2012-2018 and Subject Reviews All together - In CSV form - Sheet1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is type 1 error?

A

Rejecting the null when you shouldn’t have

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2
Q

In a patient with DiGeorge, what is the most common cardiac anomaly?

A

ToF

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3
Q

Fasting levels of what causes NTD? When might you see it?

A

Homocysteine, With Folic Acid antagonists blocking folate acid synthesis and back up results in increased homocysteine.

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4
Q

Best test to compare continuous variable in patients before and after treatment with experimental med .

A

paired t-test (best for one group before and after an intervention).

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5
Q

Which uterine anomaly has the highest risk of PTL?

A
#1. Didelphys 
 #2. Bicornuate 
 #3. Septate
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6
Q

What is the most common maternal complication of malaria?

A

Anemia

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7
Q

A mother has diabetes, which is the least likely complication to the fetus?

a) Hypoglycemia
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hypothermia
d) Polycythemia

A

Hypothermia does not

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8
Q

Mitral stenosis worsens with?

A

Increased Preload

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9
Q

What is the best contraception option for a women with DVT in pregnancy?

A

Levonorgesterol IUD

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10
Q

Minipres mode of action?

A

Alpha blocker

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11
Q

Which screening is recommended for Ashkenazi Jewish population?

A

Familial Dysautonomia
Cystic Fibrosis
Canavan: Aspartocyclase
Tay Sachs: Hexosaminidase A

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12
Q

Where is PGF2apha produced mainly?

A

Decidua

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13
Q

Most drugs cross the placenta by what method?

A

Simple diffusion

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14
Q

HLA is not expressed on which?

Syncytiotrophoblast or cytotrophoblast

A

The Syncytiotrophoblast -has NO Antigens

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15
Q

What is the most common complication of malarial infection?

A

Anemia

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16
Q

Least likely to be transmitted in banked breast milk?

A

CMV

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17
Q

Multiple intraabdominal echogenecities are least associated with which condition?

  1. CF
  2. Aneuploidy
  3. Toro
  4. Parvo
  5. Meconium peritonitis
A

Parvo

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18
Q

Where does fetus make blood throughout pregnancy?

A

Yolk sac: 3-8 weeks
Liver: 6 weeks -> birth
Spleen: 8 weeks -> 28 weeks
Bone marrow: 18 weeks -> adult

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19
Q

OCP’s have the least beneficial effect in preventing which cancer?

A

Breast Cancer

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20
Q

What is the most common associated anomaly with single umbilical artery?

A

Cardiac defects

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21
Q

Which is most associated with fetal risk?

Thyroid stimulating antibodies, TSH?

A

TSI’s

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22
Q

Which situation is most likely to result in a fetus having T21?

  1. mom 45XX rob(14;21)
  2. dad 45XX rob(14:21)
A

Mom 10-15%

Dad: <5%

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23
Q

What is the worst complication of halothane?

A

Hepatotoxicity

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24
Q

Which Coagulation factors decrease with pregnancy?

A

Factor XIII, XI, Protein S and Platelets

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25
Q

Most common cause of mortality in setting of epidural placed for C-S?

A

Local toxicity

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26
Q

Which of the following have associations with advanced paternal age?

A

Marfan, Achondroplasia, Neurofibromatosis (MAN)

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27
Q

What happens to beta cells in pregnancy?

A

Beta cell islet hypertrophy

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28
Q

Which Swan values are calculated?

A

MAP, SV, SVR, PVR, LVSW

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29
Q

Low MCV, HbA2 3.9% Normal Iron Studies, Dx?

A

Beta Thalassemia

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30
Q

What is the mechanism for a β-agonist?

A

Stim. B2 receptor (G membrane protein) -> activates adenylate
cyclase ↑ intracellular cAMP + activates PKA -> inhibits myosin light chain
phosphorylation -> ↓ intracellular calcium

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31
Q

Which chromosome is oxytocin receptor on?

A

3

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32
Q

Early amniocentesis at 14 weeks is associated with?

A

It is associated with: fetal loss, club foot, failed procedure, PROM

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33
Q

What is the primary location of fetal hematopoesis at 20 weeks GA?

A

Yolk sac: 3-8 weeks
Liver: 6 weeks -> birth
Spleen: 8 weeks -> 28 weeks
Bone marrow: 18 weeks -> adult

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34
Q

In patients with Aortic Stenosis, what changes after epidural can be problematic? How do you avoid this?

A

Decreased SVR -> Decreased Coronary Artery Perfusion –> MI. Avoid via slow epidural, narcotics only

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35
Q

What is used to measure inter-observer variability?

A

Kappa Score

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36
Q

What infection is most likely to be transmitted with breast feeding?

a. Hep B
b. Hep C
c. CMV
d. Herpes

A

CMV

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37
Q

Lasix mode of action?

A

Loop diuretic

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38
Q

What enzym is deficient in Gaucher?

A

Glucocerebrosidase

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39
Q

How does IgG cross the placenta?

A

Pinocytosis / endocytosis

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40
Q

What is the Barker hypothesis on fetal programming saying for IUGR fetuses?

A

They will develop Type 2 Diabetes later in life or metabolic syndrome

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41
Q

What are the MOST likely symptoms of multiple sclerosis during pregnancy ?

A

Variable Course, usually improves

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42
Q

Carrier frequency of AR gene if prevalence is 1/6400?

A

~1/40 q^2 = 1 6400, q = 1/80 p = 79/80, (carrier rate = 2PQ = 2* 79/80 * 1/80)

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43
Q

Injury to what nerve causes numbness to medial thigh and labia?

A

Ilioinguinal

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44
Q

Which coagulation factor is decreased in pregnancy?

A

Protein S, Factor XI, Factor XIII, Platelets

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45
Q

Newborn with nose hypoplasia, stippled epiphyses, and limb hypoplasia, dx?

A

Warfarin embryopathy

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46
Q

Most common complication of IUD in pregnancy?

A

Abortion

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47
Q

How do you treat MAI if CD4 is 50?

A

Azithromycin

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48
Q

Most likely to be helpful for treatment of mitral stenosis intrapartum?

A

Propranolol (Beta blocker)

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49
Q

On QUAD screen if estriol is low (0.1MoM), what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Icthyoses (placental sulfatase deficiency), less likely Smith-Lemli Opitz (deficiency in 7 dehydrocholesterol reductase)

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50
Q

Patient with SLE that has normal fetal anatomy but fetal heart rate noted in 60s. What is the likely cause?

A

Congenital heart block - from SSA and SSB antibodies

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51
Q
Pregnancy after endometrial ablation is associated with what outcome most frequently?
 S Ab
 PTD
 Malpresentation
 Placenta Accreta
A

Malpresentation (39%)
Morbidly adherent placenta (26%)
PTD (20%)
Sab (12%)

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52
Q

What is the most likely obstetrical complication related to obesity?

A

Increased Cesarean Delivery

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53
Q

What is Combivir?

A

Zidovudine (AZT) + Lamivudine

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54
Q

What cardiac lesions should be deliverd by cesarean?

A
Dilated Aortic Root >40mm
 Aortic Aneurysm
 Recent MI
 Acute Severe CHF
 Severe Symptomatic AS
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55
Q

How do you make the diagnosis of Von Willibrands?

A

Ristocetin test

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56
Q

Which crossed placenta most readily?

T3, T4, TSH, TRH, TSI?

A

TSI is the most, followed by TRH and Iodine.

There is some T3 and T4 crossing and TSH Tcannot cross the placenta

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57
Q

Which anesthetic is the MOST cardiotoxic?

A

Bupivicaine

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58
Q

What is LEAST appropriate for testing for PKU?

A

Amnio for enzyme activity

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59
Q
What is least advised in pregnancy if mom has known PKU?
 amnio for enzyme
 paternal PKU testing 
 dietary restrictions
 fetal echo
A

Amnio for enzyme, it is only found in the liver so amniocentesis to look for enzyme isnt helpful, would need to do molecular testing to identify recessive genes.

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60
Q

How is Fragile X inherited?

A

X linked dominant

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61
Q

<p>Most common non cardiac cause of maternal mortality</p>

A

<p>Infection</p>

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62
Q

Which is not true with preeclampsia at induction of anesthesia?
decreased vasoresponsiveness to pressors
decreased plasma volume
increased coagulopathy

A

decreased vasoresponsiveness to pressors

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63
Q

Which anesthetic has a risk of CAUSING withdrawal? Why?

A

Stadol (Butorphanol), it’s a mixed mu-agonist antagonist

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64
Q

Which is best test if using multiple variables to assess surival?

A

cox regression

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65
Q

What does PCWP approximate/indicate?

A

LV preload / filling

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66
Q

Most likely cause of a nonreative tracing in a term fetus

A

Sleep cycle

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67
Q

Which of the thyroid related substances crosses the placenta most rapidly?

A

Thyroid stimulating antibodies/immunoglobulins

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68
Q

Which seizure medication is most affected by maternal liver failure?

A

Dilantin (Phenytoin)

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69
Q

Which ultrasound parameter predicts placenta accreta most accurately?

A

Lacunae

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70
Q

Aldomet Mode of action?

A

Central alpha blocker

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71
Q

Which infection is a transplant patient least susceptible to compared with non-transplant patients?
E. coli, CMV, Chlamydia?

A

Chlamydia

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72
Q

Which statistic test is used to differentiate between dependent and independent variables?

A

Logistic Regression

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73
Q

At 30 seconds of resuscitation of a neonate, the HR is still low, Next step?

A

PPV

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74
Q

What is the most likely outcome with AS?

a. Arrhythmia
b. Stroke
c. MI
d. Heart failure
e. Maternal death

A
Heart Failure (7-17%)
 Arrhythmia (3-33%)
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75
Q

Choroid plexus cysts are most commonly associated with which aneuploidy?

  1. T21
  2. T13
  3. T18
A

T18

30-50% of T18 have CPC

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76
Q

What are the two AF molecules elevated with aplasia cutis?

A

AFP and Acetylcholinesterase

- elevated with all open wall defects

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77
Q

At which phase do type 2 pneumocytes appear?

A

Cannalicular

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78
Q

Aneuploidy with duodenum abnormality?

A

T21 in 30%

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79
Q

What drug is commonly associated with microotia?

A

Isoretinoin

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80
Q

Which IL is antiinflammatory?

A

IL10

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81
Q

Levels of which drug are least effected by liver metabolism?

Lovenox, Warfarin, Dylantin?

A

Lovenox

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82
Q

How do you treat a patient with Pulmonary hypertension, and you want to give general anesthesia.

A

Viagra

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83
Q

Which HIV medication should be avoided in first trimester?

A

Efavirenz (NNRTI)

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84
Q

Best medication for anticoagulation in pregnancy?

A

Lovenox

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85
Q

Which translocation most likley to result in fetus with T21?

A

21:21 Homologous 21 translocation

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86
Q

Which fetal vessel has the lowest PO2?

A

Umbilical Artery

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87
Q

Which thombophilia is the most common?

A

Factor V leiden

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88
Q

What are the criteria for pre-eclpamsia with severe features?

A
  1. BP: >160 systolic or >110 diastolic x 2, atleast 4 hours apart
  2. Plt <100,000
  3. ↑ LFTs + severe RUQ/epigastric pain 4. Cr > 1.1 or doubled 5. Pulmonary edema 6. New-onset headache not responsive to meds 7. Visual distubances
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89
Q

Which inheritance pattern is most associated with variable penetrance?

A

Autosomal Dominant

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90
Q

What is not associated with placental thickening?

a) Syphilis
b) Rh Issoimmunization
c) Non-immune hydrops
d) Listeriosis

A

Listeriosis

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91
Q

Who should receive prophylaxis for endocarditis?

A

Previous infective endocarditis
Unrepaired Cyanotic defect
Defects repaired with prosthetic material (first 6 months)
Defects reapired with prosthetic material with residual defect at repair site
Infection and a prosthetic valve

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92
Q

Doppler studies reflect what parameter?

A

Velocity

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93
Q

What is the risk of NAIT in a subsequent pregnancy?

A

If father’s antigen zygosity determines he is homozygous: 100% risk
Heterozygous: 50% risk

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94
Q

What is the most likely cause of pain from a Wet tap?

A

Traction of nerves from CSF leak

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95
Q
All of the following diseases are associated with DNA repeats except:
 Fragile X
 Huntington's 
 CF
 Myotonic Dystrophy
A
Cystic Fibrosis 
 Repeats:
 FraGile X (CGG)
 Huntingtons (CAG)
 MyoTonic Dystrophy (CTG)
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96
Q

CVS cannot diagnose which conditions?

A

NTD

Fragile X

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97
Q

Woman with MCV of 62, normal ferritin, HgbA2 4.2%. Most likely cause:

A

Beta Thalassemia

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98
Q
  1. Which anomaly is LEAST associated with very ill neonate after birth
    a. Interrupted aortic arch
    b. AV canal
    c. Other CHD
A

AVSD

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99
Q

Triple screen shows a normal AFP, normal HCG and a low E3. What condition is this associated with?

A

X-linked icthyoses and SLOS

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100
Q

Fetus with thyrotoxicosis/hyperthyroidism will have the following issues:

A

Issues with fetal hyperthyroid are - Heart rate greater than 160, growth retardation, advanced bone age, craniosyostosis
Occasionally Hydrops

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101
Q

pCO269, HCO3 20, BE -2

A

Mixed

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102
Q

What is the heart ultrasound finding most commonly associated with DiGeorge?

A

Interrupted Aortic Arch

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103
Q

The most accurate description of Standard error is?

A

The same as standard deviation

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104
Q

GnRH is made in which tissue?

A

Cytotrophoblast and Decidua

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105
Q

Betamethasone decreasese what in fetuses?

A

Fetal Breathing and movement

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106
Q

Most likley diagnosis with fetal unilateral pleural effusion?

A

Hydrothorax

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107
Q

Which of the following is not a uterotonin?

a) Endothelin-1
b) Prostaglandins
c) Oxytocin
d) Calcium

A

Calcium , its needed for contractions, but isnt a factor that causes them like Endothelin, PG and Oxytocin

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108
Q

Mechanism of anemia in parvovirus?

hemolytic effect, viral effect on erythroid precursors?

A

Effect on erythroid precursors

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109
Q

Gaucher’s disease is a disorder of:

A

Glucocerebrosidase

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110
Q

What is the most common trisomy in first trimester abortuses?

A

Trisomy 16

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111
Q

What maternal cardiac disease is associated with a poor prognosis?

A

VSD with R-> L shunt (Eisenmenger)

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112
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of general anesthesia?

A

Nausea and vomiting

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113
Q

What is the mutation in Osteogenesis Imperfecta? Inheritance?

A

COL1A1 and COL1A2 (autosomeal dominant)

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114
Q

What is most likely diagnosis of ambiguous genitalia?

A

CAH

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115
Q

If a prior infant born with severe thrombocytopenia, what is the first step for testing in current pregnancy?

A

Maternal platelet antibody testing
If mom +: do maternal/paternal platelet antigen testing
If mom and dad are different for significant alleles and dad is homozygous then 100% risk of recurrence, if dad is heterozygous then 50% risk of recurrence

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116
Q

What type of inheritence is associated wuth Leber’s optic atrophy?

A

Mitochondrial

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117
Q

Which of the following syndromes is caused by uniparental disomy?

A

Angelman
Beckwith
Prader- Willi

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118
Q

Maternal death is most associated with?

A

Cardiac Disease

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119
Q

How long should you use Iodide for?

A

No more than 2 weeks as it increases the risk of fetal goiter (due to lack of release of the stored thyroid hormone)

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120
Q

What defines Stage 3 TTTS?

A
Doppler abormalities (AEDF, REDF) 
 Stage 1: Poly/oli
 Stage 2: Absent bladder
 Stage 3: Doppler AEDF or REDF
 Stage 4: Hydrops
 Stage 5: Death
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121
Q

What is the mechanism of fetal anemia caused by parvovirus?

A

Cytotoxic to erythrocyte precursors

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122
Q
Which PG is not associated with labor?
 PGE 1
 PGE 2 
 PGE 3 
 prostacyclin 
 thromboxane
A

Prostacyclin

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123
Q

Why is there increased placental transport of Meperidine (aka Demerol) in the acidotic fetus?

A

Ion Trapping because demerol is a basic drug (Decreased Isoelectric point)

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124
Q

What mechanism does cAMP work in B-mimmetic?

A

↑ intracellular cAMP-> activates PKA -> Phosphorylates myosin light chain
Kinase (Which inactivates it) -> ↓ intracellular calcium and Muscle Relaxation

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125
Q

What is associated with pancytopneia and absent radius?

A

Fanconi’s anemia

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126
Q

What enzyme deficiency is seen with hydantoin syndrome?

A

Epoxide hydralase

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127
Q

What is the most likely cause of low estriol levels?

A

Placental sulfatase deficiency (XLI) or SLOS

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128
Q

What is the most common fetal anaomaly in obese patients?

A

Neural tube defects / Spina Bifida

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129
Q

What is an obligate precursor for NO?

A

L-arginine

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130
Q

What is an early sign of TTTS?

A

NT and CRL discordance

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131
Q

Low MCV, HbA2 2.2% Low Iron Studies, Dx?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

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132
Q

What is the most common reason for birth defects?

A

Genetic

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133
Q

What syndrome has coarctation of the aorta?

A

Turners

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134
Q

Which is the stats term used for inter-observer agreement?

A

kappa (intra observer variability / agreement)

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135
Q

What is the most common presentation of neonatal lupus?

A

Rash and second thrombocytopenia

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136
Q

Chorioangioma – most likely complication?

A

Polyhydramnios in 60% vs FGR in 20%

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137
Q

What physical finding on a baby is associated with a term birth?

A

Scrotal Rugae

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138
Q

Which ashkenazi disease is treatable with enzyme replacement?

A

Gauchers

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139
Q

What crosses the placenta via Simple Diffusion?

A

COKED - CO2, O2, Ketones, Electrolytes, Drugs (most)

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140
Q

What does Barker theory of fetal programming say about IUGR fetus at most risk of?

A
  1. Metabolic syndrome
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141
Q

Very Low Estriol levels are most commonly associated with what?

A

Placental Sulfatase Deficiency, X linked icthyoses, SLOS

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142
Q

What mutation happens in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Deletion of Exons (X-L-Recessive)

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143
Q

Diazoxide mode of action?

A

Thiazide analog (non-diuretic, vasodilator)

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144
Q

What is the most common cause of a low apgar score in a preterm infant?

a) Prematurity
b) Acidosis
c) Sepsis
d) Chromosome abnormality

A

Prematurity

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145
Q

What does CVP approximate/indicate?

A

RV Preload / filling

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146
Q

Atenolol mode of action?

A

Beta blocker

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147
Q

A normal woman has a homozygoous 21/21 translocation. What percent of her offspring will have Down syndrome?

A

100%

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148
Q

Which disease is AD and is associated with telengiectasia, ataxia, thrombocytopenia?

A

Osler Weber Rendu

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149
Q

Which of the following is LEAST associated with an enlarged placenta:

a) listeria
b) Parvo
c) NIH
d) syphilis
e) toxo

A

Toxoplasmosis, syphilis, and parvo can all cause non-immune hydrops, which has placentamegaly as a feature.

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150
Q

Which headache gets worse with sitting standing and better with laying flat?

A

Spinal Headache

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151
Q

Fetal thyrotoxicosis with heart failure in a mom with s/p thyroid ablation, whats the likely diagnosis and treatment?

A

Maternal Graves (TSI antibodies still present despite ablation), PTU

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152
Q

Prophlyaxis for mycobacterium avium with CD4 count 45 is?

A

Azithromycin when CD4 < 50

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153
Q

Least likely symptom with H1N1?

Nausea/Vomitting, Cough, Fever, Sore Throat?

A

Nausea/Vomitting

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154
Q

Which is the most sensitive test to determine whether the fetus is infected with toxo

a) amnio for toxo PCR
b) PUBS for fetal IgM
c) PUBS for fetal IgG

A

Amnio for toxo PCR (immature fetal immune system so less likely to make Antibodies and IgG may be moms)

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155
Q

What US findings are associated with Meckel Gruber?

A

Multicystic dysplastic Kidney, Encephalocele, Postaxial Polydactyly

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156
Q

Patient has an MCV of 69 and Hgb A2 of 4% on electropheresis, what is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A

Beta thalassemia

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157
Q

What is the most common genetic cause of mental retardation?

A

Fragile X

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158
Q

What is the reason for maternal hypoxia at time of induction of general anesthesia?

A

Decreased Functional Residual Capacity

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159
Q

Microtia associated with other drugs then isotretinoin?

A

Thalidomide, Mycophenolate

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160
Q

Greatest risk with lupus nephritis?

A

Preeclampsia

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161
Q

What is least associated with cerebral palsy?

  1. ph<7 BE>-12
  2. early onset encephalopathy
  3. neonatal seizures
  4. Apgar score of <3 at 5 minutes
  5. Multi system organ failure
  6. Spastic quadriplegia
A

Multicsystem organ failure

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162
Q

How do you diagnose NAIT?

A

In a baby with unexplained ICH or thrombocytopenia
1. test mom for platelet antibodie
2. if positive, test maternal and paternal antigens
NAIT = If Mom is antibody positive and dad is homozygous positive for that antigen
or if dad is heterozygous (test the fetus)

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163
Q

What happens to gluconeogenesis with persistent fasting in pregnancy?

A

Gluconeogenesis is not increased, as would be expected.

Prolonged fasting in pregnancy is accompanied by exaggerated hypoglycemia, hypoinsulinism, and hyperketonemia.

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164
Q
What condition results from pituitary deficiency?
 acromegaly
 diabetes insipidus 
 addisons 
 cushings
A

Diabetes Insipidus (Decreased ADH from Posterior pituitary)

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165
Q

Most common outcome if NT is increased?

A

Normal

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166
Q

Neonate with limb and muscle hypoplasia, derm and

eye finding, Diagnosis?

A

Congenital Varicella

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167
Q

Which Aneuploidy is most common with CDH?

A

T18

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168
Q

Discrepancy in which is best for TTTS diagnosis?

A

Amniotic Fluic (Poly/Oli)

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169
Q

Which medication increases cardiac contractility?

A

Beta agonist

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170
Q

Which is helpful for treatment of HIE?

A

Cooling

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171
Q

Which fetal organ system is subject to malformations the longest?

A

Nervous system

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172
Q

In a retrospective study, do you use Odds ratio or relative risk?

A

Odds Ratio

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173
Q

Weight of the uterus at term? Non pregnant?

A

The uterus weighs 1100-1200 g at term. Non-pregnancy <100g.

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174
Q

Best outcome following in utero repair of myelomeningocele is seen with?

A

Lower limb muscle strength

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175
Q

Management of Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy?

A

Delivery despite gestational age

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176
Q

Treatment of NAIT should be? At what gestational age?

A

IVIG, starting at 12 weeks

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177
Q

Which is least likely with listeria?

preterm labor, chorioamnionitis, hydrops?

A

Hydrops (one of the less common etiologies of hydrops)

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178
Q

What is FGR at 20 weeks most associated with?

A

Triploidy, If >26 weeks probably Trisomy 18

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179
Q

Which Coagulation factors increase in pregnancy?

A

Fibrinogen, Factor VII, Factor X, vwF:Roc

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180
Q

At term which fetal organs get the most blood flow?

A
#1 Placenta
 #2 Brain
 #3 Lungs
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181
Q

Which maternal cardiac lesion most associated with fetal hypoxia?

A

Pulmonary Hypertension

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182
Q

Surfactant treatment of a 28 week newborn will help decrease what the most?

A

Neonatal Mortality

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183
Q

What is the first line medication when there is uterine inversion?

A

Terbutaline , second line Nitroglycerine

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184
Q

What are the features of Warfarin Embryopathy?

A
SLIMNECk
 Stippled Epiphysis
 Limb Defects
 IUGR
 MR
 Nasal Hypoplasia
 Eye Defects
 CNS
 k - Vit K Antagonist Warfarin
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185
Q

What does a class 1 MHC get attacked by?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

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186
Q

What is more convincing situation to intubate, hypoxemia or hypercapnea?

A

Hypercapnea

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187
Q

These drugs should not be used in patients with myasthenia gravis except:

a) Curare
b) Magnesium
c) Gentamicin
d) Mestinon

A

Mestinon (used to treat Myasthenia gravis)

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188
Q

Which IL is a regular component of amniotic fluid?

A

IL8

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189
Q

Which disease is most transmittable in breastfeeding?

A

CMV

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190
Q

What is NOT seen with hyperparathyroidism or an increase in maternal calcium?

a. Hypercalcemia
b. Htn
c. Fetal intracranial calcification
d. Neonatal hypocalcemia

A

Fetal intracranial calcification

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191
Q

Pfannestial incision opening rectus muscles, what vessels are most likely injured?

A

Epigastric vessels

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192
Q

Which anesthetic has the shortest halflife?

A

Chloroprocaine

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193
Q

Which patient with thrombophilia can you give OCPs to post partum?

  1. Prothrombin mutation
  2. APLS
  3. MTHFR homozygous
  4. Protein C/S deficiency
  5. Factor V Leiden
A

MTHFR

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194
Q

Which artery can be injured when separating the rectus muscles during a c-section?

A

Inferior epigastric

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195
Q

Which is the MOST diagnostic of primary adrenal insufficiency in pregnancy?

A

They develop hypotension from HYPONATREMIC volume contraction

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196
Q

What influences the volume of AF the least in pregnancy?

a. Swallowing
b. Urine production
c. Maternal weight
d. Dehydration
e. Transudation

A

Maternal weight

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197
Q

Which anesthetic has the fastest onset of action?

A

Lidocaine

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198
Q

Most severe manifestation In listeria is?

A

The main manifestation of Listeria is stillbirth.

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199
Q

What is pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) reflects?

A

Left Ventricular Preload

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200
Q

NTD is associated with what intercranial findings?

A

Banana sign
Lemon sign
Ventriculomegaly
Small cisterna magna

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201
Q

Which of the following are findings in BV?

A

pH>4.5
+Whiff test
Thin homogeneous discharge
>20% clue cells

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202
Q

Which parameters are directly measured by Swan?

A
HR
 CVP
 Pulmonary artery systolic and diastolic pressure
 PCWP
 Cardiac output
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203
Q

What aneuploidy is seen with holoprosencephaly and midline facial defects?

A

Trisomy 13

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204
Q

Which of the following is the action of platelet activating factor on myometrial cells?

A

Increases intracellular Calcium

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205
Q

IUGR is most associated with what later in life?

A

metabolic syndrome / dm2

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206
Q

What is the most appropriate to give a patient for long-term anticoagulation and breast-feeding?

a) LMWH
b) Full dose heparin
c) Coumadin
d) Mini-heparin
e) ASA

A

Coumadin is the most appropriate medication for long-term anticoagulation and is compatible with breastfeeding.

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207
Q

Patient presents postpartum with fever, renal failure, anemia. Dx? Tx?

A

TTP, Plasmapheresis

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208
Q

Why does creatinine decrease in pregnancy?

A

Increased renal perfusion and renal plasma flow (GFR)

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209
Q

Pattern of glucose levels by time of day in pregnancy?

A

Decreased fasting levels, Increased postprandials

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210
Q

Precursor for Fetal Steroid Synthesis?

A

Maternal LDL

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211
Q

What is the most common finding with Trisomy 21 on sono at 18-20 weeks?

A

Nuchal Fold

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212
Q

Which is most likely associated with significant neonatal respiratory depression from narcotic analgesia given to a mom in labor

a. Bradycardia
b. Variable decels
c. Reduced variability
d. Early decels

A

Decreased variability

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213
Q

What is the most common non-infectious, non-genetic cause of MR?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

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214
Q

Which lab measuring cardiac ischemia/function can be increased after vaginal delivery?

A

CKMB - found not only in myocardium but also in uterus and placenta.

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215
Q

Which statistical test will account for survival accounting for multiple variables?

A

Cox Regression

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216
Q

What is a unilateral pleural effusion in a fetus is most likely due?

A

Hydrothorax

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217
Q

Which ethical principle explains a Dr/Patient relationship?

A

Beneficence

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218
Q

What karyotype is suggestive of uniparental disomy?

A

From any trisomy as a trisomic rescue
( i.e you have trisomy 13 on CVS, the fetus tries to save itself by losing chromosome 13 but loses the wrong one and gets a uniparental disomy)

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219
Q

Evaluate the effect of Smoking on Lung Cancer, what type of study?

A

Case Control

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220
Q

Facial nerve palsy is a complication of which Operative delivery method?

A

Forceps

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221
Q

Which adrenergic receptors are present on the myometrium?

A
  1. α1: ↑ Phospholipase C -> ↑Protein Kinase C & Calsium 2. β2: ↑ Adenylyl Cyclase -> ↑ CAMP –> ↑ Protein Kinase A
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222
Q

Risk of NTD with valproic acid?

A

1-2%

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223
Q

When a CVS result is mosaic, what is the most likely outcome?

A

Confined placental mosaicism

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224
Q

After cardiac arrest, when should delivery ideally occur ?

A

Within 5 minutes (If spontaneous circulation does not occur within 4 mins of effective CPR)

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225
Q

A couple wants to know the likelihood of their baby being affected with PKU. The father has PKU (disorder frequency 1/10,000). What is the likelihood the mother is a carrier?

A

.1/50

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226
Q

Most common location of brain bleed in premature infant?

A

Germinal Matrix

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227
Q

What are the main features of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?

A
Mental retardation
 Cardiac Septal Defects
 Growth Restriction
 Smooth Filtrum
 Small upper lip
 Small Palpebral fissures
 Kidney Abnormalities
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228
Q

What does wedge pressure measure?

A

LV filling pressure

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229
Q

Most common obstetric fistula?

A

rectovaginal fistula

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230
Q

Karyotype shows 45XX t(14;21). What is the phenotype?

A

Normal

Balanced translocation

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231
Q

How can you distinguish preeclampsia from lupus flare?

A

Increased Urine Sediment, Decreased CH50 activity, Anti DsDNA

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232
Q

What is another name for Bupivicaine?

A

Marcaine

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233
Q

Swan readings for PE?

A

Increase: Pulmonary artery pressure

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234
Q

Pregnant patient with ab pain and bloody stool?

A

Stool culture

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235
Q

What is the best study design to look at a disease and link to a risk factor? Example: smoking and cancer

A

Case control:

Compares a group with disease to a group without and looks back at risk factor

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236
Q

What is associated with fetal abdominal calcifications?

A

CMV

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237
Q

How do you differentiate betweem TTTS and TAPS?

A

MCA Dopplers (MCA PSV >1.5MoM in one twin and <0.8 MoM in the other twin )

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238
Q

Which TB treatment is teratogenic? What does it do?

A

Streptomycin is contraindicated - as it is associated with hearing loss

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239
Q

Which Respiratory functions don’t change in pregnancy?

A
  1. Vital Capacity
  2. Respiratory Rate
  3. FEV1
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240
Q

What confers the worst neonatal prognosis in CMV?

A

Microcephaly

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241
Q

What to do to compare 2 groups, nl distribution and nominal outcome (ie histology)

a. Chi sq table
b. Anova
c. Ttest
d. others

A

Chi squared?

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242
Q

Which bacterial enzyme is most associated with preterm birth?

A

Phospholipase a2

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243
Q

Which condition is most likely associated with aneuploidy?

  1. Cardiac
  2. Omphalocele
A

Omphalocele

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244
Q

Baby delivered and tried to resuscitate, Post ductal O2: 70%, Preductal 90%, likely diagnosis?

A

Persistent fetal circulation

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245
Q

Patient with elevated HbA1c (10%), what is the most likely finding on ultrasound?

A

Normal

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246
Q

NTDs are usually:

a) Due to single gene defects
b) Caused by teratogens
c) Multifactorial
d) Aneuploidy

A

Multifactorial

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247
Q

Preload and afterload fixed, what increases CO?

A

beta adrenergic (dobutamine)

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248
Q

What is the most predictive of transmission of HIV to baby?

A

Viral load/HIV RNA

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249
Q

What does a ROC curve represent?

A

Compares sensitivity and specificity
y = sensitivity
x = 1-specificity

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250
Q

What is the ethical principal which states a physician must refrain from providing ineffective treatments or acting with malice toward patients

A

Non-maleficence

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251
Q

What is the positive predictive value of an NST for cerebral palsy?

A

<1%

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252
Q

Algorithm for managing SVT?

A
#1) Vagal maneuvers (holding breath, valsalva)
 #2) Carotid Massage
 #3) Adenosine
 #4) Verapamil
 #5) Beta blocker
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253
Q

Which medication is contraindicated in women with chronic hepatitis for HIV treatment?

A

Nevirapine, less so Lopinavir/Ritonavir (Kaletra)

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254
Q

Which error is failing to reject the null hypothesis when its false?

A

Type 2 Error (failed “2” reject the null)

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255
Q

What Ultrasound finding is agenesis of the corpus callosum most associated with?

A

Absent CSP

Also colpocephaly

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256
Q

What is the best way to monitor improvement in metabolic acidosis in DKA?

A

Anion gap

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257
Q

Most common complication with general anesthesia?

A

Failed Intubation

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258
Q

Why does T4 demand increase in pregnancy?

A

Increased TBG, to maintain adequate free T3 T4 there is increased production

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259
Q

Which is true regarding oxygen dissociation curve?

A

A fetus has higher O2 saturation at any PO2 than mom

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260
Q

Which maternal cardiac lesion is associated with the greatest fetal oxygenation risk?

A

Pulmonary Hypertension

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261
Q

Patient meets clinical criteria for antiphospholipid syndrome. Recommended testing?

A

Lupus Anticoagulant (Kaolin, Dilute russelll venom viper test, B2 Glycoprotein, Anti Cardiolipin Antibody

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262
Q

What is the principal substrate for oxidative metabolism in the placenta?

A

Glucose

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263
Q

Patient can’t dorsiflex after forceps delivery, which nerve injured

A

Common Peroneal

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264
Q

Genetic screen test shows a normal AFP, normal hCG, and a low E3. What condition is this associated with?

A

X-linked Ichthyosis (placental sulfatase deficience) or SLOS (DHCR7 deficiency)

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265
Q

Most likely genetic cause of early IUGR?

A

<26 weeks think Triploidy

> 26 weeks think T18

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266
Q

Newborn with Thrombocytopenia and Interventricular Hemorrhage, likely Diagnosis?

A

Alloimmune thrombocytopenia

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267
Q

Which maternal cardiac lesion most likely transmitted to fetus?

A

IHSS (autosomal dominant)

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268
Q

Patient with 8 week IUP has IUD in place, develops fever, chills, abdominal pain. What should you do next?

A
  1. Remove IUD, then evaluate for other causes of abdominal pain / fever and check for signs of septic abortion.
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269
Q

Which fetal anomaly has highest risk of malignancy?

A

CCAM (Pleuropulmonary blastoma and bronchoalveolar carcinoma )

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270
Q

What is the most common Adverse effect of AZT?

A

Anemia (next is neutropenia)

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271
Q

Baby with transposition, cleft lip and facial abnormality. Diagnosis?

A

DiGeorge

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272
Q

What represents a thyroid profile of first trimester?

A

TSH decreases slightly

FT4 remains same

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273
Q

Which nerve injury causes decreased mons sensation?

A

iliohypogastric

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274
Q

What does maternal blood come into direct contact with in the intervillous space of placenta?

A

Syncytiotrophoblasts

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275
Q

Which tests are positive if you are chronically infected with Hep B?

A

Surface antigen and core antibody (anti-HBc)

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276
Q

What is a prolonged aPTT in a patient with pre-eclampsia is most likely due?

A

APLS

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277
Q

Greatest finding of the MOMS trial?

A

Trial stopped early because of efficacy. Need for shunt placement during first year of life was lower in fetal surgery group (40% vs 82%). Ambulation fetal (45%) vs postnatal repair (24%)

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278
Q

When is CVS not recommended?

A

In cases of Isoimmunizatio/Alloimmunization (NAIT, Kell, Rh)

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279
Q

What is the best way to determine chorionicity in twin gestations?

A

Twin peak sign

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280
Q

Delayed cord clamping improves which outcome in preterm infants? What about in term infants?

A

Preterm: Decreased: Necrotizing Enterocolitis, IVH, need for transfusion
Term: Increased Hb and Iron stores

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281
Q

What is the precursor for fetal steroid synthesis?

A

LDL

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282
Q

If a CVS shows balanced translocation, what should you do next?

A

Maternal karyotype

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283
Q
Ultrasound findings would increase the risk of Down syndrome, except: 
 Duodenal atresia
 Increased Nuchal Fold
 Cardiac anomaly
 Short femur
 Sandal gap
A

Sandal gap

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284
Q

What is not covered by Cephalosporins?

a) Enterococcus
b) Group A Strep
c) Group B Strep

A

Enterococcus

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285
Q

When should you treat potential fetal CAH and with what medication?

A

7-8 weeks, Dexamethasone to prevent virilization (CVS, if male stop treatment, if female continue)

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286
Q

Which syndrome is associated with fetal thrombocytopenia?

  1. Absent radius
  2. Gestational thrombocytopenia
  3. Erythroblastosis fetalis
  4. Bernard Soulier syndrome
A

TAR Syndrome - Thrombocytopenia, Abset radius syndrome (but thumb present)
Which can also pretsent with Kidney or Heart issues

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287
Q

Anomaly of what system is most commonly seen with diaphragmatic hernia ?

A

Cardiac

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288
Q

What is the most common problem for a term IUGR infant?

A

Hypoglycemia

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289
Q

What is the treatmet for TB?

A
  1. Rifampin
  2. Isonoazid
  3. Pyrazinamide
  4. Ethambutal
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290
Q

Which of the following is most associated with aneuploidy in isolation?
cleft lip, gastroschisis, EIF, hydronephrosis, or ventriculomegaly?

A

Ventriculomegaly (3.81X LR)

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291
Q

What is the most likely complication of pregnancy conceived with IUD in place?

A

SAB - 3x more likely (50%)

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292
Q

Which ethical concept is informed consent most closely tied to?

A

Autonomy

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293
Q

What are the findings of Neonatal Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Poor cry, decreased muscle tone, respiratory muscle weakness

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294
Q

What does treatment of GDM improve?

A

Lower rates of macrosomia

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295
Q

Physical Signs of fetal immaturity

A
Poor tone
 Smooth, transparent skin
 Sparse lanugo, fine and fuzzy scalp hair
 no sole creases, NOT PALMAR creases (theyre not included), lack of rugae
 Small breast nodules
 Pliable ear lobe with no cartilage
 No scrotal rugae
 (BERT
 Breast Nodules
 Ear is pliable
 Rugae (scrotal and soles)
 Tone is low)
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296
Q

What enzyme is associated with Hydantoin syndrome?

A

Epoxide Hydrolase. Teratogenicity of several anticonvulsant medications is associated with elevated level of oxidative metabolites normally eliminated by epoxide hydrolase

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297
Q

Which is the best way to randomize?

A

table of generated numbers with block randomization

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298
Q

What does not get absorbed in patient with Roux-En-Y bypass vs. gastric banding?

A

B12 Deficiency

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299
Q

What is the most common complication of SLE on pregnancy?

A
  1. Pre-eclampsia (8-20%) 2. PTL (spont and indicated - 20-50%)
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300
Q

MCA is not helpful for which of the following?

Sickle cell, kell, Anti-D

A

Sickle Cell (they have Fetal Hb, so no bad anemia in utero)

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301
Q

Foot drop is associated with what nerve injury:

A

Peroneal

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302
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be seen with agenesis of the corpus collosum?

a. Depression of the third ventricle
b. Colopocephaly
c. Some other choices –

A

colpocephaly (tear drop ventricles)

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303
Q

Most associated with placental insufficiency?

Low Papp-A, High Papp-A, HcG?

A

Low Papp-a

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304
Q

Which study type is ideal for studying rare outcomes/diseases?

A

Case-Control Study

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305
Q

Twins, when do you not do a CVS?

A

With Alloimmunication

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306
Q

What is the most likely cause of fetal Macrosomia?

A

Prepregnancy obesity

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307
Q

39 week patient with a DVT, management?

A

Therapeutic Heparin

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308
Q

Most common presentation of Turners syndrome?

A

Short Stature

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309
Q

Which congenital cardiac lesion is most likely to result in a clinically stable infant immediately postpartum?

A

Complete AV canal

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310
Q

What is most resistant to GBS?

a) Erythromycin
b) Clindamycin
c) Penicillin
d) Azithromycin

A

Erythromycin

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311
Q

A mother has a history of 3 episodes of genital HSV, now presents in labor with a lesion. What is the risk of transmission to the neonate?

A

1%
Recurrent risk: 1-2%
Primary infection: 40-50%

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312
Q

Which infection poses the greatest risk for maternal mortality?

A

Varicella (likely #1), maybe H1N1 if no varicella

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313
Q

Which fish should be avoided in pregnancy?

A

King Mackeral

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314
Q

Triple screen with nl HCG, AFP but very low estriol, think?

A

X-linked iccthyosis(Placental sulfatase deficiency) and SLOS

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315
Q

What is the most likely risk from regional anesthesia?

A

Toxicity from local anesthetic

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316
Q

How do you differentiate between CCAM and CHAOS?

A

In Chaos you have inverted diaphragm

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317
Q

What is the most likely to have a low estriol?

a. IUFD
b. Trisomy 21
c. Placental sulfatase deficiency

A

Placental Sulfatase Deficiency

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318
Q

Complications associated with Herpes Gestationis?

A

PTD, IUGR, increased neonatal mortality

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319
Q

Which cardiac lesion is most specific with T21?

A

AV Canal defect

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320
Q

Which situation allows you to override patient confidentiality?

A

someone in serious danger

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321
Q

Findings in autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Hypertension, Bradycardia, Flushing

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322
Q

Which enzyme deficiency is a concern with chloroprocaine?

A

Pseudocholinesterase

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323
Q

Which lab result is most indicative of recurrent CMV infection?

A

IgM: +
IgG: +
High IgG avidity

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324
Q

What is the disease characterized by a deficiency in aspartoacylase?

A

Canavans

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325
Q

Which is the most likely neonatal complication with PKU?

A

Mental Retardation

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326
Q

Which medicine is NOT associated with PPHN?

Keppra, NSAIDs, SSRIs

A

Keppra

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327
Q

What crosses the placenta via active transport?

A

PICA - Phosphorous, Iron, Calcium, Amino Acids

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328
Q

Multiple Sclerosis is most associated with which pregnancy complication?

A

IUGR (MS = Mighty Small)

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329
Q

How do you monitor improvement of metabolic acidosis in DKA?

A

Follow anion gap

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330
Q

When can a physician override refusal of treatment?

A

Lack of capacity

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331
Q

What is the prevalence of asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy?

a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 25%

A

5%

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332
Q

Which is true about the Umbilical vein?

a) lower O2 than uterine vein
b) lower pH than umbilical artery
c) higher CO2 than umbilical artery
d) lower hemoglobin than uterine artery

A

Lower O2 than uterine vein

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333
Q

What pattern of inheritance is passed through maternal only?

A

Mitochondrial

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334
Q
Postpartum thyroiditis has all the following symptoms except? 
 Depression 
 Tachycardia 
 HTN 
 Diarrhea
A

HTN is not
Symptoms of the hyperthyroid phase include heat intolerance, fatigue, palpitations, nervousness and diarrhea. HTN is not a component of this. Hypothyroid phase is marked by depression, cold intolerance, hair loss, fatigue, dry skin, impaired concentration.

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335
Q

Which rate of dopamine infusion improves renal blood flow?

A

Low dose, <5ug/kg/min for renal blood flow

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336
Q

Why does NPH stay longer in body than aspart?

A

Increased halflife due to protamine and pH

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337
Q

Best Rx for mom with dyspnea, cyanosis, large VSD and R to L shunt at 28 weeks?

A

Viagra

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338
Q

What crosses the placenta via Endocytosis?

A

IgG, LDL, Insulin (If IgG), Transferrin

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339
Q

TTTS is best diagnosed with a discrepency in what ?

A

Amniotic fluid volumes

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340
Q

Which affects fetal growth the most?

A

Fetal Insulin, HPL (aka human somatomammotropin)

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341
Q

What increases alveolirization in the lungs?

A

Thyroxine or Vitamin A

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342
Q

The fetal organ that receives the highest proportion of cardiac output:

A

Placenta

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343
Q

Most common complication with insulin pump?

A

Site infection, asymptomatic hypoglycemia

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344
Q

What is the most likely reason to intubate a pregnant lady?

A

Respiratory acidosis

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345
Q

Choose the highest risk of contracting hepatitis B.

a) Whole blood
b) Cryoprecipitate
c) Albumin

A

Cryoprecipitate is pooled from multiple donors, thereby increasing the risk for Hepatitis B infection.

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346
Q

What are the key abnormalities with Meckel Gruber?

A

Post-axial Polydactyly
Multicystic Dysplastic Kidneys
Encephalocele

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347
Q

Which cells are the innate immune cells?

Which are the adaptive immune cells?

A

Innate: NK, Monocytes, macrophages, trophoblasts

Adaptive: B cells and T cells

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348
Q

3+ groups which statistical test?

A

ANOVA

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349
Q

Does obesity increase risk of NTDs?

A

YES

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350
Q

Which is the usual cause of hemodynamic decompensation with mitral stenosis peripartum?

A

Increased Preload

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351
Q

Discrepancy between cfDNA and fetal Karyotype, what can cause this?

A

Confined placental mosaicism

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352
Q

What molecule gets degraded most by the placenta?

A

Prednisone/Prednisolone - by 11 β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase Type 2

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353
Q

Name 3 diseases that can be treated with IVIG?

A

IVIG is a proven treatment for myasthenia, NAIT, and ITP.

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354
Q

What clinical scenario should cause you to test for Antiphospholipid Antibodies?

A

Any of the following:

(a) 1+ episode of vascular thrombosis
(b) 1+ death of morphologically normal fetus at 10+ weeks
(c) 1+ birth before 34 weeks due to preeclampsia/eclampsia or features associated with placental insufficiency
(d) 3+ unexplained pregnancy losses before 10 weeks (after maternal/paternal genetic and anatomic/hormonal causes excluded)

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355
Q

Mom with uncontrolled hyperthyroidism, what are the most common pregnancy complications?

A
#1: Preeclampsia
 #2: Growth Restriction
 #3: Preterm delivery
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356
Q

Which maternal karyotype has the highest risk of Down syndrome?

A

21:21 Translocation (100% of live babies are T21, but of total gametes 50% would be monosomy 21)

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357
Q

Nuchal translucency is 5.4mm. Next best step?

A

CVS (genetic testing)

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358
Q

What are the branches of the Internal Iliac Artery?

A
Midline structures and GiOPi
 Gluteal (Inferior)
 Obturator
 Pudendal (internal)
 Vagina
 Uterus
 Vesical
 Rectal (middle)
 Umbilical

Posterior Division: I love sex
Iliolumbar
Lateral Sacral
Superior Gluteal

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359
Q

How does iodide treatment work?

A

Decreases the circulating supply of T4 and T3 by inhibiting release of stored thyroid hormone.

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360
Q

A patient has mitral stenosis, what do you give to block intubation reflex hypertension?

A

Nitroprusside, In patients in whom hypertension during laryngoscopy could result in hypertensive crisis or cardiac decompensation, the anesthesiologist may administer anti-hypertensives during intubation.

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361
Q

In Mono-Di twins, at what day does cleavage occur?

A

4-8 days

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362
Q
  1. Which causes a recurring fever?
    a. Listeriosis
    b. Syphilis
    c. Lyme dz
    d. Others
A

Lyme Disease, Brucellosis also

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363
Q

Which medication decreases OCP efficacy?

A

Carbamezapine, Phenytoin, Rifampin

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364
Q

If a patient refuses CD for fetal indications, what should you do?

A

Continue taking care of patient and don’t proceed with CD. Respect patient wishes

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365
Q

Patient presents with IUFD, severe iugr + omphalocele, + large kidneys, what lab should you send?

A

Karyotype and Microarray

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366
Q

Antihypertensive with most evidence for association with IUGR?

A

Atenolol

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367
Q

Swan readings for pulmonary edema?

A

Increase: PCWP > 18, CVP

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368
Q

A patient is newly diagnosed with HIV not previously on any medication. What is the best way to prevent HIV transmission?

A

AZT (zidovudine)

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369
Q

What is the precursor to estriol?

A

C9 Precursor DHEAS (from the fetal adrenal, fetal zone)

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370
Q

If a preterm baby develops respiratory distress after delivery and Preductal SpO2: 90%, post ductal: 70%. What is the diagnosis?

A

Persistent fetal circulation (Ductus arteriosus) or PPHN (same thing)

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371
Q
Which would decrease drug transport across placenta? 
 increased lipid solubility
 increased protein binding
 decreased ionization
 placental degradation
A

Increased protein binding

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372
Q

What is the best treatment for in utero CAH?

A

Dexamthasone, starting at 7-8 weeks. To prevent virilization of female fetus

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373
Q

What should the work up of a woman with a Spontaneous Abortion at 12 weeks include?

A

Antiphospholipid Antibodies

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374
Q

Most common cause of Polyhydramnios?

A

Idiopathic

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375
Q

Most common complication of PKU?

What is the most common structural complication in PKU?

A

Mental retardation = most common

Cardiac (hence we do echo’s on these fetuses) = most common structural

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376
Q

Most direct biochemical cause of a myometrial contraction?

A

Myosin Light Chain Kinase

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377
Q

What mechanisms result in uniparental disomy?

A

2 chromosomes inherited from one parent, trisomic rescue

Ex: Beckwith, Angelman, Prader-Willi

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378
Q

Treatment for HIV+ women with Viral load > 1000 near term?

A

Cesarean at 38 weeks, Continue ART therapy, and start AZT 3 hours prior to cesarean

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379
Q
Which of the following is not associated with AMA?
 T21
 T13
 T18
 45XO
A

45 XO

380
Q

<p>What percentage of Rh negative patients who do not receive Rhogam will be sensitized?</p>

A

<p>15%</p>

381
Q

What affects positive predictive value (PPV) the MOST?

A

Prevalence

382
Q

Physiology of late decelerations?

A

Chemoreceptor reflex

383
Q

What is the most common complication of SLE on pregnancy?

A
  1. Pre-eclampsia (8-20%)

2. PTD (spont and indicated - 20-50%) - Not spontaneous PTB

384
Q

Which cancer do OCPs decrease the least?

A

Breast Cancer

385
Q

In which patients can you give OCPs?

  1. Hx of DVT
  2. Migraine with aura
  3. Type 1 DM
  4. Active viral hepatitis
A

Type 1 DM

386
Q

What is the definition of imprinting?

A

gamete specific gene silencing where only the gene from the mother or father is expressed (Ex: Prader Willi - no dad’s CH 15, so maternal uniparental disomy)

387
Q

Which is not associated with IUGR?

Hyperthyroidism, sickle cell, parvo

A

Parvovirus (anemia and heart failure, not usually FGR)

388
Q

Most common complication of SSRI used in pregnancy used in a neonate?

A

Neonatal Abstinence

389
Q

If maternal thyroid function is well controlled but fetus develops goiter. What test should you do?

A

Check maternal Thyroid Peroxidase Antibody; Thyroglobulin Antibody; Thyroid Stimulating Hormone Receptor Antibody (All synonyms for TSI)

390
Q

What is the risk of cystic fibrosis if fathers sister has CF and carrier rate is 1/25?

A

1/150

391
Q

Greatest contraindication to postpartum combined OCP’s
hemorrhagic stroke w/ eclampsia
sagittal vein thrombosis
ovarian vein thrombosis

A

Sagittal Vein Thrombosis

392
Q

A mother who is HIV positive who took no meds during the pregnancy what is given in labor to decrease transmission?

a) Acyclovir
b) Lamivudine
c) Nevirapine

A

Nevirapine (in combination with AZT or if AZT is unavailable)

393
Q

What are the features that make a drug more likely to cross the placenta?

A

Low molecular weight
Lipophilic (soluble)
Nonpolar (not ionized)
Unbound to protein

394
Q

Which cell is not part of innate immunity?

A

Monocyte

395
Q

Best Treatment for a Pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine (Alpha Blocker)

396
Q

Baby has an amniotic band, do you remove them?

A

Yes if it is wrapped around a limb and there is some sort of blood flow disruption in post band vs. pre band.

397
Q
All of the following US findings would be present in a fetus with a neural tube defect EXCEPT:
 Small cisterna
 Scalloped cerebellum
 Incavatated cranium
 Ventrculomegaly
 Increased BPD
A

Increased BPD

398
Q

What increases the risk of preterm birth

a. IL-6 maternal serum
b. IL-6 amniotic fluid
c. IL-10 maternal serum
d. IL-10 amniotic fluid

A

Amniotic Fluid IL6

399
Q

Histologic Chorioamnionitis without clinical signs of infection is associated with what neonatal complications?

A

Interventricular hemorrhage, periventricular leukomalacia and Cerebral palsy

400
Q

What is Methadone LEAST likely to result in?

A

Congenital anomalies

401
Q

What drug is impermeable to the placenta?

A

Insulin, except if IgG bound

402
Q

Holoprosencephaly is most commonly associated with which of the following chromosomal abnormalities?

A

Trisomy 13

403
Q

What hormone decreases after delivery to allow for lactation?

A

Estrogen

404
Q

Which mode of inheritance applies to penetrance and variable expressivity?

A

Autosomal Dominant

405
Q

What lab value are features of DKA?

A

PH: <7.3
HCO3: <15
AG: >12
+Ketones

406
Q

What is Alpha Error?

A

Type 1 error (False Positive, rejecting the null when we should have kept it)

407
Q

Which finding is the MOST common in Meckel-Gruber syndrome?

A

Multicystic dysplastic Kidneys (100%)

408
Q

Placenta degrades _____ the most:

a. Betamethasone
b. Prednisone
c. Insulin
d. Heparin

A

Prednisone

409
Q

CDH, IUGR, VSD , most likely diagnosis?

A

T18

410
Q

How is calcium transported across placenta?

A

Active transport

411
Q

Most common complication of neontatal thrombocytopenia?

A

Rash more than thrombocytopenia

412
Q

Neonate has apnea and bradycardia after 60 seconds with PPV, what is next BEST step ?

A
Chest Compressions
 NRP
 (@30 seconds, if HR < 100 or Apnea --> PPV)
 (@60 HR < 60 --> Chest compressions
  HR 60-100 --> Continue PPV)
 (@90 HR <60 --> Epi and Intubate)
413
Q

Which infertility treatment is associated with hypospadias ?

A

ICSI

414
Q

What cardiac anomaly cannot be identified with 4 chamber view ?

A

TGA
Coarctation
VSD

415
Q

Marfan Aortic root recommendations?

A

Recommend beta blockers, cesarean delivery for aortic root >5. Recommend repair prior to pregnancy for aortic root >4

416
Q

Mom presents with acute chest syndrome due to HbSS. Dad not tested. But carrier rate is 1/12. What is the risk of an affected fetus?

A

.1/24

417
Q

The main factor that influences fetal growth?

A

Insulin, HPL

418
Q

If a mom is exposed to parvovirus 3 days ago at 18 weeks GA, what is the most appropriate testing at this time?

A

Maternal blood for Parvo PCR
(It takes 10 days for IgM to develop)
If positive Serial ultrasound should be performed every 1-2 weeks after exposure for 8-12 weeks. (Peak hydrops risk as at 4-6 weeks after maternal infection)

419
Q

What is the main source of PGI2 in pregnancy?

A

The Myometrium

420
Q

Which hepatitis can cause chronic active hepatitis and cirrhosis?

A

Hep C

421
Q

Formula for odds ratio is?

A

AD/BC, ratio of exposed cases to unexposed cases divided by ratio of exposed controls to unexposed controls (The wording really was this convoluted)

422
Q

What stage is a fetus with abnormal Dopplers?

A

Stage 3

423
Q

What is the most likely outcome with demise of one twin in a MCDA pair?

A

Neurologic Sequelae in the surviving twin (15-25%)

424
Q

When does Relaxin peak?

A

8-12 weeks

425
Q

What condition with CF carries a poor prognosis?

A

Cor Pulmonale

426
Q

NO reacts with what to produce cGMP?

A

Iron

427
Q

External Genitalia differentiation stimulated by what hormone?

A

LH which stimulates testosterone

428
Q

What is the risk of transmission in the first trimester with primary CMV infection

A

40%

429
Q

What dictates delivery mode in patients with ITP?

A

Obstetrical reasons

430
Q

What crosses placenta via Facilitated diffusion?

A

Glucose

431
Q

A woman with a prolactinoma wants to breast feed, you advise?

A

Okay for microadenoma prolactinoma to breast feed

432
Q

If a patient tests IgM positive at 20 weeks for parvovirus, how long should the pregnancy be monitored?

A

Serial ultrasound should be performed every 1-2 weeks after exposure for 8-12 weeks. (Peak hydrops risk as at 4-6 weeks after maternal infection)

433
Q

A normal woman has a homozygoous 21/21 translocation. What percent of her conceptuses will have monosomy 21?

A

50%

434
Q

Patient’s husbands sister died of CF; carrier rate is 1/25, what is the risk to the fetus?
1/50 1/100 1/150

A

1/150

435
Q

Which hormone decreases surfactant synthesis?

A

Insulin - delays surfactant production

436
Q

The benefit of doing a multivariate analysis in a cohort study is?

A

Decrease confounding

437
Q

What is increased in the fasting state in pregnancy?

A

Cholesterol, depends on this for energy NOT gluconeogenesis

438
Q

What effects on lipids does Depot Provera have?

A

↑ LDL

↓ HDL No change in triglycerides

439
Q

What is the origin of cell free dna?

A

apoptosis of placental cells (syncytiotrophoblast)

440
Q

Which medication is the best anticoagulant to prevent clot in pregnancy:

A

Lovenox

441
Q

What is MOA of iodine in maternal thyroid function?

A

Blocks release of thyroid hormone from the gland

442
Q

What is associated with graft versus host?

A

Erythema multiforme

443
Q

What medications can decrease the effectiveness of OCP’s

A

Phenytoin, Carbamezapine, Rifampin

444
Q

Most common Uterine Anomaly with Pregnancy loss?

A

Septate Uterus

445
Q

Which anesthetic has greatest cardiac risk?

A

Bupivacaine (Marcaine)

446
Q

If the father has a balanced translocation how does that change the risk to child compared to a mother?

A

Decreased risk with father (<5%) compared to mother (1/6)

447
Q

In a patient with T2DM and an elevated HbA1c, what is the most common finding on US?

A

Normal Ultrasound

448
Q

When does cardiac output increase the most?

A

Immediately postpartum

449
Q

Benefit of a SNP Array over CGH Array?

A

SNP Array can detect Triploidy

450
Q

Which medication is LEAST likely a teratogen?

Azathioprine, Cyclophosphamide, Cyclosporine

A

Azathioprine

451
Q

What is the most common location of an arachnoid cyst?

A

Middle Cranial Fossa

452
Q

Which local anesthesic is least likely to cause neurotoxicity if given IV?

A

Lidocaine wont cause it,
Chloroprocaine will
and bupivicaine will but more cardiotoxic

453
Q
Which is predictive of cerebral palsy? 
 neonatal seizures
 low pH / high base excess
 multi-organ dysfunction 
 10 min Apgar =3
 early onset encephalopathy
A

Neonatal Seizures, Low pH (high BE), 10 min apgar<=3, Early encephalopathy

454
Q

What are the last 5 phases of lung development? At what weeks do they occur?

A
Embryonic -3 - 7
 Pseudoglandular - 5-17
 Canalicular - 16-26
 Saccular - 26- 36
 Alveolar - 36+
455
Q

Steroids are least likely to help

a. IVH
b. RDS
c. BPD
d. NEC

A

BPD - no effect

456
Q

After an overnight fast, what is most likely decreased in the morning?

A

Glucose

457
Q

Hyperparathyroidism is most associated with:

a. Neonatal hypocalcemia
b. IUGR
c. PTL
d. SAB

A

50% risk of neonatal hypocalcemia (over production of calcium suppresses babies PTH and then when delivered he cant raise Ca2+ levels once he loses the moms calcium)
~10 % SAB rate

458
Q

Swan readings for Hemorrhage?

A

Decrease: CO, PCWP and CVP

Increase: SVR

459
Q

How many asymptomatic bacteriuria pregnant women would develop symptomatic infection if untreated vs. treated?

A

20-35% compared to <4% if treated

460
Q

Which Prostaglandin causes muscle relaxation?

A

Prostacyclin (PGI2)

461
Q

What is a sentinel event?

A

unanticipated event in a healthcare setting resulting in death or serious physical or psychological injury to a patient or patients, not related to the natural course of the patient’s illness.

462
Q

Which HIV medication is worst for liver toxicity?

A

Nevirapine (most), Ritonavir/lopinavir (if its not there)

463
Q

What is the mutation in Spinal Muscular Atrophy? Inheritance?

A

SMN1

464
Q

What is gap junction protein?

A

Connexin

465
Q

What is the management hydrocephaly?

A

US, infectious and genetic workup

466
Q

Aspartoacylase deficiency is associated with?

A

Canavan disease

467
Q

What is the most important factor affecting Positive Predictive Value?

A

Prevalence of disease

468
Q

Obese patient comes to you with complaint sof fatigue and forgetfulness, what test should you order?

A

Sleep Study

469
Q

A mother who is HIV positive who took no meds during the pregnancy. What is given in labor to MOST likely decrease transmission?

A

Zidovudine or Lamivudine (if azt not an option)

470
Q

When you open the broad ligament, where is the ureter located?

A

Crosses over the common iliac artery

471
Q

If a patient becomes hypotensive after mag bolus, what medication do you give?

A

Calcium Gluconate

472
Q

Most likely complication of pyelo in pregnancy?

a) Urosepsis
b) ARDS
c) Preterm delivery
d) Anemia
e) Decreased creatinine clearance

A

Anemia (33%)

473
Q

What added step should you do in a cesarean section of a Morbidly obese patient?

A

Closed Subcutaneous layer

474
Q

What is the gestational age at which fetal lung alveolarization occurs?

A

36 weeks

475
Q

Which blood product increases fibrinogen the MOST?

A

Cryo

476
Q

What is the most common feature of turners syndrome?

A

Short stature

477
Q

Which part of the biophysical profile is most associated with an acidemic fetus?

A

tone

478
Q

Which antibiotic has the ability to potentiate the neurmuscular blocking ability of magnesium sulfate?
Unasyn
Gentamicin
Erythromycin

A

Gentamicin

479
Q

What is the most likely outcome for patient on dialysis?

A

Preterm Delivery (50-80%)
Polyhydramnios (40%)
Anemia (100%)
Hypertension (100%)

480
Q

Maternal risk of Varicella?

A

30% pneumonia which has a 30% mortality.

481
Q

Which is LEAST likely a finding in pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Ventriculomegaly

482
Q

Which is least associated with pregnancy loss after amniocentesis?
Tenting, multiple attempts, needle gauge, transplacental stick?

A

Tenting

483
Q

What is the most reliable ultrasound criteria for dating?

A

Cerebellum

Foot length

484
Q

What is the cause of a post regional headache?

A

traction of pain sensing cranial structures

485
Q

Which is the thrombophilia with the worst prognosis?

A

Antithrombin III

486
Q

Most likely complication for patients with aortic stenosis in the peripartum period?

A

Arrhythmias

487
Q

What is the precursor of fetal steroid synthesis?

A

LDL

488
Q

At what CD4 Count are you at risk of pneumocystic pneumonia?

A

<200

489
Q

Patient has a fetus with T21, what is the risk of recurrence?

A

1%, or age related risk whichever is higher

490
Q

Which artery most likely to cause vulvar hematoma?

A

Branches of pudendal artery

491
Q

What are the last 3 phases of lung development? At wat weeks do they occur?

A

Cannalicular - 16-26
Saccular - 26- 36
Alveolar - 36+

492
Q

Maternal blood comes into direct contact with what?

A

Syncytiotrophoblasts

493
Q

What hormone does the placenta lack / is “inactive” that the fetus has / is “active”?

A

17-alpha-hydroxylase, it breaks down progesterone, which we don’t want the placenta to be able to do

494
Q

Which structural anomaly is most common with PKU? What about most common complication?

A

Structural: Cardiac (10-15%)

Complication: Mental Retardation (80-90%)

495
Q

What is the PO2 in the umbilical artery?

A

20

496
Q

Most likely diagnosis of echogenic bowel at 20 weeks?

A

Normal

497
Q

What is Prader Willi most likely due to?

A

Deletion of paternally derived Ch 15

498
Q

Hypoxic-ischemic–encephalopathy is most associated with?

a. chorioamnionitis
b. demise of one monochorionic twin
c. prematurity <28 weeks
d. pH = 7.0

A

pH 7.0 (acidemia)

499
Q

What would make a medication most likely to cross in to breast milk?

A

Lipid Solube, Not bound to protein, non ionized, small/low molecular weight

500
Q

Mom has sickle cell anemia, dad not tested, carrier rate 1/12, what is the risk of an affected fetus?

A

1/24 (1 x ½ x 1/12)

501
Q

Cerebal palsy is a diseas of what part of the nervous cystem?

A

upper motor neuron disease due to damage of white matter.

502
Q
Which initiates preterm labor? 
 Prostaglandin dehydrogenase (PGDH) 
 phospholipase A2
 metalloproteinases
 prostaglandin synthase
A

Phospholipase a2 (Phospholipase A2 is associated with the arachidonic acid pathway to production of prostaglandins. Prostaglandins are associated with labor induction/progression)

503
Q

What is a decrease in Urine calcium associated with in pregnancy?

A

Preeclampsia

504
Q
The 4 chamber view is not sensitive for detecting which cardiac anomaly?
 HLHS
 TGA
 Ebsteins Anomaly
 VSD
A

Transposition of great arteries (also bad for Coarctation)

505
Q

What is mode of inheritance of Fragile X?

A

X linked dominant

506
Q

Renal dose of Dopamine?

A

<4mcg/kg/min

507
Q

What is the best way to test for a fetus having CAH?

A

Direct gene testing

508
Q

Which autoimmune disorder is more likely to improve during pregnancy?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis improves in 50-70% of cases in pregnancy

509
Q

Which medication relieves symptoms of cholestasis?

A

Ursodiol

510
Q

Diabetic nephropathy most common pregnancy complications?

A

Preeclampsia (53%)
Preterm delivery (51%)
IUGR (11%)

511
Q

Which anesthetic has the fastest onset?

A

Lidocaine

512
Q

In TRAP what is found in the acardiac twins’s Dopplers?

A

Pulsatile flow in UA

Continuous flow in UV

513
Q

Features of Fetal Varicella?

A

Mental Retardation, Limb Hypoplasia, Scarring of Skin, Eye

514
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Tay Sachs?

A

Hexosaminidase A

515
Q

Large c-section incision injures iliohypogastric/ilioinguinal nerve, what is the most likely result?

A

Paresthesia/Pain at mons (hypogastric)

ilioinguinal more labia

516
Q

Swan readings for septic shock?

A

Decrease: SVR

Increase: Co

517
Q

What to use for malignant hyperthermia at >36 wks with contractions

a. Epidural
b. Spinal
c. Mag tocolysis
d. others

A

Epidural

518
Q

CVS is most contraindicated in?

A

Existing Rh isoimmunization is a contraindication to CVS

519
Q

Most likely diagnosis with a cystic hygroma?

A

40% T21, 30% Turners

520
Q

Recurrence risk with spina bifida?

A

1.5% if one effected chlid, 7% if 2

521
Q

What drug increases the motor blockade with magnesium sulfate?

A

Calcium Channel Blocker

522
Q

What is the most likely US finding for a fetus if mom has an HbA1c of >10%.

A

Normal (only 10-20% increased risk of anomaly, so the majority will be normal)

523
Q

Which part of the BPP is most closely correlated with Acidosis?

A

Loss of tone

524
Q

Which rash is associated with the worst fetal/neonatal outcomes?

A

Pemphigoid AKA Herpes Gestationalis

525
Q
What is the least common with myxedema?
 hypothermia
 hypoglycemia
 bradycardia
 hypocapnia
A

Hypocapnea
In Myxedematous coma patients have (Low blood sugar, low blood pressure, hyponatremia, hypercapnia, hypoxia, slowed heart rate, and hypoventilation)

526
Q

Preeclampsia - most common finding on pathology of placenta?

A

Parenchymal infarction

527
Q

What hormone is the placental precursor to estrogens, where does it come from?

A

C19 precursor DHEAS from the fetal zone of the fetal adrenals

528
Q

What is the treatment for NAIT?

A

IVIG

529
Q

Which antidepressant is most associated with cardiac anomalies?

A

Paxil (Paroxetine)

530
Q

Which R-A-S component increases and then decreases?

A

Renin peaks at 12 weeks then declines in 3rd trimester

531
Q

Most specific finding to distinguish TTP from HELLP

A

LDH to AST ratio (elevated in TTP)

532
Q

Where does a sub-galeal hemorrhage happen?

A

Between skull periosteum and the scalp galea aponeurosis

533
Q

Increased Fluid is most beneficial for what lesion?

A

Aortic Stenosis

534
Q

Which hormone drops to allow breastfeeding?

A

Estrogen

535
Q

Uncorrected ASD, increases the risk of?

A

Stroke (increased risk of emboli from arrhythmias)

536
Q

Pregnancy patient with joint pain + pustular rash on hands, most likely has which infection?

A

Gonorrhea

537
Q
Which malfomation has the greatest risk of underlying aneuploidy?
 CHD
 Gastroschesis
 Omphalocele
 Clubbed foot
A

Omphalocele

538
Q

What are the ultrasound findings of holoprosencephaly?

A

Single ventricle

Absent corpus callosum

539
Q

Patient has nose bleeds with a platelet count of 20,000, treatment? When do you treat thrombocytopenia?

A

Steroids, plt<30,000 or if symptomatic, or consider Transfusion if preparing for surgery.

540
Q

What are the features of Fetal Hydantoin Syndrome?

A
IUGR, 
 MR, 
 Nail/Digit hypoplasia,
  Hypertelorism, 
 low set ears, 
 short nose / flat nasal bridge
541
Q

Malaria, which more likely to have PROM(?)?

A

Malaria is worse in primigravid women, and also worse in areas with less malaria (i.e. because less prior exposure to it). Sickle trait provides protection against malaria. Thus I assume the correct answer is A, primip without hx of malaria.

542
Q

Baby delivered at 35 weeks. 30 minutes after delivery, develops severe respiratory distress. Preductal O2sat = 70%. Postductal O2sat = 90%. CXR normal. Diagnosis?

A

Postductal > Preductal, think TGA

543
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of fetus with enlarged bladder?

A

Posterior uretheral valves is most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction

544
Q

Which complication is not associated with SSRI use in pregnancy?

A

Gastroschisis

545
Q

Which changes least in pregnancy?

CVP, CO, SVR, PVR

A

CVP does not change in preg.
Increase: CO, HR
Decrease: SVR, PVR, COP go down
Stays Same: PCWP, CVP

546
Q

What does wedge pressure represent?

A

LV preload

547
Q

Why are pregnant patients more susceptible of hypoxia during intubation?

A

Decreased functional reserve

548
Q

Pt presents at 36 weeks history of T6 spinal cord injury with UC’s, hypertension, flushing what is best treatment?

A

Epidural

549
Q

What is the Fetal Cardiac Output at term?

A

500mL/kg/min

550
Q

Which phospholipid is the largest percentage in the fetal lungs?

A

Phosphatidylcholine

551
Q

What is the mechanism of AZT?

A

Nucleoside Reverse transcriptase inhibitor

552
Q

A physician practices evidence-based medicine. This represents

A

Integrity

553
Q

What would be the pattern on QUAD screen of a fetus with Down syndrome?

A

High: HCG & Inhibin

Low: Estriol, AFP

554
Q

Best way to prevent a retained sponge after a vaginal delivery?

A

Debriefing (via sponge count)

555
Q

Why is ROC a good test?

A

sensitivity = y , 1- specificity = x allows to balance between them

556
Q

What is the risk of Down syndrome with a prior afected child?

A

1% or the age related risk, whichever is higher

557
Q

A woman has recurrent SABs, her karyotype reveals a balanced translocation. Phenotypic trisomy 21 will be present in what percentage of subsequent surviving pregnancies?

A

1/6 = 16.7% of all gametes

1/3 if only living child

558
Q

If an amnio showed 45XX+14,21. What kind of mutation is that?

A

Balanced translocation

559
Q

Where can you find the ureter?

A

Over the bifurcation of the iliac artery

560
Q

What is the most common complication of AZT?

A

Bone marrow suppression

561
Q

Prostaglandin dehydrogenase is found where?

A

Chorion

562
Q

What enzyme causes prostaglandin inactivation? Where is it found?

A

Prostaglandin Dehydrogenase, Chorion

563
Q

What is the most effective anticoagulation for patients with mechanical heart valves?

A

Warfarin

564
Q

How do you test for familial dysautonomia?

A

DNA analysis

565
Q
Which of these is a more common surgical complication of c hyst?
 Ureteral injury
 Cystotomy
 Fistula
 Bowel Injury
A

Cystotomy

566
Q

Decreased Urinary Calcium is associated with what pregnancy disorder?

A

Preeclampsia

567
Q

<p>Which of the following valve lesions as the highest risk of mortality for the mother?
<br></br> AS, AR, MS, MR?</p>

A

<p>Aortic Stenosis</p>

568
Q

Where are the different Prostaglandins made?

A

PGI2: Myometrium
PGE2: Decidua and Amnion
PGF2alpha: Decidua

569
Q

What is least useful with SC disease?

a) FeSO4
b) Folic acid
c) Pneumovax
d) Antibiotics for suppression

A

FeSO4, can lead to hemochromatosis if patient is not iron deficient

570
Q

The PO2 is lowest in which vessel?

UmbA, Umb V, Uter A , Uter V

A

Umbilical Artery

571
Q

If preload and afterload are already optimized, what is the best way to increase cardiac output?

A

Beta adrenergic

572
Q

Beta mimetics (agonist) relax smooth muscle by what mechanism?

A

Stim. B2 receptor (G membrane protein) -> activates adenylate
cyclase ↑ intracellular cAMP + activates PKA -> inhibits myosin light chain
phosphorylation -> ↓ intracellular calcium

573
Q
If O2 is decreased, which fetal organ gets less blood flow?
 Lungs
 Brain
 Adrenals
 Myocardium
A

Lungs,

Fetus will maintain flow to Brain and Adrenals and Myocardium

574
Q

Which drug prevents IVH?

A

BMZ - also decreases RDS, NEC and neonatal mortality

575
Q

What percent of omphaloceles will have a chromosomal aneuploidy?

A

30 - 40%

576
Q

What is most likely outcome with amnio 45, XX der (13,21)?

A

Normal (no extra 13 or 21, just 1x13, 1x21 and 1x13-21 together))

577
Q

A normal pregnant patient in the third trimester what would her glucose levels do, Fasting and Postprandial?

A

Fasting ↓ Postprandial ↑

578
Q

What dose of folic acid do patients with sickle cell require?

A

4mg

579
Q

Most likely cause of hypoxia post c-section in obese class II patient?

A

Apnea

580
Q

Type I CPAM with Hydrops, what is the treatment?

A

Shunt for Drainage of Cyst

581
Q

When in pregnancy is the Cardiac output at its highest?

A

Immediately after delivery (autotransfusion of blood = 50% increase in CO)

582
Q

When should you only use a one tailed test?

A

When results can only go in one direction

583
Q

What nerve causes foot drop?

A

Common peroneal

584
Q

Discussion of mode of delivery in a pregnancy with a lethal anomaly involves which ethical principal?

A

Autonomy

585
Q

Fetus has cleft lip/palate, VSD, holoprosencephay. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

T13

586
Q

What are the abnormalities with acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

↑ LFTs, uric acid, billirubin , Ammonia

↓ Platelets, ↓ Glucose

587
Q

What is the preferred mode of delivery for Omphalocele?

A

Vaginal unless >5cm or liver is out

588
Q

Which medication needs adjustment for Increased GFR?

A

Digoxin

589
Q

Simulation training has helped improve outcomes most in?

A

Brachial Plexus Injury (reduction by 60-90%)

590
Q

What happens to thyroid hormones in the first trimester?

A

TBG increases, Total T4 Increases, Free T4 Increases, TSH Decreases

591
Q

What pregnancy complications are associated with Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Increased risk of Growth restriction (and of C/section, but less than IUGR)

592
Q

Who is the best candidate for an IUD?

a. Uterine anomaly
b. Benign ovarian tumors
c. AIDS
d. Active chlamydia

A

AIDS

593
Q

In what setting is Down Syndrome most likely?

  1. brachycephaly
  2. Hypoplasia of mid phalangeal joint of 5th digit
  3. normal humerus
A

Hypoplasia of the midphalanx of the fifth digit

594
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis if NT > 4mm?

A

45X - Turners , most common with very increased NT

595
Q

What is the main source of estriol?

A

C19 adrenal steroids (DHEAS from fetal adrenals)

596
Q

What is the mechanism of insulin resistance in pregnancy?

A

HPL and Human Placental Growth Hormone reduce insulin receptor sites

597
Q

What effect does medroxyprogesterone have postpartum?

A

Decreased bone mineral density long term use

598
Q

Which of the following is associated with coarctation of the aorta?

A

45 XO

599
Q

Which medication increases cardiac output when preload and afterload are optimized?

A

Dobutamine (B agonist)

600
Q

What is the mechanism of action of LMWH?

A
  1. Inhibits Prothrombin

2. Binds ATIII and inhibits thrombin formation

601
Q

Characteristic of Med to freely pass into breast milk?

A

Non protein bound, Lipid soluble, Non-ionized, Low molecular weight
(All the same things for crossing placenta)

602
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Canavans?

A

Aspartoacylase

603
Q

Stillbirth in setting of cholestasis, most likely finding?

A

Meconium stained amniotic fluid

604
Q

Mother refuses a CS for fetal decelerations remote from delivery, what do you do?

A

Continue to manage her do not do cesarean against her will

605
Q

Clenched fists are associated with which chromosomal abnormality?

A

T18

606
Q

What is the #1 cause of low maternal estriol?

A

Placental sulfatase deficiency , SLOS, X linked Icthyoses

607
Q

Prophylaxis for PCP in CD4 < 200?

A

Bactrim

608
Q

At 37 degrees Celsius and pH of 7.4, fetal hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve means?

A

This means that for any given PO2, fetal O2 saturation is higher

609
Q

For which of the following is plasmapharesis 1st line Rx?

A

TTP

610
Q
Which disorder is associated with UPD?
 Cri du chat
 Williams
 Prader Willi
 Hydantoin
A

Prader Willi

611
Q

Why do we not use Rapid GBS?

A

Low Sensitivity

612
Q

How does dialysis change with pregnancy?

  1. Longer sessions
  2. More frequent sessions
  3. Add less calcium to dialysate
  4. Add more HCO3 to dialysate
A

Longer sessions

613
Q

What statistic would you use to compare three means?

A

ANOVA

614
Q

What is the highest complication associated for 10 rads exposure at 15 weeks?

A

prior to 2 weeks: sab (all or none)
2-8 weeks: growth restriction/anomalies
8-15weeks: Intellectual Disability

615
Q

Where does a subgaleal hemorrhage occur?

A

Between skull periosteum and scalp galea aponeurosis

616
Q

Balanced translocation 14:21, what are the possible outcomes of baby?

A

1) 21,14 (normal)
2) 21:14 (balanced translocation like mom)
3) 21:14 (translocation + normal 21 (tri 21)
4) 21:14 (translocation + normal 14 (tri 14 - SAB)
5) Monosomy 14 (Sab)
6) Monosomy 21 (Sab)

617
Q

What is mode of inheritene of IHSS?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is also called IHSS.

Autosomal Dominant

618
Q

How would you investigate whether there is an association between smoking and bladder cancer?

A

Case control study (Compares a group with disease to a group without and looks back at risk factor)

619
Q

What is fastest onset anesthetic medication?

A

Lidocaine : 1-2 mins

620
Q

Which is LEAST likely in the first 24 hours after birth?

A

Closure of DV (occurs within 1 week)

Closure of DA - approx few days
Closure of foramen ovale - early
Increased pulmonary resistance

621
Q
Which of the following fetal cardiac anomaly is least likely to result in a critically ill newborn?
 TGA 
 HLHS 
 AVSD
 TOF w pulm atresia
A

AVSD

622
Q

What medication causes reversible hearing loss in the fetus?

A

Streptomycin

623
Q

What are the causes of non-immune hydrops?

A
Idiopathic
 Cardiovascular
 Chromosomal - Turners
 Infections
 CCAM, Sacrococcygeal teratoma
624
Q

Which uterine structural anomaly has the highest miscarriage rate?

A
#1. Septate 
 #2. Unicornuate 
 #3. Bicornuate
625
Q

At which phase do type 2 pneumocytes appear?

A

Canalicular

626
Q

Difference in allele inheritance based on maternal and paternal genes best describes:

A

Imprinting

627
Q

What is a contraindication to breast feeding?

a. CMV
b. HCV
c. HBV
d. Genital HSV
e. Active TB

A

Active untreated TB, or HSV on breast (not genitals), HIV

628
Q

Which condition does plasmapheresis treat?

A

TTP

629
Q

What is the term that means it matters from which parent an allele was inherited?

A

imprinting

630
Q

Mechanism of Progesterone IUD?

A

Cervical Mucous(most correct). Anovulation. Affecting Sperm Motility, preventing implantation

631
Q

Which cytokine is anti-inflammatory?

A

IL-10

632
Q

What drug stays around in the maternal system for 2-3 years?

A

Etretinate

633
Q

What is the most common trisomy in abortuses?

A

Trisomy 16

634
Q

Increased nuchal fold is associated the most with what aneploidy?

A

T21

635
Q
What hormone causes insulin resistance at 4-7AM? 
 cortisol 
 GH 
 PRL 
 progesterone
  androstenedione
A

GH, (Human placental Growth Hormone causes insulin resistance via decreasing insulin receptor sites)

636
Q

Features of Congenital Rubella?

A

Blueberry Muffin, Cardiac issues, Cataracts, CNS and Deafness.

637
Q

Fetus with posterior urethral valves, what findings signify renal impairment?

A

Increases in Ca, Cl, Na, Microglobulin or OsmolaRity

638
Q

What test do you use for evaluation of Means?

A

t-test

639
Q

Which part of the Choirion is avascular?

A

Chorion Laeve

640
Q

Which SSRI most associated with increased fetal cardiac risk

A

Paxil (ASD, or outflow tract obstruction)

641
Q

How do you diagnosis Von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Ristocetin cofactor activity

642
Q

What is the best intrapartum treatment of Mitral Stenosis?

A

Beta Blockers

643
Q

Which is most associated with enlarged placenta, pale placenta, hydrops?

A

Syphillis

644
Q

Expansion of a vulvar hematoma is limited by?

a. Inguinal ligament
b. Levator ani muscles
c. Colles fascia

A

Colles Fascia, Urogenital Diaphragm, and Anal fascia

645
Q

Best way to differentiate a lupus flare from Preeclampsia?

A

Measurement of ANA, anti-dsDNA, decreased CH50, and active urinary sediment(cellular casts, aseptic leukocyturia, and hematuria) may help distinguish SLE nephritis flare

646
Q

Which fetal lung lesion is MOST associated with malignant transformation

A

CCAM

647
Q

Highest risk of Preterm birth is in what uterine anomaly? What about miscarriages?

A

PTD: Bicornuate uterus 60-70%

Sab: Septate

648
Q

Which antibody is positive if you have been vaccinated for Hep B?

A

Hep B surface antibody (anti-HBs)

649
Q

What enable increased fetal calcium?

A

Increased intestinal absorption of calcium from mother

650
Q

Which nerve fibers contribute to pain in 2nd stage of labor?

A

Pudendal nerve (S2-4)

651
Q

Which maternal cardiac lesion is associated with the greatest fetal risk of transmission?

  1. AS
  2. MS
  3. VSD
  4. TOF
A

Aortic stenosis (15-18% risk of fetal transmission)
IHSS: 50%
Coarctation: 14%

652
Q

Low MCV, HbA2 2.2% Normal Iron Studies, Dx?

A

Alpha Thalassemia

653
Q

Why is Randomization good practice?

A

Helps decrease confounding

654
Q

What is the follow-up for 6 mm bilateral pyelectasis and normal karyotype?

A

Repeat at 32 weeks

655
Q

Pt. had a CVS w/ Mosaic result, what can explain the birth of a normal baby?

A

Confined placental mosaicism

656
Q

What is the most common finding of a term infant with Down syndrome?

  1. Simian crease
  2. Hypotonia
  3. LBW <2500gm
A

Hypotonia

657
Q

After a Fontan procedure, what does cardiac output depend most on?

A

Preload or SV

(HR plays a negligable role In a fontan circulation)

658
Q

Least associated with embryopathy?

Azathioprine, warfarin, hydantoin

A

Azathioprine (not associated with major anomalies)

659
Q

Which stage of lung development is surfactant produced?

A

Saccular phase

660
Q

Most common mode of transmission for Hep B worldwide?

A

Vertical Transmission from mother to baby

661
Q

If a parent has a robertsonian translocation 45XXder(14:21)(10q:10q) What is the chance that offspring will have phenotype of T21?

A

1/6 chance that baby is T21, but 3/6 of babies will be miscarriage so depends on if question asks about liveborn or just whether they’ll have trisomy 21. (Because 1/3 of the live births will be T21, but 1 in 6 possible outcomes of which 3 are miscarriage)

662
Q

What genetic principle explains a mom with tuberous sclerosus who has a child with heart problems, neurological lesion?

A

Variable Expressivity

663
Q

Which type of anatamosis is protective for TTTS?

A

Artery - Artery

664
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Smith Lemli Optiz?

A

Dehydrocholesterol Reductase (DHCR7)

665
Q

Local anesthetic epidural anesthesia is LEAST associated with

a) hypotension
b) FHR abnormalities
c) pruritis
d) spinal headache

A

Pruritus (that is for Narcotic epidurals, not local anesthetic)

666
Q

What is the mechanism LMWH causes anticoagulation?

A
  1. Inhibits Prothrombin

2. Binds ATIII and inhibits thrombin formation

667
Q

Which medication is contraindicated in women with liver failure for HIV treatment?

A

Nevirapine, less so Lopinavir/Ritonavir (Kaletra)

668
Q

When is breastfeeding contraindicated?

A

HIV
Untreated Active TB
HSV Lesion Breast
Infants with classic galactosemia

669
Q

What is the most common cause of CAH?

A

21 alpha hydroxylase deficiency

670
Q

What is post partum decompensation in Aortic stenosis due to?

A

Hypovolemia (keep em wet)

671
Q

What can explain a discrepancy between amniocentesis results and CVS results?

A

Confined placental mosaicism

672
Q

Which is most likely to be abnormal with fetal acidemia
Absent accelerations
decreased fetal tone
decreased fetal breathing

A

First lose accelerations, then breathing then movement then tone.

673
Q

Which 8 cardiac lesions are considered the highest risk in pregnancy?

A

(1) Pulmonary artery hypertension
(2) Previous peripartum cardiomyopathy with any residual impairment
(3) Severe Left Venricle Dysfunction (EF<30%)
(4) Severe MS
(5) Severe symptomatic AS
(6) Marfan (Aortic Root >45mm)
(7) Aorta > 50mm in bicuspid valve aortopathy
(8) Native Severe Coarctation

674
Q

Which has the lowest O2 content?

umbilical artery, umbilical vein, uterine artery, uterine vein

A

Umbilical Artery

675
Q

What is treated with spiramycin?

A

Intrauterine Toxoplasmosis

676
Q

Which of the following is not associated with paternal age >50?
Achondroplasia, NF, Marfans, Klinefelters?

A

Klienfelter’s

677
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of PKU?

A

Autosomal Recessive

678
Q

Genetic diagnosis most associated with a mom that has preeclampsia?

A

Trisomy 13

679
Q

What is the LEAST useful sonographic measurement to differentiate between IUGR and wrong dates?

A

AC

680
Q

Most common cause of mortality with anesthesia?

A

Failed intubation

681
Q

What is the mechanism of action of b-mimetics?

A

Stim. B2 receptor (G membrane protein) -> activates adenylate
cyclase ↑ intracellular cAMP + activates PKA -> decreases intracellular calcium which –> inhibits myosin light chain kinase –> so no phosphorylation of myosin and therefore muscle relaxation

682
Q

A woman has a history of 5 recurrent miscarriages. She has a 45XX: (t21,22) karyotype, her husbands’, karyotype is 46XY. What is the chance that their next offspring will be affected with Down Syndrome?

A

33%

683
Q

Early Varicella Infection, whats the most common finding of baby?

A

Skin Scars

684
Q
Which of the following is the LEAST likely diagnosis with micromelia and hypocalcification of the skull are seen or ultrasound?
 OI
 Achondrogenesis
 Hypophosphatemia
 Thanatophoric dysplasia
A

Thanatophoric dysplasia

685
Q

Patient at 35 weks with C6 spinal cord lesion admitted with severe hypertension, flushing with contractions. What is next best step in management ?

A

Epidural anesthesia (autonomic dys/hyperreflexia)

686
Q

What is the most common enzyme deficiency in CAH?

A

21 α Hydroxylase deficiency

687
Q
What causes virilization of a female fetus?
 Luteoma of pregnancy
 Cystadenoma
 Prolactinoma
 OCPs
A

Luteoma of pregnancy

688
Q

When is cardiac output the highest?

A

Immediately after delvery due to autotransfusion

689
Q

Which steroid influences sodium reabsorption?

a. Fludrocortisone
b. Hydrocortisone
c. Betamethasone
d. Cortisol

A

Fludrocortisone (Mineralocorticoid)

690
Q

Of the following which is most associated with aneuploidy:

a. Thickened nuchal fold
b. Short humerus
c. Echogenic bowel
d. EIF

A
Thickened Nuchal Fold
 #1 Absent Nasal Bone
 #2 Nuchal fold
 #3 AND 4, NOT SURE THE ORDER - Echogenic bowel and Ventriculomegaly
691
Q

What is the ethical principal which states that action is done for the benefit of others?

A

Beneficence

692
Q

OCPs are not associated with a decreased risk of which cancer?

A

Breast Cancer

693
Q

Microtia is associated with what medication?

A

Microtia - Undeveloped external ear, happens from isotretinoin (accutane)

694
Q

Baby with nasal hypoplasia and limb defects?

A

Warfarin embryopathy

695
Q

What would a biopsy of a pre-eclamptic patient show?

A

Glomeruloendotheliosis in Nulligravidas

Normal histologic appearance in multigravidas

696
Q

Which ultrasound finding in gastroschisis is most associated with intestinal atresia ?

A

Bowel dilation (>14mm strongly predicts atresia)

697
Q

Smoking is least likely associated with an incease in which pregnancy associated condition?

A

Preeclampsia

698
Q

Which HIV Medication shouldnt be used In the first trimester?

A

Efavirenz (Increased Myelomeningocele risk)

699
Q

Which rash is associated with the worst neonatal / fetal complications?

A

Pemphigus Gestationalis (prematurity, SGA)

700
Q

Injury with brachial plexus injury resulting in Erb’s palsy is at what level?

A

C5-6

701
Q

If a patient has class F diabetes, what are they at most risk of?

A
diabetic nephropathy
 #1Pre-eclampsia
 #2 PTD
 #3 Growth Restriction
702
Q

What is the sensitivity of Quad screen in detecting T21 in a patient <35 years?

A

75%

703
Q

Which does not express MHC?

A

Syncytiotrophoblasts

704
Q

Which coagulation factor decreases in pregnancy?

A

Protein S, Factor XI, XIII and platelets

705
Q

Fetus at 28 weeks with CCAM type I lesion and hydrops. Management?

A

Thoracoamniotic shunt

706
Q

What is the best medication to alleviate hypertension in a preeclamptic patient at time of general anesthesia induction?

A

Nitroglycerin, In patients in whom hypertension during laryngoscopy could result in hypertensive crisis or cardiac decompensation, the anesthesiologist may administer anti-hypertensives during intubation.

707
Q

What is the best way to decrease complications of shoulder dystocia?

A

Send staff for training, simulation

708
Q

When do you prophylax and with what for CD4 counts in HIV?

A

<200 : PCP : Bactrim
<100 : Toxo : Bactrim
<50 : MAI : Azithro

709
Q

Omphalocele is associated with which genetic syndrome?

Beckwith wiedemann, kartagener, meckel gruber?

A

Beckwith Wiedemann

710
Q

What condition with cystic fibrosis carries a poor prognosis?

A

Right heart failure (Cor Pulmonale)

711
Q

Which most explains decreased 2nd tri BP?
increased cardiac output
increased renal blood flow
decreased angiotensin sensitivity

A

Decreased Angiotensin Sensitivity

712
Q

What is the best way to perform randomization?

A

Random number block permutation

713
Q

What is not associated with intraabdominal calficiations?

CMV, Toxo, Parvo, CF, Meconium Peritonitis?

A

Parvovirus

714
Q

What is the initial treatment of pheochromocytoma in pregnancy?

A

Phenoxybenzamine (Alpha blocker)

715
Q

What is the PO2 in the Umbilical artery?

A

20

716
Q

Most likely to decrease breast milk flow?

OCP’s IUD Depo-provera

A

OCP’s

717
Q

Which is consistent with prerenal oliguria?

A

Osmolality>450

718
Q

What enzyme is missing in the placenta but fetus has?

A

17 α hydroxylase (which breaks down progesterone, we don’t want the placenta to be able to break down progesterone)

719
Q

What is the most appropriate US surveillance for MCDA twins?

A

US every other week at 16 weeks

720
Q

Which characteristic will increase passage into milk during lactogenesis

A

Lipid Soluble, Non Protein Bound, Non Ionized, Low Weight will increase passage into milk during lactogenesis.

721
Q

Which vessel has the highest fetal oxygenation?

a. IVC
b. Descending Aorta
c. RV
d. DA

A

IVC
UV -> DV -> IVC -> Left Heart –> Ascending Aorta –> Neck vessels –> Descending Aorta
Ductus Arteriosus < Descending Aora

722
Q

Action of PGI2

A

Prostacyclin is a potent vasodilator. It is produced in endothelial cells & the myometrium. It is also a uterine relaxing agent.

723
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Autosomal Dominant

724
Q

Umbilical vein has what O2 compared to uterine vein?

A

lower O2 than uterine vein

725
Q

Which is most associated with aneuploidy?

EIF, short humerus, echogenic bowel , pyelectasis?

A

Echogenic bowel (1.65X LR)

726
Q

Neonate has apnea after 30 seconds, what is next best step?

A
Positive pressure ventilation
 NRP
 (@30 seconds, if HR < 100 or Apnea --> PPV)
 (@60 HR < 60 --> Chest compressions
  HR 60-100 --> Continue PPV)
 (@90 HR <60 --> Epi and Intubate)
727
Q

Which Anastomoses protect against TTTS?

A

A-A

728
Q

Most common ovarian cancer found in pregnancy?

A

Dysgerminoma (30% of ovarian cancers found in pregnancy)

729
Q

What is the most common symptom after a lumbar puncture ?

A

Headache that gets worse with standing/sitting and better with laying flat

730
Q

Which is not related to non-disjunction in the mother?

  1. Turners
  2. Klienfelters
  3. XXX
A

Turners

The single X is maternal in origin in 70% of cases. Paternal is lost

731
Q

Most likely ultrasound finding in a patient baby with Myotonic Dystrophy?

A

Polyhydramnios

732
Q

What is hormones are HPL most like?

A

Prolactin and GH

733
Q

Treatment for toxoplasma in pregnant women?

A

Spiramycin

734
Q

Short bent femurs, humerus, radii, and thoracic circumference <5%. Normal ossification of cranuim and spine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Thanatophoric Dysplasia

735
Q

Which chromosomal abnormality is not increased in offspring of AMA females?

A

Turner Syndrome

736
Q

Initial symptom of Intravascular Lidocaine injection?

A

Tinnitus

737
Q

What hormone can increase maturation of lungs?

A

Betamethasone/Dexamethasone, Thyroxine, Vitamin A

738
Q

What is a premutation of fragile X (how many repeats)?

A

Between 55-200 (premutation)

739
Q

Treacher collins is associated with impairment in what structure?

A

The mandible

740
Q

Which Doppler finding is the worst?

A

Reversed A wave in DV

741
Q

Amino acids cross the placenta via what type of movement?

A

Active Transport

742
Q

Which of the following is important for PGE2 creation?

Arachidonic acid or Prostacyclin

A

Arachidonic acid

743
Q
Least likely with hyperparathyroidism? 
 Pancreatitis 
 HTN 
 kidney stones
 cranial califications 
 neonatal hypocalcemia
A

Cranial Calcifications

744
Q

What is the most likely cause for an LGA Fetus?

A

Maternal Obesity

745
Q

The mother has a blood type of O+ and the baby has a blood type of A+. The baby has been breast-feeding and 2 days post partum is noticed to be jaundice. The mom has no antibodies but there is a + direct Coombs. What is the most likely cause?

a) Breast Feeding
b) ABO incompatibility
c) Rh Disease
d) Immature fetal liver enzymes

A

ABO incompatibility

746
Q

Best treatment for Neisseria Gonorrhea in pregnancy?

A

Ceftriaxone

747
Q

Which Heart finding is most specific for DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

Interrupted Aorta (They said is Correct- not sure bout that), Tetralogy of Fallot (26%), Interrupted Aortic Arch (10%), Pulmonary Atresia wit VSD (24%), VSD (19%) - I think what they meant was if you have Interrupted Aortic Arch you are at 50-89% likely to have DiGeorge, but overall it is rare

748
Q

What is the primary source of precursor estrogen synthesis in the placenta?

A

C19 Precursor DHEAS from the Fetal Adrenal (Fetal Zone)

749
Q

How to control for a variable in survival analysis?

A

Cox-regression

750
Q

Which karyotype is the result of a uniparental disomy?

A

A Trisomy - results in UPD from trisomic rescue

751
Q

Which is not helpful for identifying lupus anticoagulant?

Dilute russell venom, Kaolin, Prolonged PTT, ANA?

A

ANA

752
Q

Why do you explain informed consent?

A

Autonomy

753
Q

What pregnancy outcomes does bariatric surgery improve?

A

Gestational Diabetes

Less Macrosomia

754
Q

A women has preeclampsia and oliguria. What is indicative of pre-renal process?

A

Osm >550

755
Q

What antihypertensive medication increases cardiac output?

A

Hydralazine

756
Q

What is the most common placental mass?

A

Chorioangioma - has color flow , associated with Polyhydramnios (60%) and IUGR (20%)

757
Q

Most likely to cause neonatal cushingoid syndrome in pregnancy?

A

Repeated steroid doses (though this looks like it has fallen out of favor)

758
Q

Duodenal Atresia in baby with Polyhydramnios. How does the amniotic fluid get absorbed if the baby has an obstruction?

A

Intramembranous absorption

759
Q

18 weeks pregnant with Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma, best treatment?

A

Combination Chemotherapy

760
Q

Both parents have normal stature, but both kids have achondroplasia, most likely reason?

A

Gonadal mosaicism

761
Q

Which is not associated with hydrops

listeria, syphillis, parvo, cmv, toxo

A

All of them are, Listeria is probably the least

762
Q

When should you get the flu vaccine in pregnancy?

A

As early as possible

763
Q

Patient Is 8 weeks pregnant with an IUD in place, strings are visible. You should?

A

Pull string

764
Q

Why are basic drugs like demerol concentrated in an acidemic fetus?

A

Ion trapping from a decreased isoelectric point

765
Q

Prerenal Azotemia with Preeclampsia,what lab is suggestive of this?

A

Urine osmolality >450

766
Q

When should you use a one tailed t-test?

A

results can only go in one direction

767
Q

Most common cause of non-hereditary deafness?

A

CMV (but remember 85% of congenital CMV are asymptomatic)

768
Q

What nerve injury causes decreased labial sensation?

A

Illioinguinal

769
Q

Most likely fetal outcome of radiation exposure in the first trimester?

A

Microcephaly - (also growth restriction and intellectual disability)

770
Q

Medications for SBE prevention?

A

Ampicillin or Cephalosporin

771
Q

Which antihypertensive INCREASES maternal cardiac output?

A

Hydralazine

772
Q

What is the best megahertz to assess abdominal circumference at 20 weeks?

A

3.5 mHz

773
Q

Hypospadias and congenital anomalies are increased with what REI?

A

IVF with ICSI

774
Q

Which is NOT associated with autonomic hyperreflexia?

A

Hypotension

775
Q

Which HIV drug should you avoid in first trimester?

A

Efavirenz due to concern for NTD

776
Q

Longest lasting anesthetic for an epidural?

A

Bupivicaine

777
Q

Which disease is associated with increased paternal age?

A

Achondroplasia

Neurfibromatosis Marfans

778
Q

What is the odds ratio formula?

A

AD/BC ratio of exposed cases to unexposed cases divided by ratio of exposed controls to unexposed controls

779
Q

What is most associated with ARDS in pregnancy?

PE, Infection?

A

Infection

780
Q

Which anomaly is associated with the highest risk of aneuploidy?

  1. Omphalocele
  2. Cardiac defects
  3. Gastroschisis
A

Omphalocele

781
Q

At what gestational age is Warfarin exposure at greatest risk for causing warfarin embryopathy?

A

6-9 weeks

782
Q

Which factors move the Oxygen dissociation curve to the left?

A

Left means: Higher affinity of Hb-O2

  1. Fetal Hb
  2. Lower CO2
  3. Higher pH
  4. Lower temperature
  5. Lower 2-3 DPG
783
Q

What is the most common aneuploidy found in first trimester abortions?

A

Trisomy 16

784
Q

Erb’s palsy is damage to which nerve roots?

A

C5-C6

785
Q

What is the most common complication of Chorioangioma?

A

Polyhydramnios

786
Q

What type of virus is HIV?

A

RNA Retrovirus

787
Q

Which is not associatied with autonomic hyperreflexia? At what level injury is it seen in? How is it prevented?
Hypotension, bradycardia, piloerection

A

Hypotension (Hypertension happens), T6 and above, early epidural

788
Q

What nerves is second stage labor pain due to?

A

Pudendal nerve S2-S4

789
Q

Treatment for IHSS?

A

Beta blocker (propranolol), controls the heart rate so more time for ventricular filling

790
Q

Which disease other than SLE has +SSA/SSB antibodies?

A

Sjogren’s

791
Q

Which blood product has the MOST of Factors V, VII and X?

A

FFP (has fibrinogen, factors 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, 11)

792
Q

When are the periods with the highest risk of developing a hemorrhagic stroke in pregnancy?

A

Highest during the delivery period and up to 2 weeks postpartum

793
Q

Which Interleukin is Anti-inflammatory

A

IL-10

794
Q

Bullous lesions with biopsy showing C3 deposition in the basement membrane: Diagnosis?

A

Herpes gestationis (Aka Pemphigoid gestationis))

795
Q

Which genetic condition should you consider in a Fetus with Increased Nuchal Translucency, but normal karyotype?

A

Noonan syndrome (10% of euploid with increased NT)

796
Q

What is the best method to determine heart rate in the first trimester?

A

M- Mode

797
Q

What is the MOST specific marker for T21?

A
Absent nasal bone
 #1 Absent Nasal Bone
 #2 Nuchal fold
 #3 AND 4, NOT SURE THE ORDER - Echogenic bowel and Ventriculomegaly
798
Q

What is post partum decompensation of Mitral stenosis due to?

A

Hypervolemia (keep em dry)

799
Q

What is the most common presentation of AFE?

A
  1. Hypoxia/Hypotension

2. Coagulopathy

800
Q

Which is the LEAST likely EKG finding in a normal pregnancy?

A

PR Interval increase (Normal findings: HR increases, PR interval decreases, Axis deviates left, ST and T wave changes)

801
Q

Which antibody is most responsible for immunity passed to infant through breast milk?

A

IgA

802
Q

Most common risk with AZT?

A

Anemia (Marrow Suppression) - most common adverse reaction

But Nausea.vomitting, more common / less specific.

803
Q

Which elevated value is the most predictive for poor kidney function?

a. Osmolality
b. Na
c. Chloride
d. B2-microglobulin

A

All are predictive if elevated

804
Q

Risk of Early onset GBS if not treated in labor and GBS positive?

A

1-2%
Per the CDC report, in the absence of intervention 1-2% of infants born to colonized mothers develop early-onset GBS sepsis. Prior to instituting universal screening, the incidence of GBS sepsis was 1.7/1000, now is 0.33/1000.

805
Q

What is used in the treatment of Lyme in pregnancy?

a) Penn
b) Doxy
c) Vancomycin
d) Clindamycin
e) Cephalosporin

A

Cephalosporin (Or amoxicillin)

806
Q

SSA and SSB antibodies are most associated with?

A

Neonatal Lupus (25%), Heart block ( 1-3%), Normal pregnancy most likely

807
Q

PVL is associated with which maternal infection?

A

Chorioamnionitis

808
Q

Patient with uncontrolled hyperthyroidism most likely to present with:

A
#1: Preeclampsia
 #2: Growth Restriction
 #3: Preterm delivery
809
Q

In a mother that is Rh sensitized but has a low titer, what is the next step in management?

A

Continue to follow titers

810
Q

Mutation in Sickle Cell?

A

can detect valine to glutamine at 6 position of beta chain on chromosome 11

811
Q

At what gestational age woud you deliver a patient with a subchorionic hemorrhage?

A

At term

812
Q

Folic Acid antagonist use is associated with?

A

Neural Tube Defects, Cardiac Defects and Oral Clefts

813
Q

Which is the bad malaria in pregnancy?

A

Falciparum

814
Q

Which condition is most likely to transmit to the fetus?

  1. ASD
  2. VSD
  3. Coarctation
  4. TOF
A

Coarctation

815
Q

What is the most effective treatment for steroid resistant lupus in pregnancy?

A

Azathoprine

816
Q

Common findings in congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

Chorioretinitis, hepatosplenomegaly, periventricular calfications, ventriculomegaly, disseminated purpuric rash

817
Q

Which part of the fetal adrenal gland makes DHEAS?

A

Fetal zone

818
Q

Which has lowest chance of MR in child? a) accutane in first trimester b) Rubella exposure first trimester c) varicella exposure first tri d) warfarin first trimester

A

VARICELLA TRANSMISSION IN FIRST TRIMESTER IS RARE!

819
Q

What factors are most important in oxygen delivery to tissue?

A

CO x PaO2 (Oxygen delivery = CO x arterial oxygen content )

820
Q

Amniotic fluid acetylcholinesterase is least helpful with what condition?

  1. Omphalocele
  2. Gastroschisis
  3. Congenital nephrosis
  4. Anencephaly
A

Congenital nephrosis

821
Q

Which has clinically significant levels of Factor X?

FFP or cryo?

A

FFP - has fibrinogen, factors 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, 11

822
Q

What is the most specific finding of NEC?

A

Pneumatosis - diagnosis of NEC is confirmed with gas in bowel wall on Xray

823
Q

Most likely finding of fetus in mom with hyperparathyroidism:

A

Neonatal Hypocalcemia

824
Q

Most common complication after narcotic anesthesia?

A

Pruritus

825
Q

Patient with recurrent cholelithiasis, management?

A

Lap Cholecystectomy

826
Q

Recurrent achondroplasia in a couple who are not affected are most likely associated with:

A

Germline Mutation AKA Gonadal Mosaicism

827
Q

Best contraceptive option for patient with Hepatitis C and liver disease

A

Copper IUD

828
Q

What causes diabetic retinopathy?

A

Chronic hyperglycemia - elevated HBA1c

829
Q

Who is microarray most appropriate for?

a. Abnormal integrated screen
b. VSD
c. Partner with Robertsonian translocation
d. CPC

A

VSD
microarray analysis helpful to reveal more than karyotype in
6.0% with a structural anomaly and
1.7% of AMA or positive serum screen

830
Q

What is the form of the source of metabolic fuel for the fetal myocardium?

A

Glucose

831
Q
Which disease is NOT associated with relapsing/remitting fevers?
 Brucella
 Lyme
 Malaria
 Listeria
A

Listeria

832
Q

How do you treat pregnancies at risk of NAIT?

And when do you deliver?

A

If previously affected with Thrombocytopenia and ICH IVIG @ 12 weeks - Del @ 35-36
If previously affected with thrombocytopenia but NO ICH @ 20 weeks Del @ 37-38
De

833
Q

Baby delivered at 35 weeks. 30 minutes after delivery, develops severe respiratory distress. Preductal O2sat = 90%. Postductal O2sat = 70%. CXR normal. Diagnosis?

A

PPHN, Persisent fetal circulation

834
Q

Most drugs cross the placenta by which mechanism?

A

Simple Diffusion

835
Q

Betamethasone is metabolized in the placenta by:

A

11β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2

836
Q

Which enzymes catalyzes the degradation of endothelin-1?

A

Enkephalinase

837
Q

What nerve is affected if the mother’s legs are hyperflexed during delivery?

A

Femoral nerve (Diffficulty with kicking motion)

838
Q

What is anticipation? Give an example?

A

Genetic condition passed on to next generation where symptoms worsen and come on early in the next generation, trinucleotide repeats (Huntingtons, Fragile X)

839
Q

Which fetal organ system is most susceptible to teratogens earlier and for the longest time?

A

Brain

840
Q

What does giving betamethasone due to biophysical profile?

A

Decreases breathing and Movement

841
Q

Most likely outcome with Fragile X?

A

Mental Retardation

842
Q

Risk of CP with APGAR score of <=3 at 5 minutes?

What about at 15-20 minutes?

A

An apgar score <=3 at 5 minutes is associated with 5% risk of CP. Becomes 50% when Apgar <=3 persists at 15-20 minutes.

843
Q

A pt. has Epistaxis, Telangiectasia. Diagnosis? Mode of inheritance?

A

Ossler Webber Rondu (AD)

844
Q

Low level of which hormone is most associated with placental insufficiency?

A

low PAPP-A

845
Q

Anemia, Thrombocytopenia and Renal Failure, Diagnosis?

A

HUS

846
Q

Most likely antibody to result from transfusion?

a) D
b) C
c) E
d) Kell
e) N

A

Kell

847
Q

Which drug sticks around in the body for 2 years?

A

Etretinate

848
Q

periventricular leukomalacia is most commonly associated with what pregnancy complication?
Why does it happen?

A

Intra-amniotic Infection/Chorioamnionitis

Proinflammatory cytokines damage the white matter of the brain

849
Q

Why do you treat a fetus at risk for CAH, When do you start and what is the treatment? (mother has CAH)

A

7-8 weeks, Dexamethasone to prevent virilization (CVS, if male stop treatment, if female continue)

850
Q

Which is not associated with SSRI?

a. Congenital heart defect
b. NTD
c. Neonatal withdrawal
d. PPHN

A

NTD

851
Q

The most common symptom of appendicitis in pregnancy is?

A

Abdominal pain

852
Q

Which antiseizure drug has the highest risk of NTD?

A

Valproic acid 1-2%

853
Q

What drug doesn’t cross the placenta

A

Heparin, and maybe insulin unless IgG bound.

854
Q

The use of valproic acid carries what risk of NTD?

A

1-2%

855
Q

Treatment for fetal thyrotoxisocis / hyperthyroidism?

A

Maternal PTU

856
Q

Cord Blood Gases – You have table, what is it?

A

Respiratory, metabolic, mixed?

857
Q

Which is likely to present for the first time during pregnancy?

a) Hg SC disease
b) Hg S-thal
c) Hg SS

A

Hb SC disease

858
Q

Which enzyme that the fetus lacks does the placenta have and what is its function?

A

3 Beta - Hydroxysteroid Dehydrogenase

It converts Pregnenalone to Progesterone which is the primary source of progesterone.

859
Q

As a class, what is the most common etiology for fetal malformations?

A

Genetic

860
Q

Which Immunoglobin associated with mucosal defense in

breast milk?

A

IgA

861
Q

Which disease is most commonly associated with Ro and La Antibodies?

A
Sjogrens syndrome (SSA and SSB) - 80-90%
 only in 30% of Lupus patients
862
Q

Prior neonate with ambiguous genitalia & neonatal death. What is the most likely cause of neonatal death?

A

CAH - salt wasting

863
Q

Baby delivers, meconium, develops respiratory problems after birth, CXR is clear, preductal O2 90%, postductal O2 70%?

A

Persistent fetal circulation (if cxr wassnt clear, possibly meconium aspiration)

864
Q

What are good prognosis findings in fetal urine?

A

Sodium (Na) Less than 100 mEq per liter
Chloride (Cl) Less than 90 mEq per liter
Osmolarity (Osm) Less than 210 mEq per liter
Calcium (Ca) Less than 2 mmol per liter
Beta-2 microglobulin Less than 2 mg per liter

865
Q

What antibody pattern is consistent with Recurrent CMV?

A

ERROR!

866
Q

20 yo Asian woman with low MCV, HgbA2 2.4%. Most likely cause:

A

Alpha Thalassemia

867
Q

What effeect will glucose have on BPP?

A

Increased Breathing (not movement)

868
Q

Standard Error is interchangeable with Standard Deviation?

A

YES. Standard error is the estimation of the standard deviation

869
Q

Treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

870
Q

Which cardiac anomaly most associated with DiGeorge ?

A

Interrupted aortic arch

871
Q

What should you do if cord insertion at 8 weeks is abnormal?

A

Repeat ultrasound because of physiologic herniation

872
Q

Which procedure has the greatest risk of alloimmunziation?

Amnio, CVS or Cordocentesis?

A

Cordocentesis (close to 40%)

873
Q

HIV patient not on meds, presents in labor, best single agent?

A

Zidovudine / Lamivudine

874
Q

What enzyme is the rate-limiting step in synthesis of prostaglandin?

A

Phospholipid converstion by Phospholipase A2 to Arachidonic acid

875
Q

Most common mutation in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

ColA1,2

876
Q

What bacteria is associated with Alkaline Urine UTI’s?

A

Proteus Mirabilis

877
Q

What vitamin must you supplement in vegans?

A

B12

878
Q

Which syndrome has absent radius, polyhydramnios and hydronephrosis?

A

Thrombocytopenia absent radius (TAR) Syndrome

  • can have kidney, heart and thrombocytopenia with absent radius
  • both radii are missing but thumbs are present
879
Q

What is the minimal PO2 needed to maintain maternal SaO2 >90%?

A

60

880
Q

What is the major component of surfactant?

A

Phosphotidylcholine

881
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Niemann Pick?

A

Sphingomyelinase

882
Q

How much of the screen should a cervix take up for a cervical length?

A

3/4 of screen

883
Q

What statistical test do you use for evaluation of proportions?

A

Chi Square

884
Q

Neonatal lupus most likely to present with which?

A

Rash (25%), Complete heart block (3%)

Thrombocytopenia (10%, but that was in one random BMJ article)

885
Q
Elevated AF Acetylcholinesterase is NOT associated with which of the following?
 Apalsia Cutis
 Omphalocele
 Anencephaly
 Encephalocele
 Congenital nephrosis
A

Congenital nephrosis

886
Q

Worst prognosis for neonatal CMV with?

A

Microcephaly

887
Q

What do you use to compare two means that are normally distributed that are continuous:

A

T test

888
Q

A man of normal height has 3 dwarf children with 3 different mothers, explanation?

A

Gonadal Moasaicism

889
Q

Mechanism of Uterine Contraction?

A

phospholipase C converts phospatidylinositol triphosphate to inositol triphosphate, which release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Calcium then binds to calmodulin; the calcium-calmodulin complex then activates myosin light chain kinase. Myosin light chain kinase phosphorylates myosin light chain, which enables the ATPase activity & causes sliding of myosin over actin fibrils.

890
Q

Where is PGE2 produced mostly?

A

Amnion

891
Q

Patient with Preeclampsia with ruptured liver capsule, management?

A
  • Correct Coagulopathies (likely DIC),
    • For surgical management Pack and drain
    • Improve surival with Hepatic Artery Embolization
892
Q

Which infection is associated with Placental Microabscesses?

A

Listeria

893
Q

Petechiae + hepatosplenomegaly at birth, which infectious etiology?

A

CMV

894
Q

False positives for KB?

A

Anything that can be caused by anything that causes maternal HbF to be elevated – beta thal, sickle cell

895
Q

Mom has sickle cell (hgb SS), dad unknown but carrier rate is 1/12, what is chance fetus will have hgb SS?

A

1/24,

1/12 chance hes a carrier x 1/2 risk of passing on the bad one

896
Q

Anemia, Thrombocytopenia, Renal Failure, Neurologic Abnormalities, and Fever

A

TTP

897
Q

What do you use to Differentiate TTP and HELLP

A

LDH to AST, fever (less specific)

898
Q

When does fetal movement increase the most in a 24 hour period?

A

At night

899
Q

Which autoimmune diseases are associated with RA factor?

A

Scleroderama, SLE, Sjogrens, RA and Dermatomyositis

900
Q

What is the management for a patient with Preterm Contractions but is closed?

A

Prolonged observation

901
Q

What are the most common causes of maternal mortality?

A
#1 Cardio
 #2 Infection
 #3 Hemorrhage
902
Q

Freq of an autosomal recessive disease is 1/6400, what is the carrier frequency?

A

q² = 1/6400
q = 1/80
2pq = 2 x 1/80 = 1/40

903
Q

Best Rx for type 1 Von Willebrand’s Disease?

Desmopressin, cryo, FFP

A

Desmopressin

904
Q

Spinal anesthesia resulting in sympathetic blockade is worst for?
Aortic stenosis, mitral stenosis, IHSS, Pulm HTN

A

Pulmonary Hypertension, Decreased SVR results in drop in preload which would result in inability to perfuse the pulmonary vascular bed

905
Q

If disease frequency for PKU is 1/10,000, then what is carrier frequency?

A

PKU: Autosomal Recessive

q² = 1/10,000 q = 1/100, p is always 1 2pq = 2x1/100 = 1/50

906
Q

In preeclampsia what happens to thromboxane and PGI2?

A

Thromboxane increases (normally it stsays the same) and PGI2 Decreases (normally it increases)

907
Q

The difference between quality and safety is:

A

Quality measures efficient effective care that gets the right job done at the right cost (doing things well), safety is preventing harm

908
Q

Fish highest in mercury content?

A

King Mackerel (Shark, Swordfish, Tilefish, Ahi Tuna also)

909
Q

Kid got narcotic, what is the first sign of acidosis in tracing?

A

Loss of variability

910
Q

Which organisms are most likely to cause Toxic Shock Syndrome?

A

Staph Aureus, Group A Strep

911
Q

What factor is the worst prognosticator for CDH?

A

LHR <1 is worst

Liver is bad but not the worst

912
Q

What product (of Aldosterone and testosterone) is increased in 21 hydroxylase deficiency, 17 hydroxylase deficiency and 11 hydroxylase deficiency

A

Follow the 1’s 1 = increase, BP - T
21 = BP down, Testosterone Up
17 = BP up, Testosterone down
11 = BP up, Testosterone up

913
Q

Which agents can potentially cause renal anomalies along with oligohydramnios?

A

ACE-inhibitors (-opril drugs)

914
Q
Least likely in family hx affected by Fragile X?
 Premature ovarian failure
 Ataxia 
 Family history MR 
 Gonadal Cancer
A

Gonadal Cancer

915
Q

Which Interleukin is antiinflammatory

A

IL10

916
Q

What are the Ashkenzi panel enzyme deficiencies?

A

Familial Dysautonomia
Cystic Fibrosis
Canavan: Aspartocyclase
Tay Sachs: Hexosaminidase A

917
Q

How do you treat the fetus is the mother has CAH?

A

Dexamthasone, starting at 7-8 weeks. To prevent virilization of female fetus

918
Q

Risk of peripartum transmission for recurrent HSV

A

Low, 1%

919
Q

A patient with SLE nephritis will MOST liekly have which outcome?

A

Pre-eclampsia

920
Q

Which Cardiac Lesion is the worst in pregnancy?

A

VSD with R to L shunt

921
Q

Which cardiac disease is associated with the highest mortality?

A

Pulmonary HTN with VSD and Eisenmengers (Right to Left Shunt)

922
Q

Your primary ethical responsibilities to the patient are:

A

Beneficence and autonomy (more so than nonmaleficence)

923
Q

Duodenal atresia is associated with what other findings?

A

Polyhydramnios

924
Q

Best test to compare the mean in 3 groups?

A

ANOVA (used for comparing means in more than 2 groups)

925
Q

When is CVS contraindicated ?

A

Isoimmunization (Kell/Rh/etc.)

926
Q

What is the medication used for primary pulmonary hypertension?

A

Viagra

927
Q

Least likely associated with mental retardation?

A

Only 0.4% of women with varicella in first trimester have affected children.

928
Q

Which is associated with pre-renal oliguria?

Urine osm 550, Urine Na > 20, Serum BUN:Cr 1:1

A

Urine Osm >450

929
Q

Which medications to treat SLE are teratogenic?

A

Mycophenolate Mofetil and Cyclophosphamide

930
Q

Club foot after oligo is the best example of a:

Malformation, Deformation, Disruption?

A

Deformation

931
Q

Fragile X inheritance is associated with what number of repeats? What are the repeat letters?

A

> 200

932
Q

Most likely outcome of Meconium stained fluid with normal heart tracing?

A

Normal

933
Q

What is the risk of cystic fibrosis if fathers parents has CF and carrier rate is 1/25?

A

1/100

934
Q

What is the likelihood of poor neurological outcome after the death of one twin in a MCDA twin?

A

15-25%

935
Q

What is the most common complication in pregnancy of women with Acromegaly?

A

Gestational Diabetes

936
Q

What are the main features of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?

A
Mental retardation
 Cardiac Septal Defects
 Growth Restriction
 Smooth Filtrum
 Small upper lip
 Small Palpebral fissures
 Kidney Abnormalities
937
Q

A patient presents with bullous lesions in pregnancy and has positive complement deposition. What is the diagnosis?

A

Herpes/Pemphigoid Gestationalis

938
Q

What is the structure of TRH?

A

Tripeptide

939
Q

45XX, der(13,21)(q10q10) is associated with what?

A

Normal.

This is a balanced translocation on 13q;21q

940
Q

Why is it a bad plan to give I131 in pregnancy?

A

It will destroy the fetal thyroid (because it concentrates there startingat 10-12 weeks)

941
Q

Which cardiac lesions tolerates a decrease in SVR the least?

A

Eisenmenger - right to left shunting of blood

942
Q

Bleeding circ most likely associated with what deficiency

A

Factor XIII

943
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for Non-Hodgkins lymphoma at 18 weeks?

A

Combination chemotherapy

944
Q

Fetus with intraabdominal Calcifications, Hepatosplenomegaly, Differential Diagnosis?

A

CMV/Toxo

945
Q

Which medications decreases the level of OCPs?

A

Rifampin, Carbamezapine, Phenytoin

946
Q

Which drug can cause neonatal hypotermia?

A

Valium