2014 Flashcards

1
Q

6 risk factors for stroke

A

a. Hypertension
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Smoking
d. Hypercholesterolemia
e. Diabetes
f. Hereditary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Patient on amoxicillin for acute otitis media, metformin for Type 2 Diabetes ,
carbamazepine and selegiline. Which drug caused ataxia and nystagmus in patient?

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does grapefruit juice affect carbamazepine?

A

Grapefruit juice would increase the amount of drug the body absorbs which may lead to drug toxicity. Several organic compounds found in grapefruit and specifically in grapefruit juice exert inhibitory action on drug metabolism by the enzyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mechanism of action for selegiline as an anti-depressant:

A

Selegiline is a selective inhibitor of MAO-B; MAO-B metabolizes dopamine and phenylethylamine. Increased dopamine levels reduce symptoms of depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is another therapeutic use for selegiline?

A

As an anti-parkinsonian drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is regular CBC necessary for patients on carbamazepine?

A

risk of agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is regular CBC necessary for patients on carbamazepine?

A

risk of agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Picture of catalase test, gram +ve cocci in clusters.

A

Name orgamism: Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give 3 organisms that can cause osteomyelitis:

A

a. E. Coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Haemophilus Influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why do the bacteria affect the metaphysis?

A

In adults, with closure of the growth plate, infection is mainly in the metaphysis. Because the growth plate is closed, the blood vessels become looping (hairpin loop). These large blood vessels gradually become narrow at the end causing stasis of the blood. Due to stasis, we have exudates which result in a focus of infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which organism causes osteomyelitis in Sickle cell anaemia patients?

A

Salmonella species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the complication of chronic osteomyelitis as seen in the picture:

A

Maybe pathologic fracture or Epidermoid carcinoma of the fistula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List 4 other complications of osteomyelitis:

A

a. Altered bone growth
b. Septic arthritis
c. Osteonecrosis
d. Skin cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name 4 types of fractures:

A

a. Oblique
b. Comminuted
c. Spiral
d. Compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List 3 broad categories of wound healing:

A

a. Procallus
b. Fibrocartilaginous callus
c. Osseous callus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List 5 complications of impaired wound healing:

A

a. Delayed union
b. Mal-union
c. Fibrous union
d. Non union
e. Soft tissue injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Patient has osteoporosis. List 3 other metabolic diseases of bone:

A

a. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
b. Osteomalacia
c. Paget’s disease

18
Q

Patient has osteoporosis. List 3 other metabolic diseases of bone:

A

a. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
b. Osteomalacia
c. Paget’s disease

19
Q

List three broad categories of wound healing

A

A. Procallus
B. Fibrocartilaginous callus
C. Osseous callus

20
Q

List 5 complications of impaired wound healing:

A

a. Delayed union
b. Mal-union
c. Fibrous union
d. Non union
e. Soft tissue injury

21
Q

Patient has osteoporosis. List 3 other metabolic diseases of bone:

A

a. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
b. Osteomalacia
c. Paget’s disease

22
Q

State whether calcium, phosphate and ALP will be normal, low or high:

A

a. Calcium: normal
b. Phosphate: normal
c. ALP: normal

23
Q

What’s the role of oestrogen in osteoporosis pathogenesis in menopausal women?

A

Cytokines recruit osteoclasts to take part in bone resorption. Oestrogen decreases cytokine levels thereby reducing osteoclast recruitment and bone resorption. In menopause, there isn’t any oestrogen to do this and thus, there is increased bone resorption causing osteoporosis.

24
Q

Name the virus and pathognomic cell seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma (classical) and Adult T- cell Lymphoma/Leukaemia:

A

a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma (classical): Reed-Steenberg Cells/ EBV b. Adult T-cell lymphoma/leukaemia: Convoluted lymphocytes/ HTLV1 retrovirus

25
Q

Comment on the CBC of a patient with normal PT/APTT, reverse neutrophil/lymphocyte ratio, anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leucopenia, neutropenia, etc.

A

Patient has aplastic anaemia

26
Q

What blood products would you give this patient?

A

a. Packed red cells
b. Platelets

27
Q

What are 2 specific uses of flow cytometry in leukaemia and lymphomas?

A

a. Determination of surface antigen on cells
b. Distinguish acute myeloid leukaemia from acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

28
Q

What is the best site for BMAT?

A

The iliac crest of the pelvic bone

29
Q

What is the best site for BMAT?

A

The iliac crest of the pelvic bone

30
Q

What other test can be performed on the bone marrow aspirate to confirm AML?

A

Cytogenic studies

31
Q

What are 5 risk factors of AML?

A

a. Age (median age 70 years)
b. Ethnicity (Caucasian)
c. Sex (males)
d. Exposure to radiation
e. Smoking

32
Q

What are 4 features of lymphadenopathy?

A

a. >2cm (malignant), <2cm (benign)
b. Hard, firm and rubbery consistency
c. Fixed (malignant), Mobile (benign)
d. Usually non-tender (malignant), tender (benign)

33
Q

Which organ is examined to determine organomegaly?

34
Q

Name 2 tests that will help you stage the lymphoma:

A

a. Chest Xray
b. PET scanning

35
Q

What would you put in the lymph node biopsy to fix it?

36
Q

Neutrophil production:

A

Committed stem cell
Myeloblast
Promyelocyte
Metamyelocyte
Band neutrophil
Mature segmented neutrophil

37
Q

What are 2 tests to determine the histocompatibility for BMT/SCT

A

a. Blood group typing and crossmatching
b. Detection of autoantibodies

38
Q

Gell and Coomb’s Type 4 Hypersensitivity:

A

Delayed-type hypersensitivity, cell-mediated immune memory response, antibody- independent. Helper T cells (specifically Th1 helper t cells) are activated by an antigen presenting cell. When the antigen is presented again in the future, the memory Th1 cells will activate macrophages and cause an inflammatory response. This ultimately can lead to tissue damage.

39
Q

What is the pathogenesis of GvHD?

A

GVHD is an immune-mediated disease resulting from a complex interaction between donor and recipient adaptive immunity. The main effectors are donor T cells, which are activated in the presence of co-stimulatory molecules by a storm of proinflammatory cytokines. Chronic GVHD is a syndrome that mimics the autoimmune diseases. Donor T cells play an important role in its development, but humoral immunity is also implicated. The targets of attack may include host non- HLA antigens like minor histocompatibility antigens. In some studies, host dendritic cells may also be at play. A close relationship exists between the development of chronic GVHD and a helpful graft-versus-tumor/leukemia effect.

40
Q

Name one specific way the donor could reduce the effect:

A

. Antithymocyte globulin

41
Q

Kidney transplant rejected within 8 hours. Name the type of transplant and the mechanism by which it occurs:

A

a. Hyperacute rejection
b. Preformed anti-HLA antibodies