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EAS 105 Final Exam > 2009 Final Exam > Flashcards

2009 Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the characteristics of a terrestrial planet?

A

Rocky, composed of carbon dioxide and nitrogen.

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2
Q

What is the difference between a rock and a mineral?

A
  • A rock is an aggregate of minerals

- A mineral is a naturally occurring, inorganic crystalline structure with definite physical and chemical properties.

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3
Q

The earth formed _____ billion years ago?

A

4.6

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4
Q

The material in the Earth’s inner core is _____ while the outer core is _____.

A
  • Solid

- Liquid

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5
Q

Which of the Following statements about a scientific theory is not true?

a. It is an explanation for some natural phenomena
b. It has a large body of supporting knowledge
c. It is testable
d. It is a conjecture or guess
e. None of the above

A

d. It is a conjecture or guess

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6
Q

The zone between the core and the crust is the:

a. innsersphere
b. lithosphere
c. mantle
d. convection center
e. molten zone

A

c. mantle

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7
Q

The ocean crust is composed mostly of:

a. granite
b. periodotite
c. basalt
d. sial
e. gneiss

A

c. basalt

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8
Q

True or False: In the 19th century, the geologic time scale was based primarily on sequence of fossils in the rock record.

A

True

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9
Q

True or False: The Principle of Uniformitarianism is based on the idea that modern processes have operated throughout geologic time.

A

True

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10
Q

What were the major lines of evidence for continental drift as presented by Wegener in the early 20th century?

A
  • Continents fit together like a puzzle
  • Similar plants and fossils were found on different continents
  • Similar rock sequences and mountain ranges on different continents.
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11
Q

What was the principle reason why Wegener’s theory of continental drift was rejected?

A

He didn’t have a plausible mechanism to explain the movement.

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12
Q

Briefly explain the Wilson Cycle (also called the supercontinent cycle).

A

The cycle opening and closing ocean basins by the movement of the Earth’s plates.

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13
Q

How are hotspots used for determining the absolute motions of plates?

A

Hotspots appear to be fixed in place, so they can be used as a reference frame. If the age of the basalt and its distance from the hot spot is determined then the rate of movement of that rock or island can be calculated.

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14
Q

What was the name of the group of fossils that was considered as evidence for the supercontinent of Gondwana?

a. Glossaurus
b. Pecopteris
c. Neuropteris
d. Glossopteris
e. Messopteris

A

d. Glossopteris

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15
Q

The first person to suggest that all of the continents had originally been joined together as the supercontinent Pangaea was:

a. Alexander du Toit, 1937
b. Frank Taylor, 1910
c. Alfred Wegener, 1912
d. Neil O’Donnell, 1995
e. Snider Pelligrini, 1858
f. Harry Hess, 1962

A

c. Alfred Wegener

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16
Q

If the continents were once joined together, rocks and mountain ranges on the margins of each should have:

a. formed under the same conditions
b. formed under the same sequence
c. formed at the same time
d. the same structural trends and forces
e. all of the above
f. none of the above
g. A & C only
h. B & D only

A

e. all of the above

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17
Q

True or False: Changes in the Earth’s magnetic field have occured throughout geologic time and these are called magnetic reversals.

A

True

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18
Q

True or False: Hot spots move with continental plates.

A

False

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19
Q

True or False: The west coast of South America is a convergent boundary.

A

True

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20
Q

How do a rock and a mineral differ?

A
  • A rock is an aggregate of minerals

- A mineral is a naturally occurring, inorganic crystalline solid with definite physical and chemical properties

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21
Q

Give an example of a native element.

A
  • Gold
  • Silver
  • Copper
  • Diamond
  • Graphite
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22
Q

What is a simple chemical test which will distinguish calcite from non-carbonate minerals?

A

Calcite will effervesce in hydrochloric acid, other non-carbonate minerals will not.

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23
Q

What is a simple chemical test which will distinguish calcite from non-carbonate minerals?

A

Calcite will effervesce in hydrochloric acid, other non-carbonate minerals will not.

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24
Q

What is the most distinctive property of the mineral halite?

A

Its salty taste

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25
Q

Diamond and graphite are two minerals with the same chemical composition, but extremely different physical properties. Why is this?

A

They have different crystalline structures.

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26
Q

In the _____ type of chemical bonding, electrons are shared between adjacent atoms.

A

covalent

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27
Q

The basic building block of silicate minerals is the silica _____.

A

tetrahendron

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28
Q

The hardest, most chemically inert common rock-forming mineral is _____.

A

quartz

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29
Q

Cleavage is defined as:

a. planes of fracture resulting from weak bonds
b. smooth, flat reflective surfaces
c. surfaces of smooth, curved fracture
d. planes of fracture resulting from strong bonds
e. none of the above

A

a. planes of fracture resulting from weak bonds

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30
Q

An example of a material which has been both a resource and a reserve depending on abundance, economic conditions, and mining technology is:

a. platinum
b. gold
c. petroleum
d. iron
e. all of the above
f. none of the above

A

e. all of the above

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31
Q

True or False: Minerals may have chemical compositions that vary within a range.

A

True

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32
Q

True or False: Noble gases are chemically inert because their outer electron shell is filled.

A

True

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33
Q

How does lava differ from magma?

A

Lava is magma at Earth’s surface, and has lost gases and volatiles.

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34
Q

What does a phaneritic texture tell about the history of an igneous rock?

A

The magma cooled slowly and has a coarse texture.

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35
Q

What does a porphyritic texture tell about the history of an igneous rock?

A

The magma cooled at two rates. First slowly, then more rapidly. Creating different textures within the rock.

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36
Q

How does a dike differ from a sill?

A

A dike is discordant, a sill is concordant.

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37
Q

How does a dike differ from a sill?

A

A dike is discordant, a sill is concordant.

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38
Q

By the process of _____ the composition of magma can be changed when it comes into contact with country rock.

A

assimilation

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39
Q

An igneous rock in which large mineral grains called _____ are suspended in a finely crystalline groundmass is called a _____.

A
  • Phenocrysts

- Porphyry

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40
Q

Basalt and gabbro are compositional equivalents which means that they are made up of the same _____ minerals but have different _____.

A
  • minerals

- textures

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41
Q

The largest intrusive bodies are called _____ and, by definition, they must have at least _____ square kilometers of surface area.

A
  • Batholiths

- 100

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42
Q

A dark coloured igneous rock with no visible crystals cooled:

a. slowly in a magma chamber
b. quickly in a magma chamber
c. slowly on the Earth’s surface
d. quickly on the Earth’s surface
e. none of the above

A

b. quickly in a magma chamber

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43
Q

Aphanitic, phaneritic, and porphyritic are textual terms that:

a. refer to fine-grained, course grained and mixed grained crystal sizes, respectively.
b. refer to formation by slow cooling, fast cooling, and mixed cooling rates, respectively.
c. are indicative of volcanic, plutonic and mixed plutonic-volcanic origins, respectively.
d. A and C
e. A, B, and C

A

d. A and C

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44
Q

True or False: Bowen’s Reaction Series explains the order of mineral formation with decreasing temperature.

A

True

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45
Q

True or False: Bowen’s Reaction Series explains why Si-rich minerals are the last to crystallize from magma.

A

True.

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46
Q

Match the aphanitic rock type with its phaneritic intrusive compositional equivalent below:

A. rhyolite
B. basalt
C. ansesite

___ diorite
___ granite
___ gabbro

A

C –> Diorite
A –> Granite
B –> Gabbro

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47
Q

How is volcanism destructive? What are two reasons that it is primarily a constructive process?

A
  • Some volcanic eruptions are explosive and they blow a lot of material outward.
  • Volcanism also builds up material, including at the volcanoes and lava flows. This creates new islands and new sea floor.
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48
Q

What is a lahar?

A

A destructive mud flow on the slopes of a volcano.

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49
Q

Which magma type usually erupts from fissures?

A

Basalt

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50
Q

According to plate tectonic theory, why are there volcanoes in Hawaii?

A

The volcanoes formed over a hot spot.

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51
Q

The eruption that buried the city of Pompeii, Italy in 79A.D. was that of Mount _____, which prior to the eruption had been quiet for at least _____ years.

A
  • Vesuvivus

- ???

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52
Q

The one place on Earth where mid-ocean ridge volcanism occurs above sea level is _____.

A

Ice Land

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53
Q

Volcanism occurs along the following two types of plate boundaries: _____ and _____.

A
  • Convergent

- Divergent

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54
Q

An example of a shield volcano is:

a. Kilauea
b. Mount St. Helens
c. Mount Shasta
d. Mount Mazama
e. Fujiyama

A

a. Kilauea

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55
Q

True or False: Earth is the only body in our solar system that is volcanically active?

A

False

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56
Q

True or False: Lava flows are the greatest hazard of volcanoes.

A

False

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57
Q

True or False: a nuee ardente may travel at speeds as high as 100KM per hour.

A

True

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58
Q

What are index minerals, as the term is applied to metamorphic rocks?

A

The occur at certain temperatures and depths and can be used to tell where and when a metamorphic rock formed.

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59
Q

What is a metamorphic facies?

A

A set of metamorphic mineral assemblages that were formed under similar pressures and temperatures.

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60
Q

What are some examples of foliated metamorphic rocks?

A
  • Gneiss
  • Phylite
  • Schist
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61
Q

The concentric zones surrounding an igneous intrusion, and in which contact metamorphism has taken place are called _____.

A

Aureoles

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62
Q

The type of metamorphism that occurs over large areas, commonly at convergent plate margins, and is responsible for the production of most metamorphic rocks is _____.

A

Regional

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63
Q

Metamorhpism takes place:

a. in the liquid state, melted by contact with magma.
b. in the solid state with or without fluid activity.
c. only at great depth.
d. A and C
e. all of the above

A

b. in the solid state with or without fluid activity.

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64
Q

The two most important sources of heat for metamorphism are:

a. intrusive magma bodies and deep burial
b. intrusive magma bodies and heat from the core
c. deep burial and volcanism
d. radioactive decay and volcanism
e. radioactive decay and deep burial

A

a. intrusive magma bodies and deep burial

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65
Q

True or False: Metamorphic rocks are very common in the crystalline basement rocks of shields.

A

True

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66
Q

True or False: Metamorphic rocks have formed throughout all geologic periods.

A

True

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67
Q

What is a cone of depression, where is it found, and what causes it? Why can large cones of depression be a serious problem?

A

Water being removed from an aquifer faster than the rate of replenishment. This can drain and dry water tables which are a source of fresh water.

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68
Q

What is a cone of depression, where is it found, and what causes it? Why can large cones of depression be a serious problem?

A

Water being removed from an aquifer faster than the rate of replenishment. This can drain and dry water tables which are a source of fresh water.

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69
Q

How are stalactites different from stalagmites? Why do they typically form in pairs and often merge to form a column?

A

Stalactites hang from the ceiling, stalagmites grow upward from the ground. They form in paris because the drippings from the stalactites cause the stalagmites to grow underneath them, and they eventually meet to form a column.

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70
Q

Under what conditions will an artesian well flow freely at the surface?

A

When the pressure surface is above ground level, the artesian well will flow freely.

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71
Q

How are sinkholes formed?

A

When soluble bedrock can be dissolved by water, the ground collapses and creates a depression/sinkhole in the ground.

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72
Q

The major source of the water stored as groundwater is _____.

A

precipitation

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73
Q

The percentage of open space within a rock or sediment is known as its _____.

A

porosity

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74
Q

A permeable layer that transports water is called an _____.

A

aquifer

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75
Q

An impermeable layer which prevents the passage of water is an _____.

A

aquiclude

76
Q

The boundary between the zone of aeration and the zone of saturation is know as the _____ _____.

A

water table

77
Q

A place where groundwater flows/seeps out of the ground is a _____.

A

spring

78
Q

The addition of water to the zone of saturation is know as _____.

A

recharge

79
Q

One common, widespread sedimentary rock that is readily dissolved by groundwater is _____.

A

limestone

80
Q

Rounded depressions common in regions having limestone bedrock are known as _____.

A

sinkholes

81
Q

An example of a rock type that could be a good aquifer is:

a. shale
b. quartz sandstone
c. clay
d. basalt
e. marble

A

b. quartz sandstone

82
Q

A local aquiclude within a large aquifer results in a:

a. cone of depression
b. perched water table
c. artesian aquifer
d. zone of aeration
e. zone of saturation

A

b. perched water table

83
Q

True or False: Groundwater makes up about 75% of the Earth’s fresh water.

A

False

84
Q

True or False: Caves do not form in marble because it is a dense and hard rock.

A

False (There are marble caves)

85
Q

What is the difference between ice caps and continental glaciers?

A

Their sizes.

86
Q

Under what conditions does a glacier advance?

A

If it receives more snow at the head of the glacier than the amount lost due to melting at the end of the glacier.

87
Q

Briefly explain how a hanging valley forms.

A

They are formed by tributary glaciers which, unlike rivers, do not cut down to the level of the main valley. They are left suspended above.

88
Q

What are esker and how to they form?

A

Eskers are a pile of deposited sediments.

89
Q

The climatic event that ended, among other things, the Viking colonization of Greenland was known as _____ Ice Age.

A

Little

90
Q

The Pleistocene Ice Age ended:

a. 1.6 million years ago
b. 10,000 years ago
c. 1300 years ago
d. 200 years ago
e. It still hasn’t ended

A

b. 10,000 years ago

91
Q

The largest existing glacier right now is located in:

a. Greenland
b. Alaska
c. The Alps
d. Patagonia
e. Antarctia

A

a. Antarctia

92
Q

Straight scratches on rock surfaces created by glacial abrasion are known as:

a. rock flour
b. glacial striations
c. glacial till
d. varves
e. moraines

A

b. glacial striations

93
Q

Glacial till is:

a. any sediment deposited as a result of glacial activity.
b. boulders transported long distances and deposited by glaciers.
c. an elongated spoon-shaped hill that has been shaped by an overriding glacier.
d. unstratified sediment deposited directly by a glacier.
e. a lake within an outwash plain.

A

d. unstratified sediment deposited by a glacier.

94
Q

True or False: The Little Ice Age ended in the late 1800s.

A

True

95
Q

True or False: The “Great Ice Age” glaciers were most extensive and active in the Northern Hemisphere.

A

True

96
Q

True or False: Glaciers are geologically important because they erode, transport, and deposit so much material.

A

True

97
Q

What is the principle of superposition and what is its importance?

A

In a sequence of undeformed sedimentary rocks, the oldest beds are on the bottoms and the youngest are on the top.

98
Q

What is the principle of fossil succession and what is its importance? Who is credited with discovering it?

A

Groups of fossil plants and animals occur in the geologic record in a definite and determinable order. A period of geologic time can be recognized by its fossils. William Smith discovered it.

99
Q

What is the principle of uniformitarianism? Why does the principle of uniformitarianism lead to the conclusion that Earth’s age is great?

A

It states that modern processes have operated throughout geologic time. The major folds and inconformity seen in rocks couple not have been produced in such a short time if the principle of uniformitarianism is applied.

100
Q

How does relative dating differ from absolute dating?

A

Relative dating is the age of a rock layer compared with other layers. Absolute dating determines the age by using radiometric dating to give a numerical age.

101
Q

How does the sequence of events differ between an angular unconformity and a disconformity?

A
  • Angular unconformity tells us that the surface of erosion, which cuts across the bedding plane of lower strata, indicates these were tilted prior to erosion.
  • A disconformity tells us a type of unconformity in which the sedimentary layers above and below the unconformity are parallel.
102
Q

What are the requirements for a useful guide fossil?

A
  • Widespread geographically
  • Occurs in large numbers
  • Short time span on geologic scale
103
Q

Explain why correlation by fossils is necessary to demonstrate time equivalence of strata.

A

Some fossils were only found within a limited range of strata and these fossils, because they were so characteristic of relative age, were termed index fossils.

104
Q

Why are fossils found almost exclusively in sedimentary rock (as opposed to other types of rocks)?

A

The melting, heat, and pressure in igneous and metamorphic rocks would not allow the preservation of fossils.

105
Q

A clast of granite taken from a conglomerate is determined by radiometric dating to be one hundred million years old. What, if anything, does this tell you about the age of the conglomerate?

A

The conglomerate is younger.

106
Q

Earlier Precambrian rocks could not be correlated over great distances from one area to another (e.g. from Canada to Europe) but younger rocks were correlated in the same areas with a high degree of confidence. Why was this?

A

In the precambrian time there was an explosion, all the fossils exploded. in recent times fossils have been found in rocks.

107
Q

Which of the major rock types were most important originally in developing the geologic time scale and why?

A

Sedimentary because it shows rock sequence.

108
Q

What kind of rocks (igneous, sedimentary, metamorphic) have been most important in determining absolute age dates for the geologic time scale? Explain why.

A

Sedimentary, because they have not been changed.

109
Q

A surface of erosion on metamorphic or igneous rocks, below sedimentary rocks is a:

a. nonconformity
b. disconformity
c. angular unconformity
d. anti-conformity
e. none of the above

A

a. nonconformity

110
Q

A surface of erosion or non-deposition between younger and older beds that are parallel to one another is a:

a. nonconformity
b. disconformity
c. angular unconformity
d. anti-conformity
e. none of the above

A

b. disconformity

111
Q

The principle that states that in an undisturbed succession of sedimentary rocks, the oldest layer is at the bottom and the youngest is at the top is the:

a. principle of cross-cutting relationships
b. principle of inclusions
c. principle of fossil succession
d. principle of uniformitarianism
e. principle of superposition

A

e. principle of superposition

112
Q

The principle that states that fragments of one rock contained within another rock are older than the containing rock is know as the:

a. principle of cross-cutting relationships
b. principle of inclusions
c. principle of fossil succession
d. principle of uniformitarianism
e. principle of superposition

A

b. principle of inclusions

113
Q

The principle that states that fossil assemblages succeed one another through time in a regular and predictable order is known as the:

a. principle of cross-cutting relationships
b. principle of inclusions
c. principle of fossil succession
d. principle of uniformitarianism
e. principle of superposition

A

c. principle of fossil succession

114
Q

If an isotope has a half-life of 50 million years, and 1/8 of the sample remaining consists of that isotope, the age of the rock from which it was taken is:

a. 400 million years
b. 300 million years
c. 150 million years
d. 800 million years
e. none of the above

A

c. 150 million years

115
Q

To determine the radiometric age of a rock, scientists must be able to measure very accurately:

a. the unstable parent element
b. the unstable daughter element
c. the stable parent element
d. the stable daughter element
e. A and D

A

e

116
Q

Briefly explain the difference between the tectonic setting of shield and craton areas during the Precambrian and since the onset of the Phanerozoic.

A 
Precambrian= cratons were stable
Phanerozoic= most recent- cratons were developing
117
Q

What are the two main rock types that characterize Archean shield areas?

A

Greenstone and Granite

118
Q

What is the basic difference between the Archean and the Proterozoic?

A

Archean was cooler, Proterozoic was warmer.

119
Q

What large landmasses may have formed a supercontinent during the late Proterozoic, according to some geologists?

A

All the continents forms one supercontinent.

120
Q

What two processes, which began during the Archean, can account for the introduction of free oxygen into the atmosphere?

A

Photosynthesis and Photochemical Dissociatoin

121
Q

What are banded iron formations composed mainly of?

A

Silica and Iron-Rich Bands

122
Q

What does the appearance of red bands in the geologic record indicate about the atmosphere?

A

An oxidizing atmosphere

123
Q

The Precambrian is divided into the following two eons: _____ and _____.

A
  • Archean

- Proterozoic

124
Q

Archean continental accretion occurred rapidly from _____ to _____ billion years ago because there were more small landmasses to collide with each other.

A
  • 2.5

- 4.0

125
Q

Early organisms played a role in the accumulation of free oxygen through the process of _____ which combines carbon dioxide and _____ to make organic molecules, and _____ is given off as waste.

A
  • Photosynthesis
  • Water
  • Oxygen
126
Q

Time divisions in the Precambrian are based on:

a. distinct fossil assemblages.
b. metamorphic assemblages.
c. radiometric age dates.
d. time-stratigraphic units.
e. guess.

A

a. distinct fossil assemblages

127
Q

No rocks are known for the first _____ years of Earth history.

a. 4.0 billion
b. 3.6 billion
c. 640 million
d. 160 million
e. 10,000

A

c. 640 million

128
Q

The Precambrian comprises what percent of geologic time?

a. 99%
b. 88%
c. 77%
d. 66%
e. 55%

A

b. 88%

129
Q

All but which of the following are features of greenstone belts?

a. volcanic and sedimentary rocks
b. key index fossil assemblages
c. granitic intrusions
d. complex folding and faulting
e. abundant chlorite

A

b. key index fossil assemblages

130
Q

The iron in banded iron formations was primarily in which iron-bearing minerals?

a. iron sulfide
b. iron oxides
c. iron silicate
d. iron carbonate
e. none of the above

A

b. iron oxides

131
Q

What factors led to the enormous scale of banded iron deposition during the Proterozoic?

a. abundance of dissolved iron in oxygen poor hydrosphere during the Archean
b. increase in photosynthesizing bacteria as stromatolites
c. chemical affinity of iron to combine with available oxygen
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

132
Q

Ninety eight percent of the modern atmosphere is made up of which two gases?

a. oxygen and carbon dioxide
b. nitrogen and carbon dioxide
c. oxygen and nitrogen
d. ozone and nitrogen
e. ozone and oxygen

A

c. oxygen and nitrogen

133
Q

The Archean atmosphere could be described as:

a. oxygen rich
b. nitrogen rich
c. ozone rich
d. oxygen deficient
e. carbon dioxide rich

A

d. oxygen deficient

134
Q

The increase in atmospheric oxygen during the Proterozoic was related to:

a. decreased world wide volcanism
b. decrease in size of oceans
c. photosynthesis by bacteria
d. appearance of land plants
e. none of the above

A

c. photosynthesis by bacteria

135
Q

Which of the following might be considered advantages that multi-celled organisms have over single cell organisms?

a. They can grow larger.
b. Specialized cells are more efficient.
c. Cells can be replaced thus they live longer.
d. Specialized cells for reproduction aid in population growth.
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

136
Q

The first multi-cellular organisms were probably similar to living:

a. green algae
b. viruses
c. bacteria
d. termites
e. rats

A

d. termites

137
Q

What are believed to be the causes of global transgressive and regressive cycles?

A

Tectonic and glacial events.

138
Q

What were three major mobile belts in North America in the Paleozoic?

A
  • Cordilleran
  • Ouachita
  • Appalachian
139
Q

What is a clastic wedge, such as might form during an orogeny?

A

Extensive accumulation of mostly clastic sediments eroded from and deposited adjacent to an uplifted area.

140
Q

The Phanerozoic Eon comprises _____ percent of geologic time.

A

10%

141
Q

During the Paleozoic cratons were covered with large bodies of water called _____ _____.

A

Eperic Seas

142
Q

The supercontinent that formed near the end of the Paleozoic from an assembling of all the continents was called _____.

A

Pangaea

143
Q

Most of the productive coal beds of the Paleozoic age are formed in rocks formed during the _____ period.

A

Pennsylvanian

144
Q

The craton can be divided into two components, which are:

a. a mobile belt and a sub-craton
b. a sub-craton and a platform
c. a platform and a mobile belt
d. a shield and a platform
e. an epeiric sea and a platform

A

d. a shield and a platform

145
Q

Rocks of the shield are primarily:

a. igneous
b. metamorphic
c. sedimentary
d. A and C
e. A and B

A

e. A and B

146
Q

The platform is formed by:

a. flat-lying to gently dipping Paleozoic sedimentary rocks
b. steeply dipping and folded Paleozoic sedimentary socks
c. folded and faulted Precambrian metamorphic rocks
d. A and C
e. all of the above

A

a. flat-lying to gently dipping Paleozoic sedimentary rocks

147
Q

The general climatic conditions on the Paleozoic supercontinent (Pangaea) were:

a. arid
b. arid to semiarid
c. semiarid to subtropical
d. subtropical to humid
e. humid

A

b. arid to semiarid

148
Q

A cratonic sequence is recognized by:

a. a transgressive phase followed by a regressive phase.
b. a regressive phase followed by a transgressive phase.
c. a regressive phase only.
d. a transgressive phase only.
e. a lack of any sequence.

A

a. a transgressive phase followed by a regressive phase.

149
Q

Limestone structures constructed by living organisms which build a skeletal structure are called:

a. inorganic colonies
b. organic reefs
c. organic colonials
d. inorganic reefs
e. anhydrite reefs

A

b. organic reefs

150
Q

The Western Canada Sedimentary Basin is an important source for:

a. oil
b. gas
c. gold
d. silver
e. A & B
f. A & C

A

e. A & B

151
Q

The Precambrian-Cambrian boundary represents the first appearance of:

a. vertebrates
b. amphibians
c. reptiles
d. animals with skeletons
e. animals with soft bodies

A

d. animals with skeletons

152
Q

Which of the following does not apply to trilobites?

a. abundant in modern oceans
b. excellent guide fossils
c. benthos, mobile
d. sediment-feeder
e. invertabrate

A

a. abundant in modern oceans

153
Q

True or False: There is no evidence in the geologic record that multi-celled organisms of any kind existed prior to the Cambrian.

A

False

154
Q

True or False: Trilobites, an organism abundant in the Early Paleozoic and less abundant in the Late Paleozoic, greatly flourished after the Permian extinction.

A

False

155
Q

True or False: The amalgamation of Pangaea may have played an important role in the Permian extinction because the shallow marine environment was greatly reduced.

A

True

156
Q

True or False: The critical factors in species survival of the Permian extinction are wide geographic distribution and tolerance of broad temperature ranges.

A

True

157
Q

True or False: Fish first evolved in a marine environment and later adapted to non-marine habitats.

A

False

158
Q

In what ways did the breakup of Pangaea affect geologic and biologic events on Earth?

A

Pangea is the one large land mass that used to dominate the Earth before continental drift separated the land mass. The breakup separated different species on different continents, but evidence from fossil remains show evidence of Pangea by showing a species of lungfish found on multiple continents such as North America, when they are now commonly found closer to Australia.

159
Q

The three time periods of the Mesozoic, from oldest to youngest are __________, __________, and
__________.

A

Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous

160
Q

The Mesozoic Era is known as the:

a. age of reptiles
b. age of dinosaurs
c. age of Pangaea
d. age of angiosperms
e. age of flowering plants

A

a. age of reptiles

161
Q

In addition to expansion of reptile species during the Mesozoic, other life groups which showed
increase in diversity include:

A. marine invertebrates.
B. plants.
C. mammals.
D. birds.
E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above

162
Q

The two groups of marine reptiles were:

a. plesiosaurs and pterosaurs
b. pterosaurs and ichthyosaurs
c. captorhinomorphs and plesiosaurs
d. plesiosaurs and ichthyosaurs
e. plesiosaurs and crocodiles

A

d. plesiosaurs and ichthyosaurs

163
Q

During the Mesozoic, climatic variation on Earth could be described as:

a. extreme in terms of precipitation
b. extreme in terms of temperature
c. lacking great north-south variation
d. having great north-south variation
e. similar to present day

A

c. lacking great north-south variation

164
Q

Greatly accelerated rates of extinction are called:

a. disasters
b. punctuated equilibrium
c. mass extinctions
d. gradualisms
e. normal

A

c. mass extinctions

165
Q

The meteorite impact theory for the Cretaceous mass extinction is based on:

A. great input of particulate matter into the atmosphere.
B. blocking of the incoming solar radiation.
C. cessation of photosynthesis.
D. collapse of the food chains.
E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

166
Q

In what two major zones or belts has Cenozoic orogenic activity been mainly concentrated in North
America?

A

Alpine-Himalayan orogenic belt and the circum-pacific orogenic belt.

167
Q

What is the North American Cordillera?

A

The North American Cordillera is the North American portion of the American Cordillera which is a mountain chain (cordillera) along the western side of the Americas.

168
Q

What is the origin of the present topography of the Appalachian Mountains?

A

Cenozoic uplift and erosion.

169
Q

At their greatest extent during the Pleistocene, glaciers covered about _____ as much of the Earth’s surface as they do now.

A

3X

170
Q

Less evaporation and more precipitation during the glacial stages led to the formation of _____ lakes.

A

pluvial

171
Q

Where the pluvial lakes once were there are now thick sequences of _____ minerals.

A

evaporite

172
Q

The Himalayas today are:

A. volcanically active.
B. seismically active.
C. a place of mountain building.
D. No longer tectonically active.
E. B and C
A

E. B and C

173
Q

The Himalayan Range formed as a result of:

A. oceanic-oceanic plate collision.
B. continent-continent transform faulting.
C. continent-continent collision.
D. oceanic-continent collision.
E. continent-ocean subduction.
A

C. continent-continent collision.

174
Q

The Columbia River volcanic field can be described as:

A. andesitic stratovolcanoes.
B. voluminous basalt lava flows.
C. voluminous rhyolite tuff eruptions.
D. granite batholiths.
E. layered mafic intrusions.
A

B. voluminous basalt lava flows.

175
Q

The last ice age began about:

A. 150 years ago
B. 500 years ago
C. 10,000 years ago
D. 500,000 years ago
E. 1.6 million years ago
A

E. 1.6 million years ago

176
Q

The present interglacial began about:

A. 150 years ago
B. 500 years ago
C. 10,000 years ago
D. 500,000 years ago
E. 1.6 million years ago
A

C. 10,000 years ago

177
Q

Which of the following is not a direct or an indirect result of glaciation?

A. uplift
B. change in sea level
C. shift of climate zones
D. plate motion
E. pluvial lakes
A

D. plate motion

178
Q

Because of the large amount of weight in a glacial mass, the crust of Earth may:

A. not be affected at all.
B. rebound or uplift.
C. subside.
D. collapse into the mantle.
E. melt.
A

C. subside.

179
Q

During the maximum continental glaciation, the crust of Earth:

A. was depressed below modern levels.
B. rose above modern levels.
C. became partially molten.
D. did not move up or down
E. had no active volcanoes because it was too cold for magma to stay heated
A

A. was depressed below modern levels.

180
Q

The extinction of dinosaurs was important to the evolution of mammals because:

A. this opened many new habitats for mammals to move into.
B. with less competition, mammals were able to diversify.
C. with new adaptive opportunities, mammals were greatly able to increase in numbers.
D. none of the above
E. all of the above

A

A. this opened many new habitats for mammals to move into.

181
Q

The mammalian fauna of the Pleistocene is characterized by:

A. few species.
B. gigantism.
C. being geographically restricted.
D. being basically identical to today.
E. being much smaller than today.
A

B. gigantism.

182
Q

At the height of the Great Ice Age, the present desert regions of the southwestern United States:

A. were covered with continental ice sheets.
B. were drier than modern day conditions.
C. had large lakes form in intermontane basins.
D. were tropical rainforest environments.
E. were covered with valley glaciers.

A

d- were tropical rainforest environments

183
Q

Name 5 different types of mammals whose remains were found in the Colorado in 100,000 year-old lake sediments.

A
  • Buffalo
  • Mammoth
  • Mastodon
  • Sloth
  • Camel
184
Q

Numerous mammoths died because of:

a. process or disease
b. physical mobility or immobility
c. geological event causing mobility or immobility

A

c. geological event causing mobility or immobility

185
Q

In younger, higher level sediments, bones of a mammoth were found with sharp boulders mixed in with them. What are two possible explanations for this?

A
  • hunters

- landslide

EAS 105 Final Exam (3 decks)

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