2012 & 2013 Past Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, you identify a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. You base this nursing diagnosis on the finding of :

a) Spo2 of 85%
b) Respiratory rate of 28/min
c) Presence of greenish sputum
d) Crackles in the right and left lower lobes

A

d) Crackles in the right and left lower lobes

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2
Q

A patient with an acute exacerbation of COPD has the following ABG analysis: pH 7.32, PaO2 58mmHg and SaO2 86%. You recognise these values as evidence of:

a) Respiratory acidosis
b) Respiratory alkalosis
c) Normal acid-base balance with hypoxemia
d) Normal acid-base balance with hypercapnia

A

a) Respiratory acidosis Normal values: pH 7.35 -7.45 PaCO2 41 - 51 mmHg PaO2 80 - 100 mmHg HCO3 22-26 mmol/l Base excess +2.5 to -2.5 SaO2 98%

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3
Q

The most common cause of pulmonary oedema is abnormal______function?

a) Kidney
b) Lung
c) Cardiac
d) Alveolar

A

c) Cardiac

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4
Q

A patient has a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Regular intermittent bubbling in suction chamber of the collection device would alert you that:

a) An air leak may be present
b) The lung has fully expanded
c) The unit is functionioning normally
d) A tension pneumothorax is developing

A

c) The unit is functionioning normally

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5
Q

A female patient is scheduled for a thoracentesis to obtain pleural fluid. She asks you to explain what causes the fluid in her lung; you explain that:

a) The pleural effusion could be caused by a tumour or other growth
b) A pleural effusion is not a disease but rather a sign of some other disease
c) Pleural effusions occur when there is any inflammation or infection in the lung
d) The cause of pleural effusions is not known but they can be treated by removing the fluid with a needle or tube

A

b) A pleural effusion is not a disease but rather a sign of some other disease

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6
Q

Factors that influence the development of hypertension include all of the following except:

a) Increased sympathetic nervous system activity
b) Increased renal absorption of sodium chloride and water
c) Decreased activity of the renin-angiotensin system
d) Decreased vasodilation

A

c) Decreased activity of the renin-angiotensin system

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7
Q

You teach a patient with hypertension that uncontrolled hypertension may damage organs in the body primarily by:

a) Promoting atherosclerosis and damage of the walls of the arteries.
b) Thickening capillary membranes, leading to hypoxia of organ systems
c) Causing direct pressure on organs, resulting in necrosis and replacement of cells with scar-tissue
d) Increasing the viscosity of the blood, contributing to intravasucular coagulation and necrosis of tissue distal to occlusions

A

a) Promoting atherosclerosis and damage of the walls of the arteries.

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8
Q

In analysing a patient’s electrocardiogram(ECG) rhythm strip, you use the knowledge that the time of the conduction of an impulse from the SA node to the AV node is represented by the:

a) P wave
b) PR interval
c) QT interval
d) QRS complex

A

a) P wave

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9
Q

Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying:

a) The stroke volume and the afterload
b) The stroke volume and the pulse rate
c) The stroke volume adn the impulse rate
d) The afterload and the preload

A

b) The stroke volume and the pulse rate Stroke volume x Heart Rate= Cardiac Output

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10
Q

One unit of packed cells is prescribed to be infused over 2 hours. The volume of the packed cells is 250mL. The infusion set drop factor is 20 drops/mL.

Which answer below is correct(to the nearest whole number)?

a) 42/drops/min
b) 84 drops/min
c) 21 drops/min
d) 125 drops/min

A

a) 42/drops/min 250x20 divide= 41.6 (42 rounded up)

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11
Q

A patient with acute coronary syndrome is admitted to the Emergency Department. Which of the following statements is not true of this diagnosis:

a) His ECG demonstrates ST segment elevation with T wave inversion
b) His chest pain lasts only 2-5 minutes
c) His chest pain occurs at rest
d) His cardiac markers are normal

A

b) His chest pain lasts only 2-5 minutes Cardiac markers can be normal upto 12 hours after an MI ECG with ST segment elevation and T wave inversion is an clinical manifestion of ACS Chest pain can occur with rest in ACS Chest pain lasts longer!! Our rationale

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12
Q

CK(Creatine Kinase)-MB and troponin levels are evaluated for a patient who has experienced chest pain and aching for the last 4 days. You expect:

a) Myoglobin levels will be needed to confirm myocardial damage
b) CK-MB will be the most reliable indicator of any myocardial necrosis that is present
c) Any serum cardiac marker will be inconclusive in determining myocardial injury that is several days old
d) The presence of myocardial damage occurring several days earlier can be validated best by the troponin level

A

d) The presence of myocardial damage occurring several days earlier can be validated best by the troponin level

Cardiac Biomarkers are released when there is damage

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13
Q

Metabolic syndrome increases the risk of coronary artery disease and consists of insulin resistance and:

a) Smoking/hypertension/obesity
b) Smoking/dyslipidaemia/genetics
c) Obesity/smoking/genetics
d) Obesity/dyslipidaemia/hypertension

A

d) Obesity/dyslipidaemia/hypertension

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14
Q

On admitting a patient with bladder cancer you identify a significant risk factor for this diagnosis is:

a) Chronic cystitis
b) Cigarette smoking
c) High caffeine intake
d) Use of artificial sweeteners

A

b) Cigarette smoking

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15
Q

Following rectal surgery, the patient tells you that he urinates about 10mL of urine every 30-60 minutes. From the list below the best for you to take initially is to:

a) Palpate for a distended bladder
b) Have the patient drink only small amounts of fluid throughout the day
c) Show the patient how to apply pressure on his bladder during unrination
d) Monitor the patient’s fluid intake and output over an 8-hour period to dertermine whether urine output is adequate

A

a) Palpate for a distended bladder Unsure but it says what you would initially do otherwise it would be D

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16
Q

You are searching the literature for the highest level of evidence for the effectiveness of low glycaemic index (GI) diets on the reduction of blood sugar levels.

a) Case studies
b) Systematic reviews
c) Randomized double blind controlled trials
d) Prospective cohort studies

A

b) Systematic reviews They are the gold standard!

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17
Q

You explain to the patient that type 2 diabetes differs from type 1 diabetes primarily in that with type 2 diabetes:

a) The patient is totally dependant on an outside sources of insulin
b) There is decreased insulin secretion and/or increased cellular resistance to insulin that is produced
c) There are islet cell antibodies and insulin autoantibodies that destroy beta cells in the pancreas
d) The C-peptide chain of proinsulin secreted by the pancreas cannot be removed by the liver, resulting in a lack of active insulin

A

b) There is decreased insulin secretion and/or increased cellular resistance to insulin that is produced

Type 2 the pancreas makes some insulin but it is not produced in the amount your body needs and it does not work effectively(insulin resistance)

Type 1 the pancreas does not make any insulin and the person needs daily insulin. This is because the body cannot turn glucose into energy and the body subsequently burns fat which causes KETOACIDOSIS.

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18
Q

A patient recovering from diabetic ketoacidosis asks you how acidosis occurs. The best response you can give is that:

a) Excess glucose in the blood is metabolised by the liver into acetone, which is acidic in nature
b) An insulin deficit promotes metabolism of fat stores, which produces large amounts acidic ketones
c) Insufficient insulin leads to cellular starvation and, as cells rupture, they release organic acids into the blood
d) When an insulin deficit causes hyperglycaemia, then proteins are daaminated by the liver, causing acidic by-products.

A

b) An insulin deficit promotes metabolism of fat stores, which produces large amounts acidic ketones. (The bodys response to starvation)

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19
Q

You are studying research that ivestigates the effectiveness of alginate dressings on the rate of wound healing. The rate of wound healing is known as the:

a) Control variables
b) Extranous variables
c) Independant variable
d) Dependant variable

A

d) Dependant variable (Dependent variable is the variable that is the effect or is the result or outcome of another variable (eg wound debridement).

As per Lecture slide (Week 13)

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20
Q

In a study where antiembolic (TED) stockings and a calf stimulator were found to be significantly more effective in preventing postoperative deep vein thrombosis than TED stockings alone, the significance (p) would be:

a) Less than .05
b) Less than .5
c) Greater than .5
d) Greater than 1

A

a) Less than .05 Expressed as a proportion between 0 and 1, where 0 = the event will not occur, 1 = the event will occur Level of significance is set before a study is commenced and is usually set at: p

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21
Q

A patient with hypovalemic shock has a urinary output of 30mL/hour. You understand that the compensatory physiological mechanism that leads to altered urinary output is:

a) Release of aldosterone, which increases serum osmolarity, causing releaseof antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
b) Movement of interstitual fluid to the intravascular space, increasing renal blood flow
c) Activation of the sympathetic nervous system, causing vasodilationn of the renal arteries
d) Beta-adrenergic receptor stimulation that causes increased cardiac output as a result of increased heart rate and myocardial contractility

A

a) Release of aldosterone, which increases serum osmolarity, causing releaseof antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ADH has an antidiuretic action that prevents the production of dilute urine to save fluid in the body

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22
Q

The major contributing factor to the development of oesophageal varices is:

a) Portal hypertension
b) Water retention
c) Lymphoedema
d) Increased serum

A

a) Portal hypertension Portal hypertension is defined as elevation of hepatic venous pressure.

Varices is an abnormally dilated vessel usually in the venous system, but may also occur in arterial or lymphatic vessels.

Ascites: Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.

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23
Q

Hepatitis A is transmitted primarily through the:

a) Sharing of needles
b) Faecal-oral route
c) Unsafe sexual practices
d) Abuse of alcohol

A

b) Faecal-oral route

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24
Q

You are caring for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy due to severe liver disease. What clinical manifestations specific to this disease should you be alert to when caring for this patient?

a) Intermittent severe right upper quandrant pain
b) Impaired peripheral circulation
c) Asterixis
d) Urinary retention

A

c) Asterixis This is a tremor of the hand when the wrist is extended.(extension-hand facing up)

Asterixis is a clinical manifestation specific to hepatic encephalopathy

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25
Q

A reliable means of determining a patients total fluid status is to conduct:

a) 4 hourly blood pressures
b) Daily weights
c) Strict fluid balance charts
d) Diuretic challenges

A

c) Strict fluid balance charts Daily weights dont give an accurate account of urinary function but can give a clue to fluid shift within the body and the build up of oedoma.

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26
Q

The primary functions of the thyroid gland are to:

a) Control cellular metabolic actvitity
b) Maintain body metabolism
c) Control normal growth
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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27
Q

Corticosteriod dosages must be gradually tapered off to avoid:

a) Thyroid storm
b) Addisonian crisis
c) Urinary retention
d) Adrenal insufficiency

A

d) Adrenal insufficiency This is because long term corticosteriod usage takes the place over from the body and if stopped suddenly can result in this.

Addison’s disease, the common term for primary adrenal insufficiency, occurs when the adrenal glands are damaged and cannot produce enough of the adrenal hormone cortisol.

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28
Q

Cushing’s syndrome has several classic signs, including facial hair, buffalo hump and:

a) Moon face
b) Pendulous breasts
c) Greatly enlarged ear lobes
d) Urinary retention

A

a) Moon face Cushing’s syndrome, or hypercortisolism, is a collection of hormonal disorders characterised by high levels of the hormone cortisol.

A buffalo hump, which is extra fat around the neck and upper part of the back.

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29
Q

The most immediately life threatening of the fluid and electrolyte changes that occur in patients with acute renal failure is:

a) Hyponatramia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypocalcemia
d) Hyperophosphatemia

A

b) Hyperkalemia In patients with acute renal failure they cannot remove excess potassium and this can cause deadly dysrythmias and alter muscle function.

Addison’s disease can lead to hyperkalemia. Hyponatramia– Low sodium (NA is sodium)

Hyperkalemia– High potassium (K is potassium) Hypocalcemia– Low calcium (CA is calcium) Hyperophosphatemia– High serum phosphate levels

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30
Q

The preferred method of permanent access for haemodialysis is:

a) Arteriovenous graft
b) PICC line(peripherally inserted central cathetor)
c) Peritoneal access device d)

Arteriovenous fistula

e)Venous cathetor (Emergency or short term access)

A

a) Arteriovenous graft= Long term access Arteriovenous fistula is a connection between an artery (which carries blood away from the heart) and a vein (which carries blood back to the heart). This allows the vein to become larger and for the walls of the vein to thicken, a process termed maturation. Arteriovenous graft Similiar to the fistula but is used for people with small veins/other contraindications while it lasts longer than the fistula it comes with an increased risk of clotting.

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31
Q

Define the following terms: Glycosuria

A

Is the excretion of glucose into the urine Two basic causes of glycosuria. One is that the level of blood glucose is so high that the renal tubules are unable to reabsorb all that is presented. The other is a failure of the tubules to reabsorb all glucose at a level where this should be possible called renal glycosuria.

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32
Q

Define the following terms: Steatorrhoea

A

Presence if excess fat in the faeces Diagnosis confirmed by stool testing for fat, patients with steatorrhoea typically report fatty, bulky stools that are difficult to flush away.

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33
Q

Define the following terms: Aldosterone

A

Steriod hormone(mineralcorticoid) Aldosterone is a hormone produced in the outer section (cortex) of the adrenal glands which sit above the kidneys. Aldosterone acts on organs such as the kidney and the colon to increase the amount of salt (sodium) reabsorbed into the bloodstream and the amount of potassium removed in the urine.

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34
Q

Define the following terms: Pruritis

A

Itching or a sensation that provokes the desire to scratch.

35
Q

Define the following terms: Exopthalmus

A

Abnormal protrusion of the eyeball Bulging of the eye anteriorly out of the orbit. Exophthalmos can either bilateral or unilateral. Complete or partial dislocation from the orbit is also possible from trauma or swelling of surrounding tissue resulting from trauma.

36
Q

Define the following terms: Hyperhidrosis

A

Abnormally increased sweating/perspiration in excess of that required for regulation of body temperature.

37
Q

Define the following terms: Ecchymosis

A

is a subcutaneous purpura (extravasation of blood) larger than 1 centimeter or a hematoma, commonly called a bruise

38
Q

Define the following terms: Nocturia

A

Frequent night time urination (which disturbs sleep)

39
Q

Define the following terms: Empyema

A

Empyema is a collection of pus in the space between the lung and the inner surface of the chest wall(pleural splace). Usually caused by an infection that spreads from the lung. Empyema is a collection of pus (dead cells and infected fluid) inside a body cavity. Usually, this term refers to pus inside your pleural cavity, or “pleural space.” The pleural cavity is the thin space between the surface of your lungs and the inner lining of your chest wall

40
Q

Define the following terms: Azotaemia

A

an excess of urea or other nitrogenous compounds in the blood. It can lead to uremia if not controlled. Abnormally high levels of nitrogen-containing compounds (such as urea, creatinine, various body waste compounds, and other nitrogen-rich compounds) in the blood. It is largely related to insufficient filtering of blood by the kidneys.

41
Q

True or False? The strongest predisposing factor for asthma is allergy?

A

True

42
Q

True or False? Patients with diastolic type heart failure have a normal ejection fraction?

A

True (Great debate on the answer though)

43
Q

True or False? Patients in atrial fibrillation are at a greater risk of stroke/CVA’s ?

A

True Patients with this condition have a increased risk because of the irregular beating of the heart

44
Q

True or False? People who consume 4 or 5 standards drinks per day are at a higher risk of developing cirrhosis of the liver

A

True The recommended daily intake for alcohol is 2 standard drinks per day and the person is exceeding that amount

45
Q

True or False? In an ECG the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarisation and contraction?

A

True The QRS complex indicates ventricular depolarization. Depolarization triggers contraction of the ventricules.

46
Q

True or False? The top margin of the ECG paper is marked at 4 second intervals to aid the calculation of the patients pulse rate?

A

False The horizontal axis of the EKG paper records time, with black marks at the top indicating 3 second intervals. Can be longer though depending on the EKG machine.

47
Q

True or False? Hypotension, a result of over secretion of renin,is common in renal failure?

A

False Increased renin= hypertension because its a osmotic pressure regulator Decreased renin= Hypotension

48
Q

True or False? The ankle-brachial index is calculated by dividing the ankle systolic pressure by the brachial systolic pressure

A

True The ankle-brachial index test compares your blood pressure measured at your ankle with your blood pressure measured at your arm. No blockage (1.0 to 1.4). Borderline (0.9 to 0.99). Mild blockage (0.8 to 0.89). Moderate blockage (0.5 to 0.79). Severe blockage (less than 0.5). Rigid arteries (more than 1.4).

49
Q

True or False? In acid base balance, a buffer is a substance that can release or combine with an acid but not a base

A

False Buffers are most typically made up of a weak acid and its conjugate base. Therefore, buffers can readily absorb excess H+ or OH–, keeping the pH of the system carefully maintained in a narrow range.

50
Q

True or False? Vomiting and diarrhoea are common manifestations of a lower urinary tract infection?

A

False Pain on urination and possibily fever if left unchecked and can cause mental status change in the elderly

51
Q

The coronary artery blood flow is mainly regulated by pressure within the:

A

Aorta

52
Q

The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is measured as it’s:

A

PH

53
Q
A
54
Q
  1. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. The nurse bases this nursing diagnosis on the finding of:a) SpO2 of 85%b) respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minc) presence of greenish sputumd) crackles in the right and left lower lobes
A

d) crackles in the right and left lower lobes

55
Q
  1. A patient experiences a flail chest as a result of a motor vehicle accident. During the respiratory assessment the nurse would expect to find:a) bloody sputumb) laryngeal stridorc) deep, irregular respirationsd) paradoxical chest movement
A

d) paradoxical chest movement http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mJ_FYwUqzsM)

56
Q
  1. A patient has a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Continuous bubbling in the -suction chamber of the collection device would alert the nurse that:a) an air leak may be present b) the lung has fully expandedc) the unit is functioning normallyd) a tension pneumothorax is developing
A

a) an air leak may be present

57
Q
  1. A patient is scheduled for a thoracentesis to obtain pleural fluid for diagnosis of a large pleural effusion. She asks the nurse to explain what causes the fluid in her lung. The nurse explains that:a) the pleural effusion could be caused by a tumour or other growthb) a pleural effusion is not a disease but rather a sign of some other disease c) pleural effusions occur when there is any inflammation or infection in the lungd) the cause of pleural effusions is not known but they can be treated by removing the fluid with a needle or tube
A

b) a pleural effusion is not a disease but rather a sign of some other disease (Smeltzer and Bares pg 542).

58
Q
  1. A patient with an acute exacerbation of COPD has the following ABG analysis: pH 7.32, PaO2 58 mmHg, PaCO2 55 mmHg and SaO2 86%. The nurse recognises these values as evidence of:a) respiratory acidosisb) respiratory alkalosisc) normal acid–base balance with hypoxaemiad) normal acid–base balance with hypercapnia
A

a) respiratory acidosis

59
Q
  1. The nurse teaches a patient with hypertension that uncontrolled hypertension may damage organs in the body primarily by:a) promoting atherosclerosis and damage of the walls of the arteriesb) thickening capillary membranes, leading to hypoxia of organ systemsc) causing direct pressure on organs, resulting in necrosis and replacement of cells with scar tissued) increasing the viscosity of the blood, contributing to intravascular coagulation and necrosis of tissue distal to occlusions
A

a) promoting atherosclerosis and damage of the walls of the arteries

60
Q
  1. During the assessment of a 50-year-old patient who has newly diagnosed stage 1 hypertension, the patient admits he uses a lot of salt on his food and has not been able to lose the 14 kg he has gained in the last 10 years. He does not understand why he has hypertension because he is not an anxious person. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for the nurse to identify for the patient is:a) non-compliance related to lack of motivationb) disturbed self-esteem related to diagnosis of hypertensionc) altered health maintenance related to lack of knowledge of disease process and managementd) anxiety related to complexity of management regimen and lifestyle changes associated with hypertension
A

c) altered health maintenance related to lack of knowledge of disease process and management

61
Q
  1. A 45-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room after developing severe chest pain while raking leaves. On admission he has mid-chest dullness and a normal electrocardiogram (ECG). The doctor schedules the patient for cardiac catheterisation with coronary angiography and possible percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The nurse prepares the patient for the procedure by explaining that, in his case, it is used to:a) determine whether there are any structural defects in the walls or chambers of his heartb) determine whether any obstructions are present in his coronary arteries and to test for an allergy to thrombolytic agentsc) measure the amount of blood being pumped from his heart with each contraction to determine whether there is heart damaged) visualise any blockages in the coronary arteries and, if necessary, to dilate an obstructed artery with the use of a small balloon
A

d) visualise any blockages in the coronary arteries and, if necessary, to dilate an obstructed artery with the use of a small balloon

62
Q

While observing the ECG monitor of a patient admitted to the emergency department with chest pain, the nurse suspects that the patient is having a myocardial infarction rather than angina upon finding:a) sinus tachycardiab) depressed R wavec) ST segment elevationd) occasional premature ventricular contractions

A

c) ST segment elevation

63
Q
  1. CK-MB and troponin levels are evaluated for a patient who has experienced chest pain and aching for the last 4 days. The nurse expects:a) myoglobin levels will be needed to confirm myocardial damageb) CK-MB will be the most reliable indicator of any myocardial necrosis that has occurredc) any serum cardiac marker will be inconclusive in determining myocardial injury that is several days oldd) the presence of myocardial damage occurring several days earlier can be validated best by the troponin level
A

d) the presence of myocardial damage occurring several days earlier can be validated best by the troponin level

64
Q
  1. During assessment of a 72-year-old man with swelling in his ankles, the nurse finds jugular venous distension with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees. The nurse knows this finding indicates:a) decreased fluid volumeb) elevated right atrial pressure c) incompetent jugular vein valvesd) atherosclerosis of the jugular veins
A

b) elevated right atrial pressure http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HgIO7ciVIDQ)

65
Q
  1. In analysing a patient’s electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm strip, the nurse uses the knowledge that the time of the conduction of an impulse through the Purkinje fibres is represented by the:a) P waveb) PR interval c) QT intervald) QRS complex
A

b) PR interval Rationale: The PR interval represents depolarization of the atria, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and the Purkinje fibers, up to the point of depolarization of the ventricular cells.

66
Q
  1. A patient has been receiving intravenous heparin therapy for 6 days for treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The doctor now orders warfarin without discontinuing the heparin. The patient questions the nurse about the use of both drugs. The nurse’s best response to the patient is:a) ‘I will check with the doctor about this. You could be at risk of bleeding with both drugs.’b) ‘Because of the potential for a pulmonary embolism, it is important for you to have additional anticoagulants.’c) ‘It takes several days for the warfarin to have an effect, so we need to keep you on the heparin for a few more days.’d) ‘Because you are allowed more activity now, the heparin is metabolised faster and needs to be supplemented with the warfarin.’
A

c) ‘It takes several days for the warfarin to have an effect, so we need to keep you on the heparin for a few more days.’

67
Q
  1. In planning care for a patient with a venous stasis ulcer on the right lower leg, the nurse understands that the most important intervention in promoting healing of the ulcer is:a) adequate dietary intake of proteins and vitaminsb) prevention of infection with prophylactic antibioticsc) application of external compression to decrease venous stasis and oedemad) keeping the ulcer moist with hydrocolloid or damp gauze dressings to promote epithelialisation
A

a) adequate dietary intake of proteins and vitamins

68
Q
  1. Assessment findings that the nurse would expect in the patient with a lower urinary tract infection include:a) fever and flank painb) dysuria and cloudy urinec) leucocytosis and oliguriad) chills and nausea and vomiting
A

b) dysuria and cloudy urine

69
Q
  1. Name three types of validity:
A
  1. Content validity 2. Criterion related validity 3. Construct validity (According to pg 214 Nursing and Midwifery Research 3rd edition Schneider et al, 2008)
70
Q
  1. List the five first line response drugs used in the event of a cardiac arrest. Give a brief description of each drug’s specific mechanism of action:
A

Oxygen – improves tissue oxygenation and corrects hypoxaemiaAdrenaline – increases systemic vascular resistance and BP, improves coronary and cerebral perfusion and myocardial contractilityVasopressin – increases systemic vascular resistanceAtropine – blocks parasympathetic action, increases SA node automaticity and AV conductionSodium bicarbonate – corrects metabolic acidosisMagnesium – promotes adequate functioning of cellular sodium-potassium pump(Smeltzer & Bares pg 848)

71
Q
  1. List the 4 components of a physical examination of the respiratory system and list 2 abnormalities that may affect the results from each component:
A

I – Inspection Abnormalities: Skeletal deformities may limit thoracic cage excursion: scoliosis, kyphosis , broken ribs, thoracic cage abnormalities.P – PalpationAbnormalities: Thickness of the chest wall and relative location of bronchi to the chest wall will affect the normal intensity of tactile fremitus.P – PercussionAbnormalities: The resonant note may be modified somewhat in the athlete with a heavily muscular chest wall and in the heavily obese adult in whom subcutaneous fat produces scattered dullness.A – Auscultation Abnormalities: Noises may be modified by obstruction within respiratory passageways or by changes in the lung parenchyma, the pleura or the chest wall.(Note: it is Respiratory Assessment pneumonic - HIPPA from 105 minus the H for History – Remember HIPPA minus the H so just IPPA)Spinal and Rib abnormalities - Abnormalities in the skeletal system or chest wall itself can result in a restrictive ventilatory defect.

72
Q
  1. Give the normal adult male values of the following:Tidal volume Vital Capacity Anatomical Dead Space Volume
A

Tidal volume – 500ml or 5-10mL/kgVital Capacity – 4,600 mLAnatomical Dead Space Volume - The anatomic dead space is equal to the volume exhaled during the first phase plus half that exhaled during the second phase and is about 150 ml on the average in humans which is a third of the Tidal volume http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ndf7Mn_eB0I(Smeltzer and Bare’s Table 16-1 pg 457)

73
Q

The coronary artery blood flow is mainly regulated by pressure within the:

A

Aorta http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tBQa8IBzP6I

74
Q
  1. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is measured as it’s:
A

pH

75
Q
  1. Define and explain the pathophysiology of intermittent claudication:
A

A muscular cramp-like pain in the extremities consistently reproduced with the same degree of exercise or activity and relieved by rest. This pain is caused by the inability of the arterial system to provide adequate blood flow to the tissues in the face of increased demands for nutrients during exercise. As the tissues are forced to compete the energy cycle without nutrients, muscle metabolites aggravate the nerve endings of the surrounding tissue. Usually about 50% of the arterial lumen or 75% of the cross-sectional area must be obstructed before intermittent claudication is experienced. This subsides by rest because it deceases the metabolic needs of the muscles and the pain subsides.

76
Q
  1. List the 3 components of Virchow’s triad:
A

Venous stasis (Slow/Stagnant blood flow) Hypercoagulability Endothelial injury/damage (e.g. hypertension)http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4JRMnIkDP3M

77
Q
  1. Define and explain the pathophysiology of “insulin resistance:”
A

According to Smeltzer & Bares (pg 1236)Insulin resistance may occur in patients for various reasons, most common being obesity, which can be overcome by weight loss. Clinical insulin resistance has been defined as a daily insulin requirement of 200 units or more. In most diabetic patients taking insulin, immune antibodies develop and bind to insulin, thereby decreasing the insulin available for use. All animal insulins, as well as human insulins to a lesser degree, cause antibody production in humans. Very few patients develop high levels of antibodies. It is normally with history of uninterrupted insulin therapy for several months or more. Treatment consists of administering a more concentrated insulin preparation or prednisolone (cordicosteroids) to block the production of antibodies. Also, gradual reduction in insulin requirement and monitoring for hypoglycaemia.

78
Q
  1. Describe the nursing care and clinical management of a patient who has been diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction. Assuming the patient undergoes immediate thrombolysis treatment describe the nursing care and potential complications:
A

Administer oxygen and position in semi-fowler’s position Promote rest and reduce anxiety (reassurance, clear explanations) Regular and careful monitoring of ECG, vital signs, respiratory status, LOC Administer analgesia (morphine) for pain - follow up with pain assessment Administer Ace Inhibitors, beta-blockers and GTN Administer Thrombolytics – increased risk of bleeding, therefore: monitor for bleeding, minimise skin punctures, avoid IM injections, start IV lines before initiating thrombolytic therapy, cease if bleeding occurs. Prepare for percutaneous coronary intervention

79
Q
  1. The greater the validity of an instrument, the more confidence you can have that the instrument will obtain data that will answer the research questions?True / False?
A

True

80
Q
  1. Patients with diastolic type heart failure have a normal ejection fraction?True / False
A

Truehttp://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PKGP9rAei_E

81
Q
  1. Up to 70% FiO2 may be used safely for 48 hours for oxygen supplementationTrue / False
A

True

82
Q
  1. The ankle-brachial index is calculated by dividing the ankle systolic pressure by the brachial arm systolic pressureTrue / False
A

True

83
Q
  1. In an ECG the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarisation and contraction?True / False
A

True

84
Q

Instructions:- please consider the case study below.Formulate three nursing diagnoses with expected outcome, with two interventions and rationale each.Complete these in order of priority in the care plan template below. (15 Marks)Patient profile• Mrs Simmons, a 30-year-old Indigenous Australian mother of two preschool children, comes to the emergency department (ED) with severe wheezing, dyspnoea and anxiety. She was in the ED only 6 hours ago with an acute asthma attack.Subjective data• Treated in the ED previously with nebulised salbutamol and started to respond to the treatment. She left against medical advice earlier, stating that she needed to care for her 2 young children, stating that her husband was unreliable.• Can speak only one- to three-word sentences• Is allergic to cigarette smoke• Began to experience increased shortness of breath and tightness in her chest when she returned home• Used salbutamol MDI (without a spacer) repeatedly at home with no relief• Coughing at night wakes her up 3–4 times a week• Has no healthcare provider she sees regularly. On no prescribed medicationsObjective dataPhysical examination• Uses accessory muscles to breathe with some nasal flaring• Has audible wheezing • Respiratory rate: 34 breaths/min• SaO2 is 85%• Auscultation reveals no air movement in lower lobes• Heart rate: 126 beats/minDiagnostic studiesABGs: PaO2 10.5 kPa (80 mmHg); PaCO2 4.5 kPa (35 mmHg); pH 7.46PEFR: 150 L/min (personal best: 400 L/min)

A

Ineffective airway clearance: assessment, administer medication (bronchodilator therapy, corticosteriods, mucolytics, expectorants), encourage deep breathing and cough, promote hydration to thin secretions etc. Impaired gas exchange: assessment, O2 therapy with humidification, position for maximum lung expansion etc. Fatigue: promote rest, reduce anxiety (kids), assistance with ADL’s etc