Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

California Boards > 2011 > Flashcards

2011 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Minimum legal age for rabies vaccine in dog?
    a. 3 months
    b. 4 months
    c. 5 months
    d. 6 weeks
A

b. 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you diagnose Avian Chlamydia?

A

a. Complement fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Long term pain management in cats

a. carprofen
b. ketoprofen
c. buprenorphine
d. acetaminophen

A

c.buprenorphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F: Contagious ecthyma is zoonotic

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

2) Bacteria most commonly associated with foxtail migration?
a. Pasteurella
b. Actinomyces pyogenes
c. Mycobacterium
d. Staphylococcus

A

b. Actinomyces pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

3) Why do you not want to vaccinate a pregnant bitch or queen?
a. May cause fetal deformation and/or death
b. May cause revision to a virulent form
c. May cause fetal immunosuppression
d. Pregnancy decreased effective antibody production

A

a. May cause fetal deformation and/or death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

4) You tested a 4 month old stray kitten with FIV using the ELISA snap test. What can you conclude?
a. Kitten has FIV
b. Cannot conclude and retest in a month
c. The queen has FIV (gave cat maternal antibodies)
d. Retest after 6 months due to maternal antibiodies

A

d. Retest after 6 months due to maternal antibiodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

5) What is the most common cause of diarrhea in rabbits and what is the appropriate
treatment?
a. Tyzzer’s disease; tetracycline
b. Salmonella, oral antibiotics (rare in rabbits)
c. Mucoid enteropathy; oral antibiotics (diarrhea as a result of mixture of constipation, toxins
and non-specific bacteria – need to increase fiber)
d. Coccidiosis; sulfadimethoxine (usually subclinical)

A

a. Tyzzer’s disease; tetracycline- On 2011 Tyzzer’s disease was paired with Penicillin
(not correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

6) Your patient is a puppy with T=102.5, P=150, R=48. What is the cause?
a. Left in hot car
b. Normal
c. Excited puppy

A

b. Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

7) When is the best time to apply a fentanyl patch?
a. Immediately after surgery before they wake up from anesthesia
b. 12-24 hours before sx
c. 1-2 hours before sx
d. 12-24 hours after sx

A

b. 12-24 hours before sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
8) To differentiate pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism from adrenal tumor, what test
should you use?
a. ACTH stim (measure cortisol)
b. Urine creatinine:cortisol ratio
c. Low dose Dex suppression
d. High dose Dex suppression
A

d. High dose Dex suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

9) A woman brings a litter of Dalmatian puppies to your clinic. How do you check for
deafness?

A

a. BAER test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

10) Ivermectin is ineffective against which parasite?
a. Anoplocephala (horse tapeworm)
b. Parascaris
c. Strongyles

A

a. Anoplocephala (horse tapeworm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

13) Where would you take pulse in the horse
a. External carotid, lateral thoracic, median
b. Facial, femoral, external carotid
c. Median, external iliac, digital
d. Facial, digital, metatarsal

A

d. Facial, digital, metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
14) What do you do when a horse that you are treating with TMS becomes anorexic and
develops diarrhea?
a. Stop TMS, CBC, banamine
b. Continue TMS, CBC, banamine
c. Stop TMS, chemistry, bute
d. Continue TMS, chemistry, bute
A

a. Stop TMS, CBC, banamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

16) What would you expect to see with a 4-point block for an enucleation on a cow?
a. Exophthalmos and miosis
b. Exophthalmos and mydriasis
c. Endophthalmos and miosis
d. Endophthalmos and mydriasis

A

b. Exophthalmos and mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
17) Which of the following is consistent with signs of heart failure, thoracic edema and swollen
liver in dairy calves
a. Nitrate toxicity
b. Urea toxicity
c. Copper toxicity
d. Gossypol
A

d. Gossypol (cardiotoxic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

18) Strep zoo causes infertility not abortions?

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

19) Arsenic binds sulfhydryl groups on enzymes and other cellular proteins, impairing cellular respiration and depleting energy stores.
Tissues most affected are those rich in oxidative enzymes including…?

A

(GI tract, endothelium, lung, kidney, liver, and epidermis).
GI inflammation and necrosis causes hemorrhagic gastroenteritis. Endothelial damage results in fluid loss into interstitium, hypovolemia, hypotension, and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema.
Hepatic and renal damage from direct effect of arsenic or secondary to hypovolemia and organ hypoperfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

20) What do you do with gastrophilus?

A

Anti-parasitic programs , ivermectin good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

21) How do you treat for Actinobacillus ligneresii?
a. Sodium chloride
b. Potassium iodide
c. Sodium iodide
d. Potassium chloride

A

c. Sodium iodide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
22) You see a 2 yo intact cat that has enlarged mammary glands of 3cm. The cat is BAR, has unremarkable abdomen on palpation, and an otherwise normal physical exam. What is your
likely diagnosis?
a. Pregnant
b. Mastitis
c. Mammary adenocarcinoma
d. Benign mammary hyperplasia
A

d. Benign mammary hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: Need negative EIA for transport across state lines with horses

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

24) Propylene glycol in cats?

A

Heinz body anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

25) What is the most frequent cause of corneal ulcers in a cat?
a. Calcivirus
b. Herpesvirus
c. FeLV
d. FIV

A

b. Herpesvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

26) What is the reveral agent for detomidine?
a. Naloxone
b. Atropine
c. Yohimbine

A

c. Yohimbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

27) Outdoor dog with a clean hole under its eye that is non-painful
a. Musca (fly)
b. Foxtail

A

b. Foxtail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
28) An owner brings in a dog and you diagnose it with pulmonary coccidiomycosis. What do
you tell the owner?
a. Quarantine the dog for 2 months
b. Treat with ??
c. There is little threat to the owner
d. Euthanize the dog
A

c. There is little threat to the owner (pulmonary is not zoonotic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

29) What is a likely disease of a baby rabbit with diarrhea and how should you treat it?
a. Tyzzer’s (clostridium piliformes); tetracycline
b. Coccidia; sulfadimethoxine
c. Salmonella; oral antibiotics
d. Mucoid enteropathy; oral antibiotics

A

a. Tyzzer’s (clostridium piliformes); tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

30) A parrot eats tomato, avocado, lima beans, lettuce and chicken. It is now in respiratory distress. What part of diet is responsible?
a. Lima bean
b. Avocado
c. Tomato
d. Chicken

A

b. Avocado

31
Q

Normal/abnormal: Large coroidal vessels dorsal lateral to the fundus in a horse?

A

a. Not normal

32
Q

32) A dog that has been HBC comes in obtunded, in shock, with loss of deep pain and anal tone,
paralysis of all 4 limbs. What do you tell the owner?
a. Has cervical lesion
b. Has an intracranial lesion
c. You need to stabilize the dog and re-evaluate later
d. Has severe neurologic deficits with poor prognosis

A

c. You need to stabilize the dog and re-evaluate later

33
Q

33) Cat comes in with neuroligic signs, chewing at a wound for 3 days, fractious what do you do?
a. Sedate and radiograph?
b. Euthanize and freeze
c. Sedate and PE and radiographs

A

b. Euthanize and freeze?

34
Q

34) You have a dog that had a seizure. The dog has a normal blood biochemistry. What would be the appropriate next test?
a. EMG and CSF
b. EMG and Echocardiography
c. MRI and CSF
d. MRI and Echocardiography

A

c. MRI and CSF

35
Q

35) Which should not be used in the horse
a. Diazepam
b. Ketamine
c. Guai?

A

?

36
Q

T/F: Sulfadimethoxine can be used in cattle

A

True?

37
Q

Most common bacteria in cat bites?

A

Pasturella

38
Q

38) A 2 yo FS border collie presents with violent persistent sneezing with unilateral epistaxis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Intranasal carcinoma (too young)
b. Intranasal foreign body
c. Aspergillus (bilateral and no epistaxis)
d. Infectious rhinitis (bilateral)

A

b. Intranasal foreign body

39
Q

39) Where should controlled drugs be kept?
a. In a lock cupboard with other controlled drugs
b. Lock box intermingled with non-controlled drugs
c. In the veterinarian’s locked office
d. In a drawer

A

a. In a lock cupboard with other controlled drugs?

40
Q

40) What type of drug is contraindicated with glaucoma?
a. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (methazolamide)
b. Topical beta blocker (timolol)
c. Mydriatic (atropine)
d. Miotic

A

c. Mydriatic (atropine)

41
Q

41) Which of the following drugs is prohibited in lactating dairy cattle?
a. Sulfadiazine
b. Penicillin
c. Sulfadimethoxine (coccidia)

A

a. Sulfadiazine

42
Q

42) Which mastitis pathogen can be eradicated?
a. Strep uberis
b. Strep dysgalactiae
c. E. coli

A

b. Strep dysgalactiae

43
Q

43) Which age group of cattle is most susceptible to Anaplasmosis?

A

a. Older cattle

44
Q

44) Holstein dairy with 10 day calves with diarrhea. 100% morbidity, 0% mortality. Adequate passive transfer has been demonstrated. Next dx step?
a. ELISA for cryptosporidium (1-3 weeks)
b. Fecal culture and ELISA for E. coli K99 (<5days)
c. ELISA for BVD (adult)
d. Fecal float for coccidiosis (months to year)

A

a. ELISA for cryptosporidium (1-3 weeks)

45
Q

45) A 4H sheep was given clenbuteral, what do you tell the client:
a. Can be slaughtered and used for home consumption only
b. Meat is contaminated and cannot be used for human consumption
c. Withdrawl time for meat/milk is 30 days and then can be slaughtered
d. Withdrawl time for meat/milk is 60 days and then can be slaughtered

A

b. Meat is contaminated and cannot be used for human consumption

46
Q

46) A 10 yo beef cow is examined for poor condition and pitting edema cranial to udder. She is afebrile. There are bilateral softball sized masses at the internal iliac arteries and similar masses
in the supramammary region. What is the disease?
a. Mycoplasma bovis (respiratory and mastitis)
b. Bovine leukemia virus (most common cause of lymphoma)
c. Actinomyces pyogenes (liver abcesses, endometritis)
d. Actinobacillus ligneresii (Woody tongue)

A

b. Bovine leukemia virus (most common cause of lymphoma)

47
Q

47) Goat with epididymitis. What should you do?
a. Cull (Brucella)
b. Tetracycline
c. No sex for 2 weeks
d. Vaccinate for B. ovis

A

a. Cull (Brucella)

48
Q

48) What is the best location for projectile euthanasia in cattle?
a. Equidistant between ears
b. Equidistant between eyes
c. Equidistant between alanto-occipital joint and pole
d. Equidistant between ears and eyes

A

d. Equidistant between ears and eyes

49
Q

49) What diagnostic test would be performed to diagnose uroperitoneum in a 2 yo colt?
a. Serum BUN
b. Urine BUN
c. Serum creatinine
d. Abdominocenesis (to obtain creatinine)

A

d. Abdominocenesis (to obtain creatinine)

50
Q

50) A horse has fallen down after administration of detomidine. How do you reverse it?
a. Yohimbine
b. Naloxone

A

a. Yohimbine

51
Q

51) You have just diagnosed equine viral arteritis on a breeding farm, what is
the most appropriate next step?
a. Reassure the owner that EVA is self limiting and that no specific treatment will be required
b. Euthanize the horses immediately due to potential zoonotic risk
c. Contact state veterinarian
d. Separate the horses by age

A

c. Contact state veterinarian

52
Q 
52) What is the most appropriate suture material for wound repair of a contaminated skin
laceration to a horse’s dorsal MC3?
a. Vicryl
b. PDS (polydioxanone)
c. Silk
d. Prolene
A

d. Prolene (polypropylene – least reactive)

53
Q

53) Several lambs in a flock are diagnosed with urolithiasis (most likely struvite). What is the best recommendation you can give the farmer?
a. Increase P in diet
b. Increase Mg in diet
c. Increase salt in diet (increase H2O intake)
d. Decrease Ca in diet

A

c. Increase salt in diet (increase H2O intake)

54
Q 
54) A woman bring in a group of budgies that range in age from a few months to 5 years. Two have died, other are sick with ruffled feathers, respiratory distress and lethargy. She feeds them seeds along with vegetables and fruit. Which food item is most likely responsible for their
deaths?
a. Olives
b. Avocado
c. Tomatoes
A

b. Avocado

55
Q

55) An adult horse with limb edema, icterus, anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia,
neutrophilic inclusions has what?
a. Ehrlichia risticii (Potomac Horse fever)
b. Anaplasma phagocytophilum (Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis)
c. Equine viral arteritis
d. Equine herpes virus

A

b. Anaplasma phagocytophilum (Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis)

56
Q

56) Cat with facial edema and swelling and…
a. Lily
b. Arsenic
c. Propylene glycol
d. Oleander

A

?

57
Q 
57) Feline presented for stiffness and lameness in all 4 limbs. On PE all 4 limbs have decreased range of motion in joints. Radiographs show multiple locations of vertebral spondylosis and exostoses around joints. Owner feeds home cooked diet of exclusively liver. Diagnose which
nutrient disease?
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Vitamin D deficiency
c. Vitamin A toxicity
d. Vitamin E toxicity
A

c. Vitamin A toxicity

58
Q

58) Managing arthritic pain in cats
a. Ketoprofen
b. Carprofen
c. Butorphanol

A

?

59
Q

59) A cow with urolithasis. What do you do?

A

a. Add NaCl 12-16% to the top of the feed

60
Q

60) What is a common cause of sickness/death of horses?
a. Feed mixed with chicken feed
b. 4th harvest alfalfa
c. Hay

A

a. Feed mixed with chicken feed (high in nitrites)

61
Q 
61) Arthrogryposis (ankylosis of the limbs) and intestines of the fetus are in the placenta of a
pregnant horse. This is caused from:
a. Uterine torsion
b. Uterine tear
c. Schistosomus reflexus
A

c. Schistosomus reflexus

62
Q

62) A horse treated with TMS becomes febrile, tachypeic, and tachycardic. What do you do?
a. Stop drug and re-examine immediately
b. Stop drug and wait 2 weeks
c. Continue the drug

A

a. Stop drug and re-examine immediately

63
Q

63) Terminate pregnancy in dog
a. Prostaglandins
b. DES
c. Estradiol
d. Progesterone

A

a. Prostaglandins

64
Q

64) Head tilt and ear droop in rabbits– causative agent(s)?

A

a. Encephalitozoon cuniculi and Pasteurella multocida (Snuffles)??

65
Q

65) EBA (foothill abortion) is transmitted by:
a. Ticks (Ornithodoros coriaceus)
b. Mosquitoes
c. Culicoides

A

a. Ticks (Ornithodoros coriaceus)

66
Q

66) What predisposes to enterolith formation in horses
a. Oat
b. Alfalfa
c. Rye
d. Timothy

A

b. Alfalfa (higher pH and more Ca, Mg and Sulfur)

67
Q

67) Eye surgery = non-depolarizing NMBA (atracurium)
a. Propofol
b. Ketamine

A

a. Propofol

68
Q

68) Horse with dental disease of caudal maxillary molars. Where can this spread to?
a. maxillary sinusitis
b. TMG
c. Eyes

A

a. maxillary sinusitis

69
Q

69) What is common cause of mastitis?

A

a. Contagious: Strep agalactiae, S. aureus, M. bovis
b. Environmental: E. coli, Strep dysagalactiae, strep uberus
c. DX: elevated SCC (nucleated cells found in milk >600,000), CMT (>1+), culture
d. TX: frequent milking, intramammary (Cefa) and systemic antibiotics, fluids, NSAIDs (banamine); cull if chronic

70
Q

70) Where do you hear a ping for RDA

A

?

71
Q

71) Young dog with patchy places of alopecia and lymphadenopathy what tests do you do?

A

a. LN aspirate, scrape, fungal culture, …?

72
Q

72) A brachycephalic dog of some sort comes in post trauma. Its eye is hanging out of its socket, the eye is hemorrhagic, and its cornea is ripped open and the iris has prolapsed through:

A

a. Enucleate the eye and place on systemic Abx

73
Q

73) Which drug is contraindicated for an animal with increased intracranial pressure?
a. Ketamine
b. Propofol
c. Diazepam

A

a. Ketamine

California Boards (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions