201 Flashcards

1
Q

birth of cell biology

A

1950s, ability to grow cells from many organs for a limited time however cancer cell lines grew immortally within the lab.

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2
Q

birth of cell bio (TEM)

A

development of new imaging techniques (TEM) allowed visualisation of cell structures, combined with staining techniques and now very advanced microscopy is now used.

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3
Q

Cell fractionation (birth of cell bio)

A

separates parts of the cell by size/density, rough er breaks down into smaller microsomes. The higher the speed the smaller the parts of the cell come out.

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4
Q

what could microsomes help study

A

the secretory pathway of a cell

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5
Q

The two main protein sorting pathways in eukaryotes

A

cytosolic proteins are sorted in the cytosol and membrane, luminal and secreted proteins are translated on the ribosomes of the rough ER

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6
Q

Where does translation start

A

on free ribosomes in the cytosol

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7
Q

where can proteins be targetted?

A

to the nucleus, to the mitochondria, a large amount of proteins are secreted out of the cell or trafficked to other organelles of the cell.

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8
Q

post translational translocation

A

chloroplasts translated in the cytosol and contains targeting sequence afterwards.

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9
Q

Co translational translocation

A

Membrane, luminal and secreted proteins are translated on the ribosomes of the rough ER:

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10
Q

How is a secretory protein targeted to the rough ER where it is needed to be translated?

A
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11
Q

What could be used to track secretory proteins and how they move throughout the cell? (OLD METHOD)

A

pulse-chase labelling system

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12
Q

pulse chase labelling system

A

label a subset of new proteins - pulse-chase: add a pulse of radiolabelled aa into cell culture media and chase it with normal aa. Activity can be followed using microscopic techniques (autoradiography).

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13
Q

Finding after pulse-chase labelling secretory proteins (observing trafficking)

A

new proteins very quickly associated (made) with the membrane of the ER -> ER important for secretion.

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14
Q

process of the pulse chase labelling system

A
  1. choose cell type that secretes proteins
  2. add a pulse of radiolabelled aa into cell culture media and chase it with normal aa
  3. follow where the radioactivity goes using microscopic techniques (autoradiography)
  4. isolate microsomes and treat with detergent and protease
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15
Q

What effect did the detergent have on the microsomes in the pulse chase labelling system

A

break down the fatty membrane of the microsome

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16
Q

what effect did protease have on the microsomes in the pulse chase labelling system

A

if detergent was added it would destroy the protein as the microsome membrane had been broken. If the membrane was not broken down the protein was protected.

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17
Q

what was the finding after adding protease and detergent to the pulse chase labelling system (microsomes)

A

found that proteins were translocating inside the lumen of the ER

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18
Q

How are proteins targeted to different parts of the cell? (SIGNAL HYPOTHJESIS)

A

Hypothesised that the secreted proteins should contain a signal telling where to direct them within the cell (signal hypothesis).

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19
Q

How could u explore the signal hypothesis?

A

choose and culture a cell type that secretes proteins, fractionate some membranes of rough ER, create cell free system for in vitro translation. Purified an immunoglobulin mRNA and translated it in vitro. Disrupted the membrane at different time points and examined the size of proteins.

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20
Q

The readout experiment

A

Investigating signal hypothesis:
- in vitro translation of IgG (immunoglobulin) mRNA
-disrupt microsomes with detergent
- translation finishes: Readout
- two sized polypeptide chains observed from one mRNA

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21
Q

Results of the readout experiment and the gel electrophoresis

A

two sized polypeptide chains observed from one mRNA, one longer precursor protein (if the microsomes were disrupted) which contained the signalling sequence and one mature sized shorter protein found in microsomes

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22
Q

what is the highly conserved signal sequence

A

N terminus start, positive charged amino acid then 6-12 hydrophobic amino acids.

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23
Q

experimental evidence for signal hypothesis

A

1) direct relationship between larger precursor protein and smaller mature protein
2) mature secretory protein was only produced if microsomes were present
3) mature secretory protein were protected from digestion in microsomes
4. conserved sequence sequenced.

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24
Q

How does the protein get through the ER (to the lumen)

A

through the sec 61 translocon
- conserved pathway/protein from yeast to humans

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25
Q

Structure of sec 61 translocon

A

pore with a plug that acts as a channel in the membrane, chain elongation at the ribosome sufficient to drive the polypeptide through the pore.

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26
Q

SEC 61 CO-TRANSLATIONAL TRANSLOCATION

A

translating and translocating at the same time as the polypeptide is made and being pushed through the membrane via translocon pore

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27
Q

co-translational translocation pathway (DETAIL) FOR SECRETORY PROTIEN

A

1) N’ signal sequence 6-12 aa sequence translated
2) Signal recognition protein binds to the signal sequence & ribosome and stops translation
3) SRP targets the complex to the ER by binding the SRP-receptor in the membrane, GTP binding
4) SRP subunits hydrolyse GTP, polypeptide transferred to sec 61 translocon.
5) polypeptide elongates and translocates via the channel, the signal sequence is cleaved.
6,7,8) polypeptide is in lumen, ribosome dissociates and the channel closes.

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28
Q

Type 1 transmembrane protein

A

has signal sequence, the N terminal, will be translated until it reaches a series of hydrophobic aa (stop transfer anchor sequence) which slips sideways during translation through the translocon and embeds itself in the membrane and the rest of the protein is translated left in the cytoplasm. N TERMINAL INSIDE LUMEN C TERMINAL OUTSIDE IN CYTOPLASM.

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29
Q

stop transfer anchor sequence

A

a series of hydrophobic amino acids in a TYPE 1 transmembrane protein slips sideways during translation through the translocon and embeds itself in the membrane

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30
Q

Topology of a protein

A

which end of the protein is on the inside or outside of the cell/ orientation or no. of times a polypeptide crosses a membrane

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31
Q

Type 2 transmembrane protein

A

no ER targeting sequence at the start of the protein, translated in the cytosol, N TERMINAL IN THE CYTOSOL. Also has a hydrophobic sequence called the signal transfer sequence which is recognised by the SRP and taken to the membrane to be inserted via the C terminus first.

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32
Q

signal transfer sequence

A

series of hydrophobic amino acids in TYPE 2 transmembrane proteins, this can be recognised by the signal recognition particle (SRP) which can be carried down to the translocon and inserted in the membrane.

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33
Q

GETTING TYPE 1 PROTEINS INTO THE MEMBRANE (TYPE 1 TRANSMEMBRANE PROTEIN PATHWAY_)

A

1) new polypeptide chain-ribosome complex associates with translocon, translated and the ss is cleaved
2) reaches stop transfer anchor sequence at the translocon
3) prevents further translation into lumen
4) stop transfer anchor moves laterally into the lumen, through cleft in translocon subunits
5) polypep anchored in membrane, translocon closes and synthesis finishes in the cytosol leaving C terminus.
6) ribosome dissociates leaving protein tethered in membrane

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34
Q

signal anchor

A

anchors protein into the membrane

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35
Q

post-translational translocation

A

protein is already made and folded and then transported somewhere else (yeast)

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36
Q

yeast (post-translational translocation) differences from co-translational translocation

A

pre folded in the cytosol, has to find its way to the ER by itself, has a signal sequence but no signal recognition particle to bind and bring it to a receptor.

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37
Q

yeast post translational translocation process

A

1) signal sequence enters translocon by direct interaction and slides through pore to the ER
2) ATP is hydrolysed from a chaperone Bi-ATP and ADP added to the protein chain
3-4) ADP stabilises the unfolded polypeptide chain and pulls it down into the ER lumen
5) ATP binding to BiP causes release, protein folds
6) signal sequence is cleaved off

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38
Q

Mitochondrial targeting

A

contain their own DNA but dont make all the proteins they need, conserved membrane translocation proteins with bacteria - post translational translocation
- pre proteins synthesised with an amphipathic alpha helix signal sequence

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39
Q

pre proteins synthesised with… (mitochondria)

A

amphipathic alpha helix signal sequence -> matrix targeting sequence

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40
Q

Mitochondrial post translational translocation process

A

like yeast, has no ribosome to push protein down and finds it way to membrane.
1) pre protein translated in cytosol with amphipathic SS, kept unfolded by chaperones Hsp70 + ATP.
2) SS binds to import receptor
3-4) receptor transfers pre protein to import pore
5) translocons of the outer and inner membrane line up, tom passes pre protein to tim complex
6) in matrix, Hsp70 binds and pulls pre protein inside, electrostatic gradient also provides energy
6-7) protein folds and SS is cleaved off

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41
Q

examples of post translational translocation

A

nucleus targeting, mitochondrial targeting and yeast.

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42
Q

Nucleus post translational translocation

A

Uses a nuclear localisation signal ( C’ sequence of 7 basic aa). Interacts with a nuclear transport receptor-importin and imports to the nucleus

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43
Q

WAYS OF STUDYING THE SECRETORY PATHWAY RER-> GOLGI

A

1) in vitro pulse chase radioactive aa and autoradiography of cells from secretory tissue r
2) in vitro live cell fluorescent fusion protein in cells
3) yeast conditional mutant: reversible temp sensitive mutation in yeast

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44
Q

Yeast conditional mutants: accumulation in the cytosol

A

defective function of the transport into the ER in the secretory pathway

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45
Q

Yeast conditional mutants: accumulation in the rough ER

A

Defective function of the budding vesicles from the rough ER

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46
Q

Yeast conditional mutants: Accumulation in ER-to-Golgi transport vesicles

A

defective function of transport vesicles with golgi

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47
Q

Yeast conditional mutants: accumulation in the golgi

A

defect in transport from the golgi to secretory vesicles

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48
Q

Yeast conditional mutants: accumulation in secretory vesicles

A

defective in transport from secretory vesicles to cell surface.

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49
Q

How are proteins transported out from the lumen of the ER in the secretory pathway?

A

vesicles that bud and fuse to from membranes carrying proteins, coat protein complexes.

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50
Q

how is budding initiated as proteins transported out from the lumen of the ER in the secretory pathway?

A

initiated by the polymerisation of coat protein complexes.

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51
Q

coat protein complexes process

A

budding initiated by coat protein complexes, COP interact with cytoplasmic tails (parts of transmembrane protein hanging outside in the cytosol) of membrane proteins and recruit cargo bound to membrane proteins within the lumen = cargo gathered into vesicle. Once away from the ER, they hydrolyse GTP and coat proteins come off leaving cytoplasmic tails. Vesicles movement thru cytosol via motor proteins. Fusion to target membrane occurs through SNARE binding

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52
Q

SNARE binding (cis-golgi/target)

A

v-SNARES (vesicle) bind to t-SNARES (target) and fuse with the golgi membrane. Proteins once in the vesicle will now be in the Cis Golgi.

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53
Q

How do coat protein complexes form? FORMATION OF COPII COATED VESICLES FROM THE ER

A

SAR1 BINDING PROTEIN exchanges GDP for GTP, SAR1 gets excited and changes conformation, inserting tail into membrane. Coat proteins will then bind to the energised Sar1-GTP and tails of membrane proteins.

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54
Q

Simplified COPII process

A

1) Sar1 exchanges GDP -> GTP: Sar1-GTP embeds in membrane and recruits coat proteins, selects cargo (membrane proteins).
2) Coat assembly around vesicle
3) GTP hydrolysis
4) uncoating

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55
Q

what coat proteins are used moving toward the golgi

A

COP II proteins

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56
Q

what allows fusion to the cis-golgi membrane?

A

v-SNARES tht bind to t-SNARES and fuse with the golgi membrane

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57
Q

what coat protein is in use from the cis-golgi back to the ER

A

COPI

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58
Q

how are cargo in vesicles transported ?

A

actively transported along microtubules (tubulin) via motors

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59
Q

what kind of transport is the vesicle transport to the ER or to the GOLGI

A

active transport along microtubules (tubulin) via motors

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60
Q

microtubule tracks

A

vesicles transported by motors, have a positive and negative end (near middle of the cell and pos near plasma membrane) as these run throughout the cell

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61
Q

The ER-Golgi intermediate compartment

A

mammalian cells have one but yeast doesnt

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62
Q

dynein (red)

A

retrograde motor (-) back to ER, backwards trafficking

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63
Q

kinesin (blue)

A

anterograde motor(+) forward trafficking moving forward in secretory pathway to plasma membrane.

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64
Q

Motor transport confusion

A

the proteins in the secretory pathway have to move from the ER to the golgi but the golgi is located more toward the centre of the cell so the proteins have to migrate retrograde via dynein first before heading back out via kinesin to outside of cell

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65
Q

Motor travel towards golgi or er first

A

toward the golgi via anterograde dynein to head toward centre of the cell from the ER (-) then move anterograde via kinesin (+) to the outside of the cell after the golgi (+), moving back before continuing forward.

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66
Q

bi-directional process)

A
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67
Q

COPII vesicles move anterograde or retrograde to the golgi from the ER?

A

anterograde transport FORWARDS (in the pathway) toward the golgi, via DYNEIN motor toward end of microtubule as the golgi is located centrally

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68
Q

what are COPII vesicles initiated by

A

SAR-1

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69
Q

how can proteins transported to the golgi be transported back to the ER?

A

via signals and COPI proteins via retrograde transport initiated by Arf GTP-binding protein recruiting coat proteins binding to cytoplasmic tails

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70
Q

COPI process

A

COPI protein vesicle transport initiated by Arf GTP-binding protein which recruits coat proteins that bind to cytoplasmic tails creating a COPI vesicle which will go from the golgi to the ER. This is a retrograde process via kinesin as it is backwards in the secretory pathway but forwards in the cell (+)

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71
Q

SELECTIVE RETRIEVAL PROCESS

A

SOLUBLE RESIDENT ER PROTEIN contains a KDEL sequence- protein will bind KDEL receptor tightly in the cis-golgi and will recruit COPI coat proteins and be transported back to the ER. When it will be released due to lower [H+] (higher pH) in the lumen.

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71
Q

SELECTIVE RETRIEVAL FUNCTION

A

recycles back essential ER proteins such as vSNARES, returns missorted resident ER proteins (BiP), retrieval sorting signal to direct ER cytosol or membrane, selective binding to receptor based on pH (more acidic golgi compared to ER)

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71
Q

retrieval of proteins missorted forward from the ER to the golgi. EG KDEL RETRIEVAL SEQ

A

Missorted protein makes way to golgi via COPII has a retrieval sequence, which can bind to receptor in the golgi -> recruited into coat protein. This is selective retrieval via COPI vesicles via GTP binding protein: ARF.

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72
Q

is KDEL for soluble or membrane proteins

A

SOLUBLE PROTEINS LIKE ENZYMES

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72
Q

Sorting signals

A

are structural features in proteins that control their targeting in/out of the cell

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72
Q

KDEL SEQUENCE

A

ROUGH ER RETENTION SIGNAL, DELETE THIS SEQ= PROTEIN SECRETION, ADD SEQ = PROTEIN retained in ER <- testing

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73
Q

Lys-Lys sequence

A

KKXX, for membrane proteins from the ER to be returned back such as vSNARES.

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73
Q

is GFP targeted to the ER?

A

no, its a cytosolic protein

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74
Q

ALL ER RETENTION SIGNALS:

A

KDEL: signal is SOLUBLE CARGO proteins found in the lumen - directs return to ER lumen via KDEL receptor binding with COPI (eg. soluble enzymes) and Lys-Lys (KKXX) sEQUENCE: membrane proteins from the ER can be returned back (vSNARES)

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75
Q

ER EXPORT SIGNAL

A

DI-ACIDIC sequence, directs membrane proteins and bound cargo forward to cell membrane, signals in cytoplasmic domain of membrane cargo proteins

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76
Q

Three membrane components of the golgi

A

cisternae

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76
Q

DI-ACIDIC SEQUENCE

A

ER EXPORT SIGNAL THAT DIRECTS MEMBRANE PROTEINS TOWARD CELL MEMBRANE

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77
Q

golgi cisternae

A

consisted of the trans medial and cis golgi

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78
Q

are proteins translocated through the cisternae?

A

no, they always remain in vesicles, vesicles merge together into the cis-golgi, they dont bud and fuse through they mature due to retrograde loss of material.

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78
Q

cisternae

A

three membrane components of the golgi, each differing in enzyme composition (glycosidases or glycotransferases).

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79
Q

What is the point of the ER/GOLGi

A

post translational modifications: making the proteins more stable and able to survive the hostile environment outside the cell.

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80
Q

cisternal maturation

A

the cis golgi matures into the medial golgi, a new cis golgi is formed via fusion of ER vesicles, the maturation process includes retrograde vesicular transport of resident golgi proteins (new formed medial golgi sends vesicles back and trans send it to the medial)
- proteins destined for secretion after modification are transported from the trans golgi to plasma membrane
- membranes fuse -> protein -> extracellular space

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80
Q

how do proteins transport through the golgi complex

A

vesicles dont bud they fuse through, they mature by retrograde loss of material and cisternae process into medial and trans golgi via cisternal maturation.

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81
Q

Retrograde vesicular transport

A

of resident golgi proteins from the newly formed medial golgi go to the cis golgi and trans golgi sends vesicles retrograde to medial golgi. The compartment identity changes as cis golgi eventually becomes trans golgi.

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82
Q

N-linked glycosylation

A

post translational modification- addition of sugars to polypeptide by resident RER enzymes to asparagine residues (N is aa code for asparagine)
Occurs during co translational translocation
Oligosaccharyl transferase recognises tripeptide sequence NH3+ …-Asn-X-(Ser/Thr)- COO N-X-S/T and adds complex sugar groups.

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82
Q

four main modifications of post translational modifications

A
  1. forming and assembly of multi subunit proteins which occurs in the ER
  2. disulfide bond formation (ER)
  3. glycosylation - carbs (Sugar) modifications (ER/GOLGI)
  4. specific proteolytic cleavages (ER/GOLGI/SECRETORY VESICLES)
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82
Q

what parts of post translational modifications occurs in the golgi

A

glycosylation and proteolytic cleavages which occurs in the ER, GOLGI and secretory vesicles

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82
Q

what is the point of post translational modifications

A
  • quality control
  • preparing protein for extracellular environment -> more vulnerable outside cell
  • structural stability
  • diversity of proteins - production of distinct molecules for signalling/communication
  • activation/inactivation of enzymes ability
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83
Q

when does n linked glycosylation occur

A

occurs during co translational translocation to asparagine

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84
Q

what parts of post translational modifications occur in the ER

A
  1. forming and assembly of multi subunit proteins
  2. disulfide bond formation and
    glycosylation that occurs in the ER and GOLGI
    and proteolytic cleavages
    ALL OF THEM
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85
Q

the sequence that oligosaccharyl recognises

A

tripeptide sequence of N-X-S/T and adds a complex sugar group the to the asparagine.

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86
Q

what happens as soon as the precursor oligosaccharide is added in n liked glycoslyation

A

immediately the cell starts trimming sugars off! precursor oligosaccharide processed and trimmed in the ER by glycosidases, if this is not trimmed to a core-glycan they wont be exported the the golgi making this a quality control step.

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86
Q

What happens if one of the asparagines were mutated?

A

No glycosylation, accumulation in ER lumen unfolded and will be degraded.

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87
Q

What is an example of a quality control step?

A

The N-linked glycosylation of asparagine and the trimming via glycosidase into the core-glycan to be exported to the golgi via COPII resulting in a highly modified protein

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88
Q

Clathrin-adaptor protein coated vesicles

A

vesicles that bud from the trans-golgi network (TGN) and plasma membrane during exocytosis have a two layered coat. Inner layer is adaptor protein complexes and outer layer is clathrin.

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89
Q

Clathrin-adaptor protein vesicles function and structure

A

adaptor proteins bind cytosolic domains of membrane proteins to determine what cargo is to be transported, clathrin polymerises to form lattice with intrinsic curvature and doesn’t associate with protein domains in cytosol.
-uncoating occurs through GTP hydrolysis by ARF helped by 2 accessory proteins
- clathrin-AP complexes transport to the lysosome and endocytosed cargo from the cell membrane.

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90
Q

how do clathrin-adaptor protein vesicles release from the membrane?

A

DYNAMIN: polymerises around the neck of the bud and hydrolyses GTP, stretches neck until it pinches off.

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91
Q

Dom-neg mutant of dynamin

A

= no vesicle budding. Scientist test for its function.

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92
Q

Dynamin

A

polymerises around the neck of the bud of the clathrin-adaptor protein coated vesicles and hydrolyses GTP, stretches neck until it pinches off.

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93
Q

lysosome

A

digestive and recycling compartments - break down macromolecules to monomer building blocks, organelles. acidic pH maintained by proton pumps, filled with digestive enzymes.

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94
Q

targeting proteins to the lysosome

A

lysosomal proteins transported through RER golgi, Mannose-6-phosphate modification in cis-golgi is the lysosomal sorting signal (N-acetylglucosamine phosphotransferase is essential)
M6P prevents processing into a secretory vesicle -> segregated at the trans golgi network

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95
Q

mannose-6-phosphate

A

lysosomal target signal from the glycosylation (modification) in cis golgi. M6P prevents processing into secretory vesicle and segregated at the trans golgi network. A SUGAR SIGNAL not aa. Trans golgi network membrane has a M6P receptor -> binds and recruits them into clathrin/AP1 coated vesicles for transport to the endosome-lysosome

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96
Q

endosome

A

intermediate sorting hub, more processing

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97
Q

M6P modified proteins head to lysosome

A

M6P-M6P receptor recruited into clathrin-AP1 coated vesicles -> endosome (processing) -> pH becomes more acidic as it goes -> endosome fuses into lysosome -> further processing of pro-protein in endosome -> functional protein-> recycling of receptors and protein coat

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98
Q

lysosomal storage disorders

A

battens disease, neurodegenerative brain diseases -> mutations in genes coding for lysosomal enzymes
- accumulation of lipids and waste in neurons
- incurable childhood disease

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99
Q

severe form of lysosomal disorder caused by

A

mutation in N-acetylglucosamine phosphotransferase = no M6P tag, protein is secreted.

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99
Q

what causes the lysosomal disorder

A

mutations in enzymes/for lysosome targeting ->missing lysosomal enzymes -> build up of proteins and lipids in vesicles and lysosomes.

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100
Q

M6P sorting signal found

A

by studying children with lysosomal disorder

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101
Q

how does endocytosis occur at the plasma membrane

A

via clathrin/AP2 coated pits that are spread across the surface of cells, endocytosed in a vesicle, delivery to different parts of the cell, degraded/recycled

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102
Q

endocytosis at plasma membrane

A

process of taking up fluid, particles or molecules from external medium
- encloses them in plasma membrane vesicles and internalises them -> take up of molecules (receptor mediated endocytosis)

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102
Q

receptor mediated endocytosis

A

the take up of molecules in endocytosis

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103
Q

what does endocytosis at the plasma membrane do?

A
  • key regulatory step in determining protein composition in membranes
  • used to ingest nutrients too large to go through a transporter
  • can remove receptor proteins to down-regulate activity
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104
Q

endocytosis example molecules

A

low density lipoprotein, insulin (hormones), some glycoproteins, the iron carrying protein transferrin

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105
Q

enzyme replacement therapy

A

lysosomal storage disorder treatment -> endocytosis at plasma membrane

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106
Q

LDL (low density lipoprotein)

A

known as “bad” cholesterol and a major contributor to heart disease, research focus on how to reduce LDL in blood, why do levels get so high in the first place? -> discovery of LDL receptor

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106
Q

lipoproteins

A

package hundreds of lipid molecules into a large water soluble carrier for cells to take up from blood.

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107
Q

LDL receptor

A

low density lipoprotein taken up into cells, delivered to lysosome for breakdown/recycling
- LDL -> internalisation -> degradation

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107
Q

receptor mediated endocytosis of LDL

A

FAST PROCESS:
LDL binding receptor -> internalization -> degradation
1) LDL linked ferratin (Fe) binds its receptor in a pit
2)clathrin pit forms vesicle
3) LDL inside clathrin vesicle
4) LDL inside early endosome in 6 mins

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108
Q

receptor mediated endocytosis of LDL : INTERNALISATION

A

internalization is dependent on Asn-Pro-X-Tyr (NPXY) on the cytosolic segment of the receptor, bound by AP2 clathrin vesicle target to the endosome.
Dissociation from receptor via pH change (recycling 10-20 mins)
DEGRADATION NEXT IN LYSOSOME

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109
Q

LDL binding receptor -> internalization -> degradation

A

internalization is dependent on Asn-Pro-X-Tyr (NPXY) on the cytosolic segment of the receptor, bound by AP2 clathrin vesicle target to the endosome.
Dissociation from receptor via pH change (recycling 10-20 mins)
DEGRADATION NEXT IN LYSOSOME:
-lysosomes break down lipoprotein complex
- amino acids, fatty acids and cholesterol
- can be used elsewhere such as cell membrane synthesis

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110
Q

mutations that can cause familial hyper cholesterolemia`

A

LRLR- which parts? Mutation of NPXY sequence of LDL-receptor, mutation in ligand binding arm of LDL-receptor, AP2, genes that control internalization of LD2
= 2-6x higher LDL in blood -> development of heart disease

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110
Q

first trial of base editing in humans - lowering cholesterol

A

enzyme PCSK9 causes endocytosis of LDL receptors, what happens with LDL with fewer LDL-R?
- injection of treatment causes loss of function of PCSK9 in the liver -> what effect on blood LDL?
- adverse events did occur
- NZ human gene editing trial, base editing changes one base in gene -> switches of protein production in liver.

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111
Q

exocytosis in plasma membrane two categories of secreted protein process

A

constitutional and regulated

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111
Q

what replaces the membrane as endocytosis occurs constantly?

A

constant exocytosis and making of proteins. Contributing lipids back to the plasma membrane

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112
Q

Does exocytosis use coat proteins?

A

no, transport in the trans golgi network here uses no coat proteins.

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113
Q

constitutive secretory vesicles

A

EXOCYTOSIS OF PLASMA MEMBRANE:
starts as a pre-pro protein
after ER SS cleavage and processing in golgi = pro-albumin
after processing in secretory vesicle
= mature albumin

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114
Q

regulated secretion example

A

insulin secretion into blood from pancreatic (EXOCYTOSIS OF PLASMA MEMBRANE)

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115
Q

constitutive secretory vesicles example

A

albumin in blood from liver cells (EXOCYTOSIS OF PLASMA MEMBRANE)

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116
Q

regulated secretion

A

(EXOCYTOSIS OF PLASMA MEMBRANE)
starts as pre-pro protein
after ER SS cleavage and processing in golgi = pro insulin
after processing in secretory vesicle = mature insulin
held at TGN UNTIL A SIGNAL COMES into the cells to tell the cell to transport to the plasma membrane and exocytosed

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117
Q

difference between regulated secretion compared to constitutional secretory vesicles of the exocytosis of the plasma membrane

A

for the regulated secretion, the example mature insulin is held at the trans golgi network (TG) until a signal comes into the cells to tell the cell to transport to the plasma membrane and exocytosed

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118
Q

plasma membrane

A

hydrophobic core prevents unassisted movement of water soluble substances

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119
Q

diffusion of plasma membrane

A

influenced by conc gradients and membrane potential (electrochemical gradient)

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120
Q

transmembrane proteins

A

maintains differences between extracellular fluid and cytosol

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121
Q

potassium and sodium in extracellular fluid

A

high sodium outside >15mM and low potassium

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122
Q

potassium and sodium in the cell

A

high potassium and less sodium 15 mM

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123
Q

channels (transport proteins)

A

facilitated transport (passive transport) diffusion of ions down a gradient

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124
Q

transporters (transport proteins)

A

can be uniporter or cotransporters

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125
Q

uniporter (transport proteins)

A

movement of single molecule down gradient = facilitated transport

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126
Q

co transporters (transport proteins)

A

can be symporter or antiporter

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127
Q

symporter and antiporter

A

COTRANSPORTERS: couple transport of two different molecules . One down and ne against gradients 2ndry active transport

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128
Q

antiporter

A

COTRANSPORTER: both against conc gradient, powering for other free energy change allows something to move against gradient

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129
Q

symporter

A

COTRANSPORTER _> using one molecule travelling down conc gradient to pull another against their gradient

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130
Q

commonalities between channels and transporters

A

made up of multiple membrane spanning proteins that assemble in lipid bilayer to form aqueous pore, open/close of pore may be regulated/gated. May occur via conformational change. Chemical energy (atp hydrolysis) can be coupled to movement of molecules against conc gradient for pumps

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131
Q

pumps (transport proteins)

A

hydrolyse ATP to transport ions against their gradients in ACTIVE TRANSPORT, couple energetically unfavourable reaction with a energetically favorable one - electrochem gradient or ATP hydrolysis

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132
Q

despite all the commonalities between channels and transporters (transport proteins) …

A

huge variation in expression in diff types of cells depending on function

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133
Q

aquaporin

A

water is taken across plasma membrane of cells through facilitated transport through aquAPORIN

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134
Q

is aquaporin conserved

A

yes all the way through bacteria, plants to humans (12 aquaporins in human family)

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135
Q

structure of aquaporin

A

4 subunits make a channel with hydrophilic pore -> allows single file movement of water molecules down pore.

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136
Q

what if aquaporins didn’t exist/ 4 subunits and hydrophillic pore

A

whenever salts moved into cells, water couldn’t follow to maintain a homeostatic conc

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137
Q

which cells have high protein exp of aquaporin?

A

cells of kidneys, to reabsorb water from urine for concentrate.

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138
Q

How is glucose transported

A

taken into plasma membrane of cells through facilitated transport via uniporter called GLUT1 -> undergoes two conformational states as glucose binding site changes

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139
Q

how many GLUT genes in humans`

A

14

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140
Q

GLUT1

A

glucose is taken into the plasma membrane via facilitated transport through this GLUT1 uniporter as it is a transmembrane channel. Changing conformational states allows the glucose to go down its conc gradient

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141
Q

GLUT1 transport kinetics

A

very efficient at transporting glucose -> low kM (high affinity) compared to GLUT2 therefore it transports sufficient glucose into cells even when glucose conc is low. Reaches half of vmax even when there isn’t much concentration

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142
Q

vmax

A

maximum transport rate, vmax achieved when conc gradient is large and each uniporter is working at maximal rate

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143
Q

the number of channels are limited therefore

A

there is a maximal rate of transport

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144
Q

km

A

affinity of a transporter for its substrate, the conc of substrate at which transport is half of vmax

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145
Q

low km

A

high affinity

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146
Q

GLUT1 affinity

A

has a high affinity to its substrate: at external conc of 1.5mM, half of the transporters have glucose bound to the outside

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147
Q

GLUT2 affinity

A

far higher than GLUT1, needing external conc of glucose to be 20mM, but allows the uniporter to act as a glucose sensor

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148
Q

Why is the cytosolic conc of glucose so low?

A

rapid phosphorylation to G6P allows constant importing and maintenance of the glucose conc gradient

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149
Q

what cells contain GLUT1 and GLUT4 for insulin triggered transport

A

muscle and adipose cells as they are storage sites for glucose and fats.

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150
Q

GLUT4

A

muscle and adipose cells
- insulin responsive and stored in vesicles tethered to the golgi

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151
Q

GLUT4 response to insulin

A

insulin binding activates signalling in the cell
- kinesin transport vesicles
- GLUT4 receptor inserted into plasma membrane to inc glucose uptake in cell

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152
Q

GLUT4 response when blood glucose/insulin drops

A

endocytosis of GLUT4 and transported to endosome for recycling

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153
Q

defects in GLUT4

A

type 2 diabetes, cells cannot take up glucose

154
Q

NA+ glucose symporter

A

transport of glucose into cells even when conc outside the cell is low, transports 2 Na+ ions down its conc gradient and couples transport of glucose against the conc gradient
-neither substance can move on its own and release in free energy as ion moves down gradient powers system

155
Q

where are Na+ glucose symporters

A

intestinal + kidney tubule epithelial cells.

156
Q

Pumps

A

couples ATP hydrolysis with the movement of ions/molecules against conc gradients.
P class pump and V class

157
Q

P class pumps

A

set up membrane potentials, pumping ions
- plasma membrane of higher eukaryotes (Na+/K+) pump and
sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane in muscle cells (Ca2+ pump)

158
Q

muscle p class pump

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane in muscle cells for contraction (Ca2+) pump

159
Q

membrane p class pump

A

plasma membrane of higher eukaryotes (Na+/K+) pump

160
Q

V class pumps

A

H+ pumps creating different acidities
endosomal and lysosomal membranes in animal cells

161
Q

how can a lysosome be more acidic than the ER

A

V class pumps control pH inside the cell

162
Q

V class pumps controlling pH example

A

Vacuole is plant equivalent of endosome, ATPase driven transfer of 2H+ against conc gradient balanced by facilitated diffusion of Cl- ions to maintain electrical neutrality
result in decrease in pH of lumen of the endosome/lysosome
more v class pumps in the cis-golgi than ER

163
Q

P class pumps in plasma membrane structure and function

A

teramer a2b2 structure -> catalytic and regulatory subunits -> ionic comp of cytosol kept constant

164
Q

K+ ion intracellular and extracellular conc

A

high inside cell low in blood

165
Q

sodium ion intracellular and extracellular conc

A

low inside cell < compared to outside

166
Q

chloride ion intracellular and extracellular conc

A

low inside the cell but high outside

167
Q

Ca2+ ion intracellular and extracellular

A

low inside and high outside cell

168
Q

Na+/K+ ATPase in plasma membrane transports..

A

1 x ATP transports 3 Na+ out and 2K+ inside both against their conc gradient this sets up membrane potential to have more post charge outside.

169
Q

Na+/K+ ATPase in plasma membrane process

A

1.3 Na+ bind with ATP then atp hydrolysis ending up in conformational change, opening pump to outside of cell allowing K+ ions to bind and Na+ is released -> dephosphorylation and conformational change allowing K+ to move inside cell. Setting up membrane potential of a more pos extracellular compared to neg intracellular.

170
Q

receptor mediated endocytosis of GLUT4

A

to the endosome for recycling when glucose in blood lowers/insulin lowers AP2 clathrin

171
Q

is symporters moving molecules the same or different direction

A

the same direction but one up its gradient one down (Na+ down taking glucose up)

172
Q

is antiporters moving molecules the same or different direction

A

different directions coupling one moving down gradient with one moving up

173
Q

transcellular transport of glucose/aa into blood

A

net movement of dietary glucose, aa and Na+ into blood through intestinal epithelial cells from intestinal lumen via 2Na+/glucose symporter. Then to blood via GLUT2 and Na+K+ ATPAse

174
Q

Blood components

A

high Na+ low K+

175
Q

Cytosol of intestinal epithelial cells

A

High K+ low Na+

176
Q

resting membrane potential

A

differential dist of charged ions on each side of a membrane = electrical potential across a membrnae

177
Q

Example of membrane impermeable to Na+, K+ and Cl-

A

equal numbers of pos and neg ions on each side therefore no membrane potential (no Na+ K+ channel)

178
Q

membrane permeable only to Na+

A

Na+ channels allow inward flow, as pos charge in cytosol inside ~+60mV

179
Q

membrane permeable only to K+

A

K+ channels allow outward flow, more pos charge in outside cell than inside ~-60mV

180
Q

Resting potassium channels

A

K+/Na+ ATPase pump and non-gated K+ channels interact to generate a membrane potential
Plasma membrane contains many open (NON gated) K+ channels (few Cl-, Na+ and Ca2+)

181
Q

resting potassium channels, resting membrane potential amount

A

-60 to 70mV relative to the inside of the cell

182
Q

What interact to generate membrane potential

A

K+/Na+ ATPase pumps and non-gated K+ channels interact to generate a membrane potential.

183
Q

the plasma membrane contains many what… channels

A

non gated K+ channels (few Cl-, Na+, Ca2+).

184
Q

Generation of action potentials

A

transient change in membrane potential across the plasma membrane from pos inside to neg. Explosive entry of Na+ ions leading to depolarisation (less negative)

185
Q

depolarisation

A

less negative, explosive entry of Na+ ions into the cell as -ve inside to +ve.

186
Q

propagation of an action potential (direction)

A

AP can only propagate/travel thru cell in 1 direction at one time as sodium channels that are open to continue firing are ones further down axon.

187
Q

Are Na+ channels normally closed or open

A

Na+ wants to flow inward down its conc and electrical gradient but normally Na+ cells are closed

188
Q

Propagation of an action potential (PROCESS SUMMARY)

A

Change in voltage -> stimulate opening of Na+ voltage gated channels and explosive entry of Na+ into the cell as action potential causing pos change in cell and changes conc gradient. Resulting change in voltage triggers further opening of voltage gated Na+ channels down the axon.
-> triggers voltage gated K+ channels allowing more outward flow of K+ ions down conc gradient
-> return to baseline membrane potential (repolarisation)

189
Q

The propagation of an action potential requires proper regulation

A

if not, we get hyperactive cells, causing AP to continue to fire (epilepsy) or cells not firing properly (understimulation.

190
Q

Why is the propagation of AP unidirectional?

A

AP travels in one direction because these voltage gated Na+ channels become inactive after stimulation (channel-inactivating segment), plugging the pore to allow the cell to start repolarisation → back to normal membrane potential

191
Q

Channelrhodopsin

A

light sensitive Na+ channel that allowed for Na+ inflow and AP for algae to move in response to light

191
Q

optogenetics

A

using light activated channels to control cell function through manipulating membrane potential.

192
Q

optogenetics uses

A

could insert into cells through DNA transection and could create transgenic mice with channel rhodopsins expressed in certain neurons

193
Q

optogenetics in terms of study

A

used to study behaviours (thirst), brain conditions: parkinsons disease, epilepsy and PTSD.

194
Q

TRPV1 cation channel

A

(Na+ and K+) opens in response to heat or cold and results in an action potential that causes burning sens and pain

195
Q

how was TRPV1 found

A

cation channel responds to heat/cold: searched for genes responsive to heat or cold by treating sensory neurons with capsaicin -> watched for action potential

196
Q

PIEZO2 (pressure)

A

mechanosensitive ion channel for touch and proprioception. 38 transmembrane helix topology.

197
Q

How as PIEZO2 found

A

i.e. pressure mechanosensitive ion channel for touch and proprioception -> found by mechanically poking cells and watched for action potentials.

198
Q

Yellow light sensitive channels

A

Cl- channels which stop action potentials firing in optogenetics.

199
Q

Blue light sensitive channels

A

Na+ light activating channels in algae that causes algae to swim toward/away from light

200
Q

What do nerve terminals contain

A

many vesicles that contain chemical messengers for secretion (neurotransmitters)

200
Q

examples of neurotransmitters (chem messengers)

A

dopamine, serotonin, acetylcholine and GABA found in vesicles at nerve terminals

201
Q

where are chem messengers/neurotransmitters made

A

they are synthesised from aa in the cytosol

202
Q

arrival of an action potential in axon of presynaptic cell

A

causes fusion of vesicles to plasma membrane -> voltage sensitive Ca2+ channels in plasma membrane. Exocytosis of neurotransmitters from vesicles to synaptic cleft -> binding to receptors in post synaptic cell (muscle/neuron) which receives the chem signal.

203
Q

where are the receptors for the neurotransmitters

A

on the post synaptic cell

204
Q

neuromuscular junction neurotransmitter

A

acetylcholine

205
Q

Neuromuscular junction AP process

A

volt gated Ca2+ channel opens -> Ca2+ inflow causes ACh vesicle fusion/exocytosis
ACh binds to ligand gated receptor -> Na+ in K+ out.
-> Localised depolarisation causes opening of V gated Na+ channel -> propagation of signal to V gates Ca2+ channel that signals SR to release Ca2+ into cytosol

206
Q

what causes muscle contraction

A

Propagation of signal to voltage gates Ca2+ channel that signals SR to release Ca2+ into cytosol that causes muscle contraction (AP in Neuromuscular junction)

207
Q

Botulism toxin (BOTOX!) inhibits …?

A

vesicle fusion with membranes -> prevent exocytosis of neurotransmitters (ACh) at neuro-muscular junction.

208
Q

what does botulinum toxin do to ACh fusion with the PM

A
  • binds to Ach motor neurons via receptor mediated endocytosis to endosome. One of the domains creates pore in vesicle on the way to the endosome and releases some of the protein (catalytic domain) into the cytosol of cell.
  • This protease cleaves the v-SNARE on vesicles which prevents ACh from fusing with the plasma membrane
  • this means no ACh → no muscle contraction as it causes paralysis
209
Q

is botox permanent

A

no, botulinum toxin can be degraded by the cell and v-SNARES can be replaced. Making botox temporary.

210
Q

uptake of neurotransmitters by cooperation of channels

A

neurotransmitters are taken back up by symporters back into the cell coupled with Na+ and Cl- (uphill transport) back via synaptic cleft to recycle the neurotransmitters

211
Q

how do neurotransmitters get loaded into vesicles

A

via the action of V class H+ pumps coupled with an H+ antiporter that moves neurotransmitters in with the favourable movement of H+ exiting vesicle.

212
Q

vGLUT

A

antiporter for Glutamate to enter vesicle

213
Q

vGABA

A

antiporter for GABA to enter vesicle

214
Q

vMAT

A

antiporter for dopamine and serotonin to enter vesicle.

215
Q

neurotransmitter vesicles at synpase (BEFORE ARRIVAL OF AP)

A
  1. in vesicle (V class Pump and antiporter)
  2. trafficked to PM
  3. V and t snares bind to form SNARE complex -> docks vesicle at membrane (waiting for signal)
216
Q

synaptotagmin

A

calcium sensor and allows the fusion of the vesicle and target snares -> neurotransmitter fuses -> released via exocytosis

217
Q

Arrival of action potential down synapse steps following

A

opening of voltage sensitive Ca2+ channels -> Ca2+ detected by synaptotagmin which interacts with SNARE complex -> fusion with PM -> release
5. recycling

218
Q

recycling of neurotransmitters and protein clathrin coat

A

Na+/neurotransmitter symporter reuptake neurotransmitter to be recycled and Clathrin/AP2 -> binds to signals and cytoplasmic tails that are pinched off by dynamin are endocytosed

219
Q

Dopamine symporter

A

uptake of dopamine back into the cytosol

220
Q

many drugs like to target symp

A

symporters

221
Q

Cocaine/amphetamine and ritalin on DOPAMINE SYMPORTER

A

binds and inhibits/competes for the transporters for dopamine. prevents binding of dopamine → cant be taken up into cell and stays in synaptic cleft between neurones → continually signal to post synaptic cell
changing DAT trafficking and plasma membrane expression (inc signaling and continual stimulation on post synaptic receptors

222
Q

Serotonin symporter

A

takes up serotonin into the cell using Na+, Cl- and K+ gradient

223
Q

drugs that target serotonin symporter

A

antidepressants (fluoxetine, paroxetine) that act on serotonin reuptake transporter

224
Q

drugs that target dopamine symporter

A

cocaine, ritalin and amphetamines

225
Q

Antidepressants fluoxetine, paroxetine acting on serotonin symporter

A

Selective serotonine-reuptake inhibitors, inhibits reuptake of neurotransmitter = more serotonin in synaptic cleft and prolonged stimulation. More signaling to post synaptic receptors.

226
Q

GABA transporters

A

transport GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter) -> stops signaling.

227
Q

antiepileptic drug

A

inhibits GABA uptake (more inhibitory neurotransmitters in cleft) -> prolonged suppression of signaling

228
Q

Lorazepan

A

anti anxiety drugs -> target GABA receptors, binds to GABA-A receptor which is a ligand gated Cl- channel. Enhances binding of the neurotransmitter to receptor -> inc influx of Cl- into neuron. More neg charge in cell -> unable to fire action potentials = calming/sedative effect.

229
Q

1928 griffiths experiment

A

the transforming principle, rough and heat treated smooth bacteria did not kill mice, smooth bacteria did. However when combining rough and heat treated smooth bacteria, the mice had died. This indicates a transforming component of smooth bacteria that changed the phenotype of the rough bacteria.

230
Q

1944 avery-mcCarty-mcleod experiments

A

wanted to find the transforming component discovered to be present in 1928 griffiths experiment. Isolated DNA and found that DNA was the transforming component, soldified by removing DNA to test the hypothesis. A DNA virulence factor was changing the phenotype of the rough strain.

231
Q

process of finding the transforming component (experiment one of 1944 avery-mccarthy-mcleod experiments)

A

fractionated heat killed smooth strain bacterial cells:
1. removed polysaccharides (carbs) enzymatically
2. removed protein using chloroform precipitation
3. used alcohol to precipitate the rest
4. obtained fibrous material -> when mixed with rough virulent strain transformed into virulent

232
Q

how did we find out the transforming component was DNA based of the 1944 avery-mccarthy-mcleod experiments?

A

Elemental analysis of the fiborous component was consistent with DNA, so they did a second experiment by destorying the DNA with DNAse and following with RNAse etc. Only the DNA one survived after removal of DNA -> therefore DNA is the transforming component taken up by the rough strain from the dead smooth strain

233
Q

what is the transforming component?

A

DNA-> the transforming component that was taken up by the rough bacterial strain from the death smooth strain. A DNA virulence factor is changing the phenotype of the rough strain.
INHERITANCE MUST COME FROM DNA -> this was unknown.

234
Q

Introducing DNA into cells/organisms: transforming

A

changing bacteria

235
Q

Introducing DNA into cells/organisms: transfecting

A

using plasmid vectors

236
Q

Introducing DNA into cells/organisms: transducing

A

using viral vectors

237
Q

photo 51

A

X-ray crystallography image of DNA -> barrel of the double helix

238
Q

1952 DNA: race to identify structure

A

X ray diffraction images and ‘first parity’ rule helped determine DNA structure -> photo 51. Roaslind franlin and maurice wilkins discovered photo 51 taken by watson and crick.

239
Q

Purines

A

2 rings, adenine and Guanine

240
Q

pyrmidines

A

1 ring, thymine which is swapped out for uracil in RNA, and cytosine.

241
Q

1953: Watson-Crick base pairing

A

important features:
ractions of A:T and GC are approx equal (first parity rule)
A-T has 2 hydrogen bonds and G-C has 3 (stronger)

242
Q

first parity rule

A

ratios of AT and GC approx equal

243
Q

IS A-T stronger or G-C

A

G-C because it has three hydrogen bonds whereas A-T only has 2.

244
Q

1953 DNA double helix

A

proposed by watson and crick
-> backbone alternating deoxyribose sugars and phosphate groups (neg charge)
bases are purines (AG) or pyrimidines (TC)
directional antiparallel 5’ and 3’ ends to form supercoil

245
Q

1953: DNA double helix major grooves

A

rich in chemical information, proteins can read the base pairs by identifying their H bonding properties down the major groove, includes DNA binding proteins- transcription factors, restriction enzymes (ecoRI), other intercalating agents important for cancer and experimentation (DAPI)

246
Q

multi enzyme complex

A

In DNA replication, this complex is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix, synthesizing new DNA strands, and ensuring the process is accurate. Duplicates each strand

246
Q

DNA replication steps (simple)

A
  1. initiation, unwinding, separate and priming sites, little prime is start with RNA and add DNA onto those
  2. elongation: add dNTPs
  3. termination by have origins of replication converge on one another
246
Q

Semiconservative replication

A

the process where DNA replication produces two DNA molecules, each containing one original strand and one newly synthesized strand, ensuring genetic information is accurately passed down

246
Q

features of DNA replication

A
  • multi enzyme complexes
  • multiple start points
  • semi conservative.
247
Q

DNA organisation in the nucleus

A

DNA associates with histone proteins and forms nucleosome ‘beads’ in the nucleus

247
Q

euchromatin

A

decondensed/relaxed chromatin associated with transcription as as they are not as tightly bound together like heterochromatin.

Transcription factors will access euchromatin much easier to transcribe RNA.

248
Q

heterochromatin

A

associated with gene repression

249
Q

1958 central dogma

A

Central dogma: purpose of DNA was to make RNA and the purpose of RNA was to make proteins → one way flow of info in cell.
Crick believed that proteins are the most important biomolecule

250
Q

1958 sequence hypothesis

A

this hypothesis unites several remarkable pairs of generalisations
- the central biochemical importance of proteins and the dominating role of genes and in particular of their nucleic acid.
- the linearity of protein molecules and the genetic linearity within a functional gene
- the simplicity of the composition of protein molecules and simplicity of nucleic acids
DNA as heredity material, RNA as the message and PROTEIN as the machine.

250
Q

1958 what did crick propose

A

that the purpose of DNA was to make RNA to make proteins in a one way flow of information in the cell

251
Q

three keys of the sequence hypothesis

A

1958, the IMPORTANCE of proteins
the LINEARITY of protein molecules and the SIMPLICITY of the compostion of protein molecules.

252
Q

what did crick not take into account with his 1958 central dogma and sequence hypothesis

A

didnt know or understand the fact that DNA can replicate itself as well as RNA, and the process isnt necessarily linear (information can go in different directions)

253
Q

DNA Damage

A

chemical modification of bases, UV, reactive oxygen species, cosmic radiation and errors in DNA rep

254
Q

errors in DNA replication

A

-> DNA damage.
Est. human mutation rate 2.5 x 10^-8 mutations/nucleotide site generation. ~70-150 base changes per gen

255
Q

tobacco smoke on DNA

A

chemical mutagen/carcinogen, major component of tobacco smoke. INTERCALATES DNA and distorts double helix -> add extra chemical material onto guanine

256
Q

UV exposure ot NDA

A

physical mutagen, dimerization of adjacent thymine bases in response to UV exposure. Thymine dimer causes ‘bulge’ in double helix.

257
Q

DNA mutations

A

changes to the DNA code, we have a change to the DNA that is now encoded and embedded in there.

258
Q

mutation types and consequences

A

synonymous: doesnt change amino acid
missense: changes aa
nonsense: changes aa to STOP
frameshift: (insert/delete) changes reading frame

259
Q

Common nucelotide mutations (Cytosine)

A

Spontaneous deamination of cytosine as amine group replaced by water changes C to U and deamination of methylcytosine to thymine

260
Q

spontaneous deamination of cytosine

A

Common nucleotide mutation: Amine group is replaced by water and changes cytosine to a uracil. Acts as a signal to correct the DNA strand as it uracil is a component of RNA.

260
Q

Deamination of cytosine

A

common nucleotide mutation: Methylation is used for transcriptional regulation, methyl-cytosine goes through deamination, if we lose the amine here we end up with a thymine. Problematic and mutation would remain after replication. `

260
Q

how does the DNA polymerase proof read enzymes

A

5’-3’ polymerase activity
3’-5’ exonuclease activity (backwards) distorted DNA strand moves into the exo site for correction as it is being replicated

260
Q

Correction: proofreading enzymes (DNA POLYMERASE)

A

during DNA replication, incorrect base pairing will distort the DNA structure, DNA polymerases are proof reading(correct as they go)

261
Q

MMR

A

DNA repair: mismatch repair

261
Q

important factors to consider when thinking about DNA repair

A

mutation must be RECOGNISED, REMOVED and REPAIRED

261
Q

BER

A

DNA repair: base excision repair

262
Q

NER

A

nucleotide excision repair (DNA repair)

263
Q

what does base excision repair do

A

repairs deaminated cytosines and oxidation products (the most common mutations) Specifically recognises thymine bases where cytosine should be. Cuts out incorrect base and repairs it.

263
Q

Endonucleases

A

goes within the DNA sequence, doesn’t require being on the end of a nucleic acid and trimming back (cut anywhere in the middle)

264
Q

APEI endonucelases

A

cleaves the abasic site in base excision repair after DNA glycosylase removes incorrect base

265
Q

DNA glycoslyase in base excision repair

A

specific for incorrect/modified base, removes base leaving abasic site

266
Q

DNA polymerase B and DNA ligase in base excision repair

A

removes backbone and replaces nucleotide after DNA glycosylase removes incorrect base and APEI endonuclease cleaves the abasic site. DNA ligase seals the DNA.

267
Q

what does mismatch repair do

A

repairs small mismatches and slippage of repeated DNA and removes them/corrects it

267
Q

mismatch repair

A

repairs small mismatches and slippage of repeated DNA
MutS: MSH enzymes recognise mismatch thru bulge in DNA structure, MUTL: MLH endonuclease nicks the damaged strand and DNA exonuclease removes segment containing mismatch. DNA polymerase omega repairs the gap and DNA ligase seals.

268
Q

molecules involved in mismatch repair

A

MSH enzymes (recognise mismatch)
MLH endonuclease: cuts damaged strand
DNA exonuclease: removes segement
DNA polymerase omega and DNA ligase

268
Q

what is the difference between mismatch repair and base excision repair

A

BSR removes one singular base to leave an abasic site for a singular common mutation whereas MR just removes an entire segment for fixing mismatches in DNA

269
Q

MSH enzymes in mismatch repair

A

recognise mismatch through the bulge in DNA structure`

270
Q

what repairs deaminated cytosines and oxidation products

A

base excision repair

271
Q

Base excision repair

A

repairs deaminated cytosines and oxidation products, (C->T) 1. DNA glycosylase specific for incorrect/modified base removes base leaving an abasic site
2. APEI endonuclease cleaves abasic site
3. DNA polymerase B removes backbone and replaces nucleotide, DNA ligase seals

272
Q

DNA ligase seals

A

the DNA in repair and replication

272
Q

MLH endonuclease in mismatch repair and DNA exonuclease

A

nicks the damaged strand, DNA exonuclease removes segment containing mismatch

273
Q

DNA polymerase omega and DNA ligase seals

A

DNA polymerase repairs the gap and DNA ligase seals it.

274
Q

Difference between nucleotide excision repair and BNR, MR.

A

the lesion can be larger, for larger DNA errors with two different pathways (Global genomic repair NER or transcription coupled NER)

274
Q

Nucleotide excision repair

A

repairs larger DNA errors/lesions, cuts out a larger region than base excision repair and has two pathways.

274
Q

what are the two pathways of nucleotide excision repair

A

Global genomic repair NER and Transcription coupled NER

275
Q

Global genomic repair NER (nucleotide excision repair)

A

corrects broad range of lesions (XPC + RAD23B enzymes recognize helix distortion)

275
Q

XPC and RAD23B ezymes

A

Recognises helix distortion in nucleotide excision repair for global genomic repair NER.

276
Q

Transcription coupled NER (nucleotide excision repair)

A

stalled transcription by RNA polymerase acts as a signal

277
Q

Nucleotide excision repair process

A

either global genomic repair NER or transcription coupled NER: TFIIH (helicase): general trascription factor involved in transcription opens strands
RPA: ssDNA binding protein recruited to protect bubble as XP endonucleases cut damaged strand (24-32)
DNA polymerase replaces bases, DNA ligase seals.

278
Q

how many base pairs excised by nucleotide excision repair

279
Q

TFIIH (HELICASE) in NER

A

general transcription factor involved in transcription and is used to open strands in NER

280
Q

How are DSBs repaired (double stranded DNA breaks)

A

either by non homologous end joining or homologous recombination repair

281
Q

DSBS (double stranded DNA breaks)

A

replication fork collapse during DNA replication, ionizing radiation (chemical damage), DSBs are common; 5-10% cells in culture have a DSB.

281
Q

in repairing DSBs which process is error prone?

A

non homologous end joining as they just stick both ends of the DNA without caring about which base pairs match and at the same time we lose base pairs.

282
Q

Non-homologous end joining

A

occurs throughout cell cycle, DNA-PK+KU protein complex binds DSB ends, artemis (5’-3’ exonuclease) trims ends and DNA ligase joins ends back together. PRONE TO ERROR

283
Q

what binds the DSB ends in non homologous end joining

A

DNA-PK + KU protein complex binds DSB ends for Artemis (5’-3’ exonuclease) trims ends

284
Q

homologous recomb repair process

A

EXO1/DNA 2 exonucleases trim DSBs to create complementary overhangs, RAD51 helps overhanging strand to invade complementary strand, DNA polymerase extends invaded strand and displaces dark blue strand which also pairs with complement (Interlocked). DNA polymerase extends both strands and ligase seals. RESOLVASES cut holliday junctions (crossover structures) and ligases join ends.

284
Q

Homologous recombination repair

A

uses homologous recombination to accurately repair break, uses other chromosome as accurate source of genetic info and only occurs during cell (S and G2) when chromosomes are located next to each other and available to use as template

284
Q

when does homologous recombination occur

A

during cell cycle (S and G2 phase) when chromosomes are located next to each other and available to use as a template

285
Q

when does non homologous end joining occur

A

occurs throughout the cell cycle

286
Q

RESOLVASES in homologous recombination repair

A

cut holliday junctions (Crossover structures of dna and complementary strands) and ligases join ends.

287
Q

what DNA repair problem results in Huntingtons disease

A

Mismatch repair, repeats of CAG in Htt gene can slip during replication or transcription causing loops/bulges. The wrong strand is removed resulting in using the loop.bulge as template and introduces extra repeats into the repaired strands. Too many glutamines in Htt protein.

287
Q

what helps the overhanging strand to invade complementary strand in homologous recombination repair

288
Q

gene editing nobel prize

A

CRISPR-Cas9: deliberately introduce mutations or change base pairs in the genome 2020 nobel prize: Jennifer DOudna and emmanuelle charpentier

288
Q

too many glutamines in Htt protein

A

causes huntingtons disease as MMR fails by using loop/bulge as template and introduces extra repeats into the repaired strand (removal of wrong strand by exonuclease).

289
Q

jennifer doudna and emmanuelle charpentier 2020

A

nobel prize for CRISPR-Cas9 -> deliberately introduce mutations or change base pairs in the genome

290
Q

CRISPR-Cas9

A

Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats, originated as bacteria defence against viral pathogens. The bacterial ‘adaptive immune system’ (compare to our antibodies)

291
Q

CRISPR- Cas9 in bacteria

A

Bacterial Cas-9-tracrRNA-crRNA complex finds and cuts viral DNA (must include PAM- protospacer adjacent motif)

291
Q

CRISPR- Cas9 in bacteria key elements

A

Cas9- enzyme that cleaves DNA
Tracer RNA and crRNA
PAM sequence

292
Q

CRISPR-Cas9 as a tool

A

can turn the bacterial system into a gene editing tool, crRNA and tracrRNA linked to make a single guideRNA then the CRISPR-Cas9 can be encoded to cleave any sequence off.

293
Q

How can we use CRISPR-Cas9 as a tool?

A

deliver Cas9 protein and guideRNA into the cell, or deliver plasmid/viral DNA vector or mRNA into the cell!

294
Q

What happens after CRISPR-Cas9 cut?

A

Creates a DSB which we can use in aims of creating a disruptive error in non homologous end joining (frameshift and inactivation of protein) or homology-directed repair (similar to HRR) USING A DNA TEMPLATE WITH DESIRED SEQUENCE

295
Q

BENEFITS OF USING CRISPR-Cs9 AS A TOOL FOR GENE EDITING

A

We can find a specific part of DNA we want to change by cutting off sequence we dont want and replacing it with a desired sequence with homology-directed repair

296
Q

homology-directed repair

A

similar to homologous recombination repair, however we can use a DNA template with a desired sequence with CRISPR-Cas9.

297
Q

Case study: gene editing for HIV prevention

A

2018 He jiankui CCR5 gene editing: first genetically engineered human babies from HIV pos mother: 1 baby heterozygous (CCr5 editing with no benefit) 1 baby homozygous (CCR5 editing). Off target effects unknowing, germline (heritable). Mosaicism.

298
Q

ccr5 mutation

A

some people of northern european descent naturally carry CCR5 mutation (cant be recognised by HIV): ~10% heterozygous, 1% homo
1% naturally resistant to HIV infection.

299
Q

nov 2018 he jiankui: ccr5

A

CCr5 gene editing in mouse, monkey and human embryos using CRISPR-Cas9 -> created first genetically engineered human babies (HIV pos mother)

300
Q

Modified Cas9 (base editing) no double strand break

A

converts bases at a position indicated by the guide, uses mutant or dead Cas9 fused to cytidine deaminase (CBE) or adenosine deaminase (ABE)

301
Q

traditional CRISPR editing is good for

A

good for introducing indels and small inserts/changes which requires a double stranded break (not really ideal)

302
Q

modified Cas9 base editing vs traditional CRISPR editing

A

original good for introducing indels and small inserts/changes requiring DSB but not really ideal when most diseases are caused by C>T mutations: converts bases at a position indicated by the guide with no DSBs

303
Q

case study: gene editing for cholesterol

A

High LDL cholesterol associated with coronary artery/cardiovascular diseases and death: VERVE101: mRNA in lipid nanoparticle, intravenous infusion -> edits A-T to G-C within a splice donor site and silences PCSK9 expression in hepatocytes -> LOWER LDL

304
Q

housekeeping RNA

A

for ongoing cellular processes (rRNA/tRNA; transcription translation)

305
Q

regulatory RNAS

A

non-coding, for splicing and control of gene exp.

306
Q

tRNAs and small nuclear RNA made by which polymerase

A

RNA polymerase III

307
Q

rRNA is made by which polymerase

A

RNA polymerase I and nucleolus

308
Q

how many mRNA

A

~2% highly regualted, coding and made by RNA polymerase II

309
Q

how many transfer RNA and rRNA

310
Q

how many other RNAs (small nucleolar and micro RNAs)

311
Q

Three RNA polymerase enzymes

A

POL II, POL III and POL I

312
Q

POLYMERASE II

A

makes mRNA and snRNA: highly regulated process to give cells their identity and allow cellular functions

313
Q

POL III

A

constitutively transcribes non coding RNA (tRNA and snRNA)

314
Q

POL I

A

makes pre rRNAs for the ribosome

315
Q

what is transcription

A

making RNA from the DNA instructions: initiation, elongation of RNA chain and termination, pre-mRNA requires processing to become mature mRNA.

316
Q

Where does transcription start?

A

+1 site downstream of promoter, polymerisation in 5’-3’ direction

  • RNA nucleotides added to 3’ end and reading DNA template strand in 3’ to 5’ direction.
    Watson-crick base pairing but replace thymine and uracil. Gene on either strand can overlap (HIV genome)
317
Q

what direction does polymerisation occur

A

5’ to 3’ direction, RNA nucleotides are added to the 3’ end and reading DNA template strand in 3’ to 5’ direction.

318
Q

promoter region tells the cell

A

Promoter region tells the cell to assemble all the things that are needed for transcription but doesnt actually start transcribing

319
Q

Where does transcription start? Initiator:

A

short consensus sequence 2-7 bp long, found at transcription start site of DNA

320
Q

transcription start site

A

the precise location on a DNA molecule where RNA polymerase initiates the process of transcription. +1 position ADENINE is where transcript starts, consensus in mammals.

320
Q

Core promoters

A

short consensus sequence 6-10 bp found in highly transcribed genes (DNA) sites 26-31 nt upstream of transcription start and defines template strand.

321
Q

Where is the spot where the protein complexes assemble to start transcription

A

promoter -> short consensus sequence (6-10bp) highly transcribed genes. 26-31 nt upstream

321
Q

how many nucleotides do core promoters sit upstream of transcription start

A

26-31 nt upstream.

322
Q

CpG islands

A

initiate transcription of ~70% of protein coding genes, 100-1000 bp long (overlap transcription start and translation start further from promoter region), Very rich in C and G compared to gene body. C METHYLATION SUPPRESSES TRANSCRIPTION.

323
Q

what part of the promoter has cytosine methylation and suppresses transcription

A

CpG islands, way of regulating gene expression, methylation (of cytosine) is used as a way of regulating gene expression (can go wrong remember in deamination), stops interaction of the transcription transcriptional proteins with this area and turns gene exp off

324
Q

What proteins perform transcription

A

THE PIC: pre initiation complex.

325
Q

THE PIC pre intiation complex CONSISTS OF

A

RNA polymerase II and general transcription factors (TFIIE and TFIIH): helicase activity and DNA melting (closed to open)

326
Q

where does the pre initiation complex assemble and what does it interact with.

A

Assembles at the promoters (promoter region and interacts with enhancers (DNA loop).

327
Q

why the pre initiation complex? why general transcription factors?

A

POLY II is doing the polymerase → adding RNA nucleotides on but cant do anything else so requires general transcription factors.

328
Q

RNA POLYMERASE II (Structure)

A

performs polymerisation, adds RNA nulceotides to 3’ end of RNA, reads DNA temp strand in 3’-5’ direction. Unique alpha subunits compared to pol I and III (recognise general transcription factors). Beta subunit clamp domain (c-terminal domain CTD) 7 aas (serine rich) repeated in tandem, serine phosphorlyation is main checkpoint for transcription

329
Q

beta subunit clamp domain

A

c-terminal domain CTD: 7 aas (serine-rich) repeated in tandem: serine phosphorylation is the main checkpoint for transcription * point at which all regulation occurs for RNA polymerase

330
Q

How does RNA polymerase II performs polymersation

A

adds RNA nucleotides to 3’ end of RNA and reads DNA template strand in 3’ to 5’ direction.

331
Q

Alpha subunits RNA polymerase II compared to I and III

A

Polymerase II has unique alpha subunits compared to pol I and III

332
Q

transcription factors

A

like co-pilots of RNA pol, all neccessary non polymerase functions, tell RNA Pol II where and when to express specific genes, general tf is TFII

333
Q

what do transcription factors do

A

tell RNA polymerase II where and when to express specific genes, all necessary non polymerase functions (where template strand, promoter, start transcription and speed).

333
Q

what is the key regulatory step of transcription

A

initiation

334
Q

Transcription initation

A

RNA POL II must find correct gene, time and location, low processivity enzyme as it CTD hasn’t been phosphorylated. Maincheckpoint, assembly of TFIIA,B RNA POL II, TFIIF, E and H.

334
Q

TFIIE

A

in initiation, binds to the protein complex and acts a docking site for TFIIH

335
Q

TFIIH and promoter clearance

A

TFIIH helicase/protein kinase sits ahead of Pol II, melts/unwinds DNA then phosphorylates the CTD, major conformational change in DNA CLAMP -> allows promoter clearance -> release all transcriptional initators & allow high processivity -> fast (50-80 nts per sec) genes transcribed in seconds/mins

336
Q

what clears the promoter (promoter clearance)

A

TFIIH helicase/protein kinase sits ahead of pol II melts/unwinds DNA then phosphorylates the CTD -> major confromational change in DNA clamp allowing promoter clearance

337
Q

once the promoter clearance occurs is transcription fast or slow?

A

fast, release of all transcriptional initators allows high processivity, RNA pol will transcribe fast (50-80 nts per sec) genes are transcribed in seconds to mins.

338
Q

transcription elongation

A

CTD phosphorylation and conformational change, tightly bound substrate (DNA), high processivity enzyme rapidly elongates new pre-mRNAs (further processing needed before mRNAs translated)

339
Q

stages of initation of transcription

A
  1. recognising and binding to the promoter,
  2. melt DNA
  3. limited polymerisation
340
Q

transcription steps

A
  1. initation
  2. elongation
  3. termination
341
Q

termination

A

termination coupled to mRNA cleavage and polyadenylation (poly(A) site and termination sites).

342
Q

Order of proteins assembling in initation phase

A

OTHER TFIIs first (A,B), then RNA POL II binds, TFIIE binds to the C-terminal DOMAIN acting as the docking site for TFIIH also on the C-terminal domain.

343
Q

mRNA processing order

A

5’ capping
cleavage at the PolyA site
polyadenylation

344
Q

Co transcriptional mRNA processing

A

while the mRNA is being transcripted the mRNA is being modified by the enzymes hosted by the CTD (C-terminus domain)

345
Q

C-terminus domain enzymes

A

it is long, so not only does it undergo phosphorylation, it also can house enzymes that modify the mRNA for 5’ capping, splicing, cleavage and polyadenylation.

346
Q

5’ capping

A

fast, 7 methylguanylate cap on the 5’ end for protection against degradation, all RNA from pol II capped. Joins to 5’ triphosphate masks it from exonuclease attack. Important for translational initation

347
Q

what does the 7-methylguanylate cap do in 5’ capping

A

it protects the 5’ end of the mRNA from degradation and MASKS and joined to the 5’triphosphate from exonuclease attack.l

348
Q

cleavage at poly A site

A

transcription goes past stop codon and where primary transcript ends, 2 poly A signals (one 10-35 nt upstread 5’ AAUAAA and one 20 nt downstream 3’ GU/U) bound by cleavage factors that bind to each other then cleave the mRNA at the polyA site

349
Q

poly A signal (5’)

A

10-35 nt upstream with AAUAAA

350
Q

Poly A signal (3’)

A

20 nt downstream with GU/U concentrated

351
Q

what is left after mRNA cleavage at the poly A site

A

capped mRNA that does not have extra mRNA transcript in it after the cleavage at the poly A site.

352
Q

polyadenylation polymerase

A

polyA polymerase, binds to mRNA after cleavage factors

353
Q

polyadenylation

A

polyA polymerase binds to mRNA after cleavage factors, adds 100-200 nt polyA tail that prevents degradation, enhances translation and for mRNA nuclear export. SLOW TO FAST.

354
Q

is polyadenylation slow or fast

A

it starts out slow and then becomes rapid.

355
Q

why does the poly a tail vary in size

A

some mRNAs get paused at this point resulting in a shorter tail..

356
Q

is the poly A tail protecting degradation against endonucleases or exonucleases

A

exonucleases as they cut off the ends of mRNA

357
Q

Termination of transcription

A

once mRNA is cleaved off, RNA pol II keeps transcription ~2kb off polyA site, RNA fragment is not capped or polyadenylated and is degraded back to pol II. The CTD will be dephosphorylated and enzymes will fall off mRNA.

358
Q

where does termination of transcription happen after poly A site cleavage?

A

within ~2kb of polyA site

359
Q

what controls the RNA spatial conformation in splicing?

A

proteins for winding and unwinding of RNA to allow splicing

360
Q

Spliceosome molecular machine

A

as big as ribosome, U1-U6 no U3. SnRNPs + proteins. RNA as enzyme and recognise intronic splice sites.

360
Q

what forms the spliceosome

A

snRNPs, U1, U2, U4, U5 and U6 + other proteins

361
Q

snRNPs and components

A

small nuclear ribonucleoproteins, contain small nuclear RNA and proteins