2012 AICPA Newly Released Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The Uniform Capitalization Rules of Code Sec. 263A apply to retailers whose average gross receipts for the preceding three years exceed what amount?

a. $1,000,000
b. $2,500,000
c. $5,000,000
d. $10,000,000

A

Choice “d” is correct. The uniform capitalization rules do not apply to inventory acquired for resale if the taxpayer’s average gross receipts for the preceding three tax years do not exceed $10,000,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An individual taxpayer reports the following items for the current year:
Ordinary income from partnership A, operating a movie theater in which the taxpayer materially participates $70,000
Net loss from partnership B, operating an equipment rental business in which the taxpayer does not materially participate (9,000)
Rental income from building rented to a third party 7,000
Short-term capital gain from sale of stock 4,000
What is the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income for the year?
a. $70,000
b. $72,000
c. $74,000
d. $77,000

A

Choice “c” is correct. Except in the year in which an individual, estate, trust, or closely-held C corporation disposes of an entire interest in a passive activity investment, such taxpayers cannot deduct passive activity expenses and losses against income and gain attributable to non-passive activities. A passive activity is (i) any activity in which such taxpayers do not materially participate and (ii) as a general rule, such taxpayers’ rental real estate investments – regardless of the extent of such taxpayers’ involvement with the rental real estate operations. A limited exception (the “Mom and Pop Exception”) regarding rental real estate activities is available to individuals, but the facts of this question do not provide any information which would entitle the taxpayer to the benefits of this exception.

Hence, the taxpayer can deduct, against the profit from the taxpayer’s $7,000 passive activity rental income from the building rented to a third party, only $7,000 of the $9,000 net loss from partnership B which is operating an equipment rental business in which the taxpayer does not materially participate.

Computation of adjusted gross income for the year:
Ordinary income from partnership A, operating a movie theater in which the taxpayer materially participates $70,000
Rental income from building rented to a third party (a passive activity) 7,000
Net loss from partnership B, operating an equipment rental business in which the taxpayer does not materially participate (per the above rule the taxpayer can deduct only $7,000 of the $9,000 passive activity loss) (7,000)
Short-term capital gain from sale of stock (fully taxable) 4,000
Adjusted gross income for the year $74,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

On February 1, year 1, a taxpayer purchased an option to buy 1,000 shares of XYZ Co. for $200 per share. The taxpayer purchased the option for $50,000, which was to remain in effect for six months. The market declined, and the taxpayer let the option lapse on August 1, year 1. The taxpayer would report which of the following as a capital loss on the year 1 income tax return?

a. $50,000 long term.
b. $50,000 short term.
c. $150,000 long term.
d. $200,000 short term.

A

Choice “b” is correct. An option held by an investor is a capital asset. A capital asset which is sold or exchanged within one year of acquisition will generate either a short-term capital gain (if the capital asset is sold at a price greater than acquisition cost) or a short-term capital loss (if the capital asset is sold at a price less than the acquisition cost). The cost (or other basis) of worthless stock or securities is treated as a capital loss as if they were sold on the last day of the taxable year in which they became totally worthless. The option’s exercise price is irrelevant with respect to determining loss on account of the lapse of the options.

In this question, the options, which were capital assets purchased for $50,000 on February 1, Year 1, became worthless on the lapse date, August 1, Year 1. Thus, the $50,000 capital loss is treated as having occurred on December 31, Year 1, the last day of the taxable year in which the options became totally worthless. Because, as of December 31, Year 1, the options had not been held for more than a year, the $50,000 capital loss will be reported on the income tax return as a short-term capital loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A taxpayer lived in an apartment building and had a two-year lease that began 16 months ago. The taxpayer’s landlord wanted to sell the building and offered the taxpayer $10,000 to vacate the apartment immediately. The taxpayer’s lease on the apartment was a capital asset but had no tax basis. If the taxpayer accepted the landlord’s offer, the gain or loss would be which of the following?

a. An ordinary gain.
b. A short-term capital loss.
c. A long-term capital gain.
d. A short-term capital gain.

A

Choice “c” is correct. A capital asset which is sold or exchanged more than one year after the date of acquisition will generate either a long-term capital gain (if the capital asset is sold at a price greater than acquisition cost) or a long-term capital loss (if the capital asset is sold at a price less than the acquisition cost). In this question, the lease-hold interest, which is a capital asset, was acquired more than a year ago, and the basis (acquisition cost) in that capital asset is -0-. So, the receipt of $10,000 to vacate the apartment will generate a $10,000 long-term capital gain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In year 1, a taxpayer sold real property for $200,000, receiving $100,000 at closing and $100,000 plus accrued interest at the prime rate in the next year. The buyer also assumed a $50,000 mortgage on the property. The taxpayer’s adjusted basis was $75,000, and the taxpayer incurred $10,000 of selling expenses. If this transaction qualifies for installment sale treatment, what is the gross profit on the sale?

a. $115,000
b. $125,000
c. $165,000
d. $175,000

A

Choice “c” is correct. Unless the taxpayer elects not to use the installment sales method, the taxpayer generally will recognize gain (but not loss) over the period during which the taxpayer receives cash payments (other than interest income) from the sale of noninventory assets. Note that this method is not available for the sale of stocks and securities traded on an established securities market.
The gross profit will be the amount realized less selling costs less the adjusted basis of the property sold (note: IRS forms require the taxpayer (i) to increase the adjusted basis by the amount of the selling costs and (ii) not reduce the amount realized by the selling costs. This requirement does not change the amount of gain/gross profit.
If the contract requires that payments be made in a subsequent year and if the contract requires little or no interest, the taxpayer may have to reduce the amount realized by the amount of unstated interest. This rule does not apply here because the contract requires that the buyer pay accrued interest at the prime rate in the next year.
Amount realized:
Cash to be received, excluding interest income $200,000
Related debt assumed by the buyer 50,000
Less: selling expenses (10,000)
Amount realized $240,000
Less: Adjusted basis (75,000)
Gain realized/gross profit $165,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Upon her grandfather’s death, Jordan inherited 10 shares of Universal Corp. stock that had a fair market value of $5,000. Her grandfather acquired the shares in 1995 for $2,500. Four months after her grandfather’s death, Jordan sold all her shares of Universal for $7,500. What was Jordan’s recognized gain in the year of sale?

a. $2,500 long-term capital gain.
b. $2,500 short-term capital gain.
c. $5,000 long-term capital gain.
d. $5,000 short-term capital gain.

A

Choice “a” is correct. Unless the executor elects the “alternative valuation date” method (not applicable to this question), the basis of property acquired by bequest or by inheritance is the property’s fair market value on the date of the decedent’s death. The decedent’s basis is irrelevant. Additionally, such acquired property is always considered to be “long-term” property, regardless of how long it has been held by the decedent and by the beneficiary or heir.
Calculation of gain realized and recognized:
Amount realized $7,500
Less: Basis (date-of-death fair market value) (5,000)
Long-term capital gain realized and recognized $2,500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
Davidson was transferred from Chicago to Atlanta. In connection with the transfer, Davidson incurred the following moving expenses:
Moving the household goods $2,000
Temporary living expenses in Atlanta 400
Lodging on the way to Atlanta 100
Meals 40
What amount may Davidson deduct if the employer reimbursed Davidson $2,000 (not included in form W-2) for moving expenses?
a. $100
b. $120
c. $500
d. $520
A

Choice “a” is correct. The moving expense deduction is allowable only for direct moving expenses: (i) travel and along-the-way lodging of the taxpayer and the taxpayer’s family and (ii) transportation, to the new location, of the taxpayer’s household goods and personal effects. Deductible expenses must be reduced by the amount of employer reimbursements not properly included on IRS form W-2. No longer is there a deduction for either (i) temporary living expenses at the new location or (ii) along-the-way meal expenses.
Moving the household goods $ 2,000
Lodging on the way to Atlanta 100
Less: employer reimbursement not included on IRS form W-2 (2,000)
Deduction (adjustment) for (towards) AGI $ 100
Choices “b”, “c”, and “d” are incorrect per the above rule: The $400 temporary living expenses in Atlanta and the $40 meal expense are not deductible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the deductibility of an individual’s medical expenses?

a. A medical expense paid by credit card is deductible in the year the credit card bill is paid.
b. A medical expense deduction is allowed for payments made in the current year for medical services received in earlier years.
c. Medical expenses, net of insurance reimbursements, are disregarded in the alternative minimum tax calculation.
d. A medical expense deduction is not allowed for Medicare insurance premiums.

A

Choice “b” is correct. A medical expense deduction is allowed for payments made in the current year for medical services received in earlier years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

On January 1 of the current year, Locke Corp., an accrual-basis calendar-year C corporation, had $30,000 in accumulated earnings and profits. For the current year, Locke had current earnings and profits of $20,000, and made two $40,000 cash distributions to its shareholders, one in April and one in September. What amount of the distributions is classified as dividend income to Locke’s shareholders?

a. $0
b. $20,000
c. $50,000
d. $80,000

A

Choice “c” is correct. The general rule is that distributions are taxable dividends to the extent of current earnings and profits (E&P) by year end and to the extent of accumulated E&P as of the distribution date. If both are positive and if distributions exceed the sum of current E&P and accumulated E&P, then the distributions in excess of the sum are treated as a return of capital. In this example, both current E&P and accumulated E&P are positive (the total is $50,000), and total distributions during the year are $80,000; so, $50,000 of the total distributions will be taxable dividends.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An individual taxpayer earned $10,000 in investment income, $8,000 in noninterest investment expenses, and $5,000 in investment interest expense. How much is the taxpayer allowed to deduct on the current-year’s tax return for investment interest expenses?

a. $0
b. $2,000
c. $3,000
d. $5,000

A

Choice “b” is correct. The deduction for investment interest expenses is limited to net taxable investment income which is defined as taxable investment income minus all related investment expenses (other than investment interest expense). If the investment expense is an itemized deduction, then only those expenses exceeding 2% of AGI are considered.
Taxable investment income includes: (i) interest and dividends, (ii) rents (if the activity is not a passive activity), (iii) royalties (in excess of related expenses), (iv) net short-term capital gains, and (v) net long-term capital gains if the taxpayer elects not to claim the net capital gains reduced tax rate.
Calculation:
Investment income $10,000
Less: Related investment expenses other than investment interest expenses (8,000)
Net investment income $ 2,000
The taxpayer’s deduction for investment interest expense is $2,000: the lesser of (i) $2,000 net investment income or (ii) $5,000 investment interest expense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Brenda, employed full time, makes beaded jewelry as a hobby. In year 2, Brenda’s hobby generated $2,000 of sales, and she incurred $3,000 of travel expenses. What is the proper reporting of the income and expenses related to the activity?

a. Sales of $2,000 are reported in gross income, and $2,000 of expenses is reported as an itemized deduction subject to the 2% limitation.
b. Sales of $2,000 are reported in gross income, and $3,000 of expenses is reported as an itemized deduction subject to the 2% limitation.
c. Sales and expenses are netted, and the net loss of $1,000 is reported as an itemized deduction not subject to the 2% limitation.
d. Sales and expenses are netted and deducted for AGI.

A

Choice “a” is correct. Based upon the facts presented (“Brenda makes jewelry as a hobby . . .”), this activity is not a trade or business activity but is an activity not engaged in for profit. As such, the taxpayer can only deduct as itemized deductions on Schedule A of IRS form 1040 the following: (i) expenses, such as state and local income taxes and property taxes, which would be allowed regardless of whether or not the activity were engaged in for profit and (ii) all other expenses that would be allowed if such activity were engaged in for profit. However, the amount of these “other expenses” cannot exceed gross income reduced by the expenses described in “(i),” above. Furthermore, the allowable “other expenses” are subject to the “2% of AGI” limitation.
Because Brenda had only $2,000 of gross income, the most she can deduct is $2,000 of the $3,000 travel expenses she incurred. Because the travel expenses constitute “all other expenses” (see “(ii),” above), this amount is subject to the “2% of AGI” limitation.
Note that the activity-is-engaged-in-for-profit statutory presumption does not apply. Reason: that presumption applies only if the activity shows a profit for at least three taxable years during the five consecutive taxable year period ending with the year in question (year #2 for this question). Because the facts do not state that during the five year period ending with year 2 Brenda had a profit in at least three of those five years, the presumption is not available to Brenda. If the presumption would have been available to her and if she had had a profit in at least three of the five consecutive, ending with year #2, then the sales and expenses would have been netted and deducted for AGI (and choice “d” would have been correct).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

On their joint tax return, Sam and Joann had adjusted gross income (AGI) of $150,000 and claimed the following itemized deductions:
Interest of $15,000 on a $100,000 home equity loan to purchase a motor home
Real estate tax and state income taxes of $18,000
Unreimbursed medical expenses of $15,000 (prior to AGI limitation)
Miscellaneous itemized deductions of $5,000 (prior to AGI limitation)
Based on these deductions, what would be the amount of AMT add-back adjustment in computing alternative minimum taxable income?
a. $21,750
b. $23,750
c. $35,000
d. $38,750

A

Choice “d” is correct. Per the mnemonic “PANIC TIMME,” for purposes of calculating alterative minimum taxable income, the taxpayer must add back, among other things, the following itemized deductions:
- Taxes reduced by taxable refunds,
- Home mortgage interest when the mortgage loan proceeds were not used to buy, build, or improve the taxpayer’s qualified dwelling (house, condominium, apartment, or mobile home not used on a transient basis),
- Medical expenses not exceeding 10% of AGI, and
- Miscellaneous deductions subject to the 2% of AGI floor.
The “PANIC TIMME” add-back is as follows:
Taxes . . . . . . .$18,000
Home mortgage interest not used to buy, build, or improve a qualified dwelling (the motor home is not a qualified dwelling) . . . . . . . 15,000
Medical expenses in excess of 7.5% AGI but not in excess of 10% of AGI . . . . . 3,750
Deductible miscellaneous expenses in excess of 2% of AGI . . . . . . .2,000
Total “PANIC TIMME” add-back . . . . . . . . $38,750

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Gem Corp. purchased all the assets of a sole proprietorship, including the following intangible assets:
Goodwill $50,000
Covenant not to compete 13,000
For tax purposes, what amount of these purchased intangible assets should Gem amortize over the specific statutory cost recovery periods?
a. $63,000
b. $50,000
c. $13,000
d. $0
A

Choice “a” is correct. Post-August 10, 1993, acquisitions of goodwill, covenants not-to-compete, franchises, trademarks, and trade names must be amortized on a straight-line basis over a fifteen-year period (180 months) beginning with the month of acquisition. So, both the $50,000 acquisition of the goodwill and the $13,000 acquisition of the covenant not-to-compete – for a total cost of $63,000 – are amortized over the fifteen-year period statutory cost recovery period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For year 2, Quest Corp., an accrual-basis calendar-year C corporation, had an $8,000 unexpired charitable contribution carryover from year 1. Quest’s year 2 taxable income before the deduction for charitable contributions was $200,000. On December 12, year 2, Quest’s board of directors authorized a $15,000 cash contribution to a qualified charity, which was made on January 6, year 3. What is the maximum allowable deduction that Quest may take as a charitable contribution on its year 2 income tax return?

a. $23,000
b. $20,000
c. $15,000
d. $8,000

A

Choice “b” is correct. C corporations are allowed a maximum charitable contribution deduction of 10% of taxable income computed before the following deductions:
• Any charitable contribution,
• The dividend received deduction,
• Any net operating loss carryback,
• Any net capital loss carryback, and
• The U.S. production activities deduction.
Accrued charitable contributions not paid by the end of the year are deductible in the year of accrual if (i) the board of directors authorizes the contribution during the tax year and (ii) the accrual-basis corporation pays the accrued amount by the fifteenth day of the third month (generally 2½ months) following the end of the tax year.
Any amount in excess of the “10% limitation” may be carried forward for five years.
In this question, the corporation has: (i) an $8,000 unexpired charitable contribution carryover from the previous year, (ii) -0- charitable contributions paid during the current year, and (iii) a $15,000 contribution which the board of directors authorized by the end of the year and which the corporation paid by the fifteenth day of the third month following the end of the tax year. Hence, the deduction before application of the “10% limit” is $23,000: $8,000 + 0 + $15,000. However, the taxable income before the five deductions listed above is $200,000. So, the deduction is limited to $20,000: the lesser of (i) the $23,000 amount before application of the “10% limit” or (ii) $20,000 which is 10% of the $200,000 taxable income before the five deductions listed above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Nichol Corp. gave gifts to 15 individuals who were customers of the business. The gifts were not in the nature of advertising. The market values of the gifts were as follows:
5 gifts @ $15 each
9 gifts @ $30 each
1 gift @ $100
What amount is deductible as business gifts?
a. $0
b. $75
c. $325
d. $445
A

Choice “c” is correct. Business gifts are deductible up to a maximum deduction of $25 per recipient per year.
Computation:
5 x lesser of (i) $15 value of each gift or (ii) $25 maximum per recipient per year $ 75
9 x lesser of (i) $30 value of each gift or (ii) $25 maximum per recipient per year $225
1 x lesser of (i) $100 value of the gift or (ii) $25 maximum per recipient per year $ 25
Amount deductible for business gifts $325

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the current year, Fitz, a single taxpayer, sustained a $48,000 loss on Code Sec. 1244 stock in JJJ Corp., a qualifying small business corporation, and a $20,000 loss on Code Sec. 1244 stock in MMM Corp., another qualifying small business corporation. What is the maximum amount of loss that Fitz can deduct for the current year?

a. $50,000 capital loss.
b. $68,000 capital loss.
c. $18,000 ordinary loss and $50,000 capital loss.
d. $50,000 ordinary loss and $18,000 capital loss.

A

Choice “d” is correct. The stock in each corporation is a capital asset. The general rule is that a loss on the sale or exchange of a capital asset will be a capital loss (either a short-term capital loss or a long-term capital loss – depending upon the holding period). However, a special rule applies to “section 1244 small business stock): when a corporation’s stock is sold or becomes worthless, an original stockholder can be treated as having an ordinary loss (fully deductible), instead of a capital loss, up to $50,000 ($100,000 if married filing jointly) for the year. Any loss(es) in excess of this amount is (are) a capital loss.
In this question the taxpayer, who is not married, during the year has $68,000 of losses from the sale of section 1244 small business stock. As such, the taxpayer will treat as an ordinary loss $50,000 of the total loss; the taxpayer will treat as a capital loss the remaining $18,000 of the total loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
A sole proprietorship incorporated on January 1 and elected S corporation status. The owner contributed the following assets to the S corporation:
Basis Fair market value
Machinery $7,000 $8,000
Building 11,000 100,000
Cash 1,000 1,000
Two years later, the corporation sold the machinery for $4,000 and the building for $110,000. The machinery had accumulated depreciation of $2,000, and the building had accumulated depreciation of $1,000. What is the built-in gain recognized on the sale?
a. $100,000
b. $99,000
c. $6,000
d. $0
A

Choice “d” is correct. An S corporation is subject to the “built-in gains” tax (as well as the “LIFO Recapture” tax and the “Passive Investment Income” tax) only if the S corporation had previously been a C corporation. In this question, the corporation elected “S” status on the day or incorporation; hence, the corporation was never a C corporation. So, the “built-in gains” tax doesn’t apply to the facts presented.

18
Q

Which of the following items must be separately stated on Form 1120S, U.S. Income Tax Return for an S Corporation, Schedule K-1?

a. Mark-to-market income.
b. Unearned revenue.
c. Section 1245 Gain.
d. Gain or loss from the sale of collectibles.

A

Choice “d” is correct. Gain or loss from the S corporation’s sale of collectibles is separately reported on the Schedule K-1 of IRS form 1120S.

19
Q

For which of the following entities is the owner’s basis increased by the owner’s share of profits and decreased by the owner’s share of losses but is not affected by the entity’s bank loan increases or decreases?

a. S corporation.
b. C corporation.
c. Partnership.
d. Limited liability company.

A

Choice “a” is correct. The owner’s basis in an S Corporation is increased by the owner’s share of profits and decreased by the owner’s share of losses. It is not affected by any bank loans increased or decreased by the corporation. It is only increased by direct loans made to the corporation by the owner.

20
Q

Turner, Reed, and Sumner are equal partners in TRS partnership. Turner contributed land with an adjusted basis of $20,000 and a fair market value (FMV) of $50,000. Reed contributed equipment with an adjusted basis of $40,000 and an FMV of $50,000. Sumner provided services worth $50,000. What amount of income is recognized as a result of the transfers?

a. $50,000
b. $60,000
c. $90,000
d. $150,000

A

Choice “a” is correct. Generally, no gain or loss is recognized on a contribution of property to a partnership in return for a partnership interest (note: when contributed property is subject to a liability, if the decrease in the contributing partner’s individual basis exceeds the partner’s partnership basis, the excess amount is treated like taxable boot and is a gain to that partner). So, given the facts in this question, Turner and Reed will recognize no income or gain.
On the other hand, the value of a partnership acquired for services is ordinary income to the partner rendering those services. So, Summer must recognize $50,000 of ordinary income on account of Summer’s rendering to the partnership $50,000 worth of services in exchange for a partnership interest.

21
Q

While preparing a partnership tax return, the accountant discovered that ABC Partnership distributed property to Anne, a partner, in a nonliquidating transfer. No money was distributed to Anne during the year, the property was in the partnership for over five years, and no debt was attached to the property. Anne had a basis in her partnership interest of $10,000. The partnership had an adjusted basis of $20,000 in the property distributed to Anne. Which of the following are the tax consequences to Anne?

a. $0 gain, basis in the partnership is reduced to $0, and basis in the property received is $10,000.
b. $0 gain, basis in the partnership is reduced to $0, and basis in the property received is $20,000.
c. $10,000 gain, basis in the partnership is reduced to $0, and basis in the property received is $20,000.
d. $10,000 gain, basis in the partnership is unchanged, and basis in the property received is $20,000.

A

While preparing a partnership tax return, the accountant discovered that ABC Partnership distributed property to Anne, a partner, in a nonliquidating transfer. No money was distributed to Anne during the year, the property was in the partnership for over five years, and no debt was attached to the property. Anne had a basis in her partnership interest of $10,000. The partnership had an adjusted basis of $20,000 in the property distributed to Anne. Which of the following are the tax consequences to Anne?

a. $0 gain, basis in the partnership is reduced to $0, and basis in the property received is $10,000.
b. $0 gain, basis in the partnership is reduced to $0, and basis in the property received is $20,000.
c. $10,000 gain, basis in the partnership is reduced to $0, and basis in the property received is $20,000.
d. $10,000 gain, basis in the partnership is unchanged, and basis in the property received is $20,000.

22
Q

Able and Baker are equal members in Apple, an LLC. Apple has elected not to be treated as a corporation. Able contributes $7,000 cash and Baker contributes a machine with a basis of $5,000 and a fair market value of $10,000, subject to a liability of $3,000. What is Apple’s basis for the machine?

a. $2,000
b. $5,000
c. $8,000
d. $10,000

A

Choice “b” is correct. This LLC has elected not to be treated as a corporation. Therefore, the rules for partnerships will apply. The general rule is that the partnership’s basis in the contributed property is the carryover basis of the contributor. So the $5,000 basis to Baker becomes the carryover $5,000 basis to Apple.

23
Q

The answer to each of the following questions would be irrelevant in determining whether a tuition payment made on behalf of another individual is excludible for gift tax purposes, except:

a. Was the tuition payment made for a part-time student?
b. Was the qualifying educational organization located in a foreign country?
c. Was the tuition payment made directly to the educational organization?
d. Was the tuition payment made for a family member?

A

Choice “c” is correct. This question asks the reader to identify the listed question whose answer is relevant. The answer to each of listed questions “a”, “b”, and “d” is irrelevant. Only the answer to listed question “c” is relevant. Tuition payments made directly to a qualifying foreign or domestic educational organization qualify for an unlimited exclusion from the gift tax. The payments can be for the benefit of any student (not just the donor’s family members), and the student can be enrolled either full-time or part-time (per the next to the last sentence of U.S. Treasury Regulation section 25.2503-6(b)(2)).

24
Q

Which of the following is not considered a primary authoritative source when conducting tax research?

a. Internal Revenue Code.
b. Tax Court cases.
c. IRS publications.
d. Treasury regulations.

A

Choice “c” is correct. IRS publications are not considered a primary authoritative source when one is conducting tax research
Choices “a”, “b”, and “d” are incorrect. The Internal Revenue Code, tax court cases, and Treasury regulations, respectively, are considered primary authoritative sources when one is conducting tax research; hence they are incorrect choices (the question asks which item is not considered a primary authoritative source).

25
Q

Under Treasury Circular 230, which of the following actions of a CPA tax advisor is characteristic of a best practice in rendering tax advice?

a. Requesting written evidence from a client that the fee proposal for tax advice has been approved by the board of directors.
b. Recommending to the client that the advisor’s tax advice be made orally instead of in a written memorandum.
c. Establishing relevant facts, evaluating the reasonableness of assumptions and representations, and arriving at a conclusion supported by the law and facts in a tax memorandum.
d. Requiring the client to supply a written representation, signed under penalties of perjury, concerning the facts and statements provided to the CPA for preparing a tax memorandum.

A

Choice “c” is correct. Characteristic of a best practice in rendering tax advice is establishing in a tax memorandum relevant facts, evaluating the reasonableness of assumptions and representations, and arriving at a conclusion supported by the law and facts.

26
Q

A CPA prepared a tax return for a client who will receive a refund check. The client is traveling abroad and asked the CPA to pick up the check at the client’s home address. Under Treasury Circular 230, any of the following actions, if taken by the CPA relating to the refund check, would be a violation of the rules of practice before the Internal Revenue Service, except:

a. Endorsing the check and depositing it into the client’s bank account.
b. Holding the check for safe keeping and awaiting the client’s return.
c. Holding the check until the client is billed, then endorsing and depositing the check into the CPA’s account as payment for the bill.
d. Endorsing the check and depositing it into an escrow account for the client’s benefit.

A

Choice “b” is correct. Circular 230 does not prohibit a practitioner’s holding the check for safe keeping and awaiting the client’s return.

27
Q

In which of the following circumstances does the three-year statute of limitations on additional tax assessments apply?

a. A taxpayer willfully attempts to evade tax in filing income tax returns.
b. A taxpayer inadvertently omits from gross income an amount in excess of 25% of the gross income stated on the income tax return.
c. A taxpayer inadvertently overstates deductions equal to 15% of gross income.
d. The IRS files a substitute income tax return when it learns that a taxpayer failed to file a return.

A

Choice “c” is correct. With respect to a timely filed return, the general rule is that the IRS can assess additional tax within three years from the later of the return’s due date (plus extensions, if any) or the date the return was filed. A taxpayer’s inadvertently overstating deductions in an amount equal to 15% of gross income will not trigger any of the exceptions to the general rule.

28
Q

Tax return preparers can be subject to penalties under the Internal Revenue Code for failure to do any of the following, except:

a. Sign a tax return as a preparer.
b. Disclose a conflict of interest.
c. Provide a client with a copy of the tax return.
d. Keep a record of returns prepared.

A

Choice “b” is correct. With respect to a tax return preparer’s failure to disclose a conflict of interest, the Internal Revenue Code does not set forth any penalty.

29
Q

A CPA assists a taxpayer in tax planning regarding a transaction that meets the definition of a tax shelter as defined in the Internal Revenue Code. Under the AICPA Statements on Standards for Tax Services, the CPA should inform the taxpayer of the penalty risks unless the transaction, at the minimum, meets which of the following standards for being sustained if challenged?

a. More likely than not.
b. Not frivolous.
c. Realistic possibility.
d. Substantial authority.

A

Choice “a” is correct. The CPA should inform the taxpayer of the penalty risks with respect to the tax effects (tax return position) of a transaction unless the transaction, at the minimum, meets the more-likely-than-not standard.
Reason: “Not frivolous,” “realistic possibility,” and “substantial authority” are lesser standards than the more-likely-than-not standard. So, if the transaction meets only one of these lesser standards, the CPA must inform the taxpayer of the penalty risks with respect to the tax effects (tax return position) of a transaction.

30
Q

Which Senate committee considers new tax legislation?

a. Budget.
b. Finance.
c. Appropriations.
d. Rules and Administration.

A

Choice “b” is correct. Most tax legislation begins in the House Ways and Means Committee of the U.S. House of Representatives. Tax legislation goes from the U.S. House of Representatives to the U.S. Senate Finance Committee.

31
Q

An IRS agent has just completed an examination of a corporation and issued a “no change” report. Which of the following statements about that situation is correct?

a. The taxpayer may not amend the tax return for that taxable year.
b. The IRS generally does not reopen the examination except in cases involving fraud or other similar misrepresentation.
c. The IRS may not reopen the examination.
d. The IRS may not examine any other tax return of the corporation for a period of one year.

A

Choice “b” is correct. The IRS generally does not reopen the examination except in cases involving fraud or other similar misrepresentation.

32
Q

Under the Sales Article of the UCC, which of the following requirements must be met for a writing to be an enforceable contract for the sale of goods?

a. The writing must contain a term specifying the price of the goods.
b. The writing must contain a term specifying the quantity of the goods.
c. The writing must contain the signatures of all parties to the writing.
d. The writing must contain the signature of the party seeking to enforce the writing.

A

Choice “b” is correct. Under the Sales Article, if parties’ contracts are incomplete, the Article has many gap filling provisions through which the contract may be completed. However, the courts will not enforce a contract that does not state the quantity of the goods bought and sold, either specifically or in terms of output of the seller or requirements of the buyer.

33
Q

When do title and risk of loss for conforming goods pass to the buyer under a shipment contract covered by the Sales Article of the UCC?

a. When the goods are identified and designated for shipment.
b. When the goods are given to a common carrier.
c. When the goods arrive at their destination.
d. When the goods are tendered to the buyer at their destination.

A

Choice “b” is correct. In a shipment contract, risk of loss and title pass to the buyer when the goods are placed in the hands of the carrier.

34
Q

Ashley needs to endorse a check that had been endorsed by two other individuals prior to Ashley’s receipt of the check. Ashley does not want to have surety liability, so Ashley endorses the check “without recourse.” Under the Negotiable Instruments Article of the UCC, which of the following types of endorsement did Ashley make?

a. Blank.
b. Special.
c. Qualified.
d. Restrictive.

A

Choice “c” is correct. An endorsement that includes the words “without recourse” is called a “qualified” endorsement. When an endorser signs without recourse, the endorser does not undertake the contract liability of an endorser.

35
Q

Under the Secured Transactions article of the UCC, when does a security interest become enforceable?

a. A contract is executed between a debtor and a secured party under which the debtor gives the secured party rights in collateral if the debtor violates any of the terms contained in the contract.
b. The debtor and the secured party execute a security agreement describing the transfer of the collateral and, after doing so, the secured party files it with the requisite agency.
c. The debtor and the secured party execute a security agreement describing the transfer of collateral from seller to buyer and the secured party retains possession of the agreement.
d. The value has been given, the secured party receives a security agreement describing the collateral authenticated by the debtor, and the debtor has rights in the collateral.

A

Choice “d” is correct. For a security interest to be enforceable, it must attach to the collateral. There are three prerequisites to attachment, and all three must be satisfied for an interest to attach: (i) the parties have to agree to create a security interest and this agreement must be evidenced by the creditor taking possession of the collateral or by a written security agreement describing the collateral and authenticated (e.g., signed) by the debtor, (ii) the secured party must have given value in exchange for the security interest, and (iii) the debtor must have rights in the collateral.

36
Q

Under the Secured Transactions Article of the UCC, which of the following security agreements does not need to be in writing to be enforceable?

a. A security agreement collateralizing a debt of less than $500.
b. A security agreement where the collateral is highly perishable or subject to wide price fluctuations.
c. A security agreement where the collateral is in the possession of the secured party.
d. A security agreement involving a purchase money security interest.

A

Choice “c” is correct. Attachment of a security interest requires an agreement to create the security interest evidenced by either a written security agreement describing the collateral and authenticated (e.g., signed) by the debtor or by the debtor’s taking possession of the collateral. When a debtor takes possession, no written security agreement is required.

37
Q

Under the Secured Transactions Article of the UCC, which of the following items can usually be excluded from a filed original financing statement?

a. The name of the debtor.
b. The address of the debtor.
c. A description of the collateral.
d. The amount of the obligation secured.

A

Choice “d” is correct. A security agreement need not include the amount of the obligation secured. It must include the name and address of the debtor, a description of the collateral (by type is sufficient), and the debtor’s authentication (e.g., a signature or electronic substitute). Since choices “a”, “b”, and “c” all are required, they cannot be excluded and are incorrect choices.

38
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the liability of a CPA for services performed?

a. A CPA’s work is not guaranteed to be accurate even though the CPA acted in a reasonably competent and professional manner.
b. A CPA is negligent for exercising only that degree of care a reasonably competent CPA would exercise under the circumstances.
c. A CPA’s liability for negligence extends only to the client and no further.
d. A CPA’s liability for fraud extends only to the client and no further.

A

Choice “a” is correct. A CPA does not guarantee everything to be accurate—only that the work was performed in a competent and professional manner.

39
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding disclosure of client working papers prepared by a CPA?

a. Working papers may not be transferred to another accountant without the client’s permission.
b. Working papers may not be turned over to a CPA quality review team without the client’s permission.
c. Working papers may not be disclosed under a federal court subpoena without the client’s permission.
d. Working papers may not be disclosed to any third parties without the client’s permission.

A

Choice “a” is correct. As a general rule, although a CPA owns his or her working papers, because of confidentiality issues, they cannot be turned over to another accountant without the client’s permission.

40
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding a limited liability company’s operating agreement?

a. It must be filed with a central state agency.
b. It must be in writing.
c. It is designed to forestall and resolve disputes among the owners.
d. It is necessary for a limited liability company to exist.

A

Choice “c” is correct. An operating agreement is an optional agreement among members of a limited liability company (LLC) setting out the details of how the LLC will be run.