54
Q

What is the purpose of the Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS)?

A

Enhance longitudinal stability with the autopilot disengaged

55
Q

Which control surface(s) does the Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS) have authority over?

A

Elevators and Stabilizer

56
Q

List three functions of the Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS).

A

Pitch rate damping, stall protection, pitch attitude protection

57
Q

What source(s) does the stall warning system use to provide stall warning?

A

Angle of attack and Speed

58
Q

Which source is most reliable for stall warning?

A

Angle of attack

59
Q

During all phases of flight, except takeoff, what is the neutral (baseline) position of the outboardailerons?

A

4º droop trailing edge down

60
Q

What is the maximum tire speed?

A

204 KIAS

61
Q

Which hydraulic system retracts and extends the landing gear?

A

System 3

62
Q

What happens if the main gear door handle is in the horizontal position with the door open when thehydraulic system 3 is pressurized?

A

The door will Close.

63
Q

To prevent serious structural loads on the center gear what should you ensure during refueling,loading and unloading of the aircraft?

A

Ensure the center gear is not chalked ..

64
Q

How does the ground sensing system operate?

A

Mechanically when nose strut is compressed/extended

65
Q

The brakes are powered by which hydraulic systems?

A

1 and 3

66
Q

How many brake accumulators are in each brake system?

A

3

67
Q

How many brake applications are available from a fully charged brake accumulator system?

A

10

68
Q

What brake pressure indication is required for adequate brake pressure during parked operation?

A

Pressure must be in the white band.

69
Q

When does the anti-skid system prevent tire skidding by reducing individual brake pressure asrequired?

A

During automatic or manual braking unless selected off

70
Q

Which phase(s) of flight is the Automatic Brake System (ABS) available?

A

Landing and rejected takeoff

71
Q

What conditions are required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) to arm during landing mode?

A

IRU 1 and 2 operational, Flaps > 28º or more, Hydraulic systems 1 and 2 normal

72
Q

What conditions are required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) landing mode to activate?

A

Throttles retarded to idle, brake pedals released, spoilers deployed

73
Q

What conditions are required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) to arm for takeoff?

A

Autobrake selector in Takeoff, spoilers ARMED, flaps in takeoff range

74
Q

What condition(s) are required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) to activate?

A

Automatic or manual ground spoiler deployment

75
Q

During a rejected takeoff with the Automatic Brake System (ABS) properly armed what type ofbraking will be applied?

A

Below 100 knots min braking, above 100 knots max braking

76
Q

How can you rearm the Automatic Brake System (ABS) after it automatically disarms?

A

Cycle the AUTOBRAKE selector to off and the back to desired setting

77
Q

What does a blanked out portion on an individual tire/brake display indicate?

A

Data for that tire or brake is not available

78
Q

When can the gear warning horn NOT be silenced with the gear horn OFF button?

A

Flaps in the landing range with the landing gear not down

79
Q

How does a failure of hydraulic systems 1or 3 effect nose wheel tiller steering?

A

Nose wheel steering is limited to 25º in the direction of the inoperative system

80
Q

Which of the following occurs with the failure of the ground sensing mechanism to shift to the flightmode?

A

Pressurization will not function in automatic, Airborne engine 2 reverse thrust is possible

81
Q

What is the maximum taxi weight?

A

633,00 lbs

82
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight?

A

630,500 lbs

83
Q

What is the maximum landing weight with the center gear extended?

A

491,500 lbs

84
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight with the center gear extended?

A

461,300 lbs

85
Q

What is the maximum allowable tailwind for takeoff or landing?

A

10 Knots

86
Q

What is the maximum lateral fuel imbalance between tanks 1 and 3?

A

2,500 lbs

87
Q

What is the maximum start EGT (no time limit) for a GE engine?

A

750 deg C

88
Q

What is the maximum ground start EGT for a PW engine?

A

535 deg C

89
Q

What is the maximum in-flight start EGT for a PW engine?

A

650 deg C

90
Q

When must the autopilot be off during a non-precision approach?

A

Applicable minimums minus 50 ft.

91
Q

What is the maximum autoland weight?

A

491,500 Lbs( center gear extended)

92
Q

What is the maximum runway slope allowed?

A

+/- 2%

93
Q

ALL ENGINE FLAMEOUT

A

ENG IGN OVRD SWITCH OVRD ONADG DEPLOY

94
Q

TAILPIPE FIRE

A

FUEL SWITCH OFF

95
Q

ENGINE ABNORMAL START (HOT, HUNG OR NO START)

A

FUEL SWITCH OFF

96
Q

TWO ENGINES INOPERATIVE

A

THROTTLE MCTFLAPS(unless on final) UPSPEED(unless on final) Driftdown or UP/ RET Vmin + 30GEAR(unless committed) UPSLATS(unless on final) RETRACT

97
Q
  1. CABIN ALTITUDE
A

OXYGEN MASKS ON/100%OUTFLOW VALVE VERIFY CLOSED

98
Q

CRG FIRE LWR

A

FLASHING CARGO FIRE AGENT DISCH SWITCH PUSH

99
Q

ENG 2 A-ICE DUCT

A

ENGINE 2 THROTTLE OFF

100
Q

ENGINE ___ FIRE (OR SEVERE DAMAGE)

A

THROTTLE IDLE

101
Q

FMS route modifications are practiced in every CQ training event? True or False

A

TRUE

102
Q

Techniques for accomplishing FMS route modifications can be found in the PTG, Chapter 8?True or False

A

TRUE

2014 AQP (1 decks)

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