2008

Question 1

Situation 1 - Mr. Ibarra is assigned to the triage area and while on duty, he assesses the condition of Mrs. Simon who came in with asthma. She has difficulty breathing and her respiratory rate is 40 per minute. Mr. Ibarra is asked to inject the client epinephrine 0.3mg subcutaneously

1. The indication for epinephrine injection for Mrs. Simon is to:
   a. Reduce anaphylaxis
   b. Relieve hypersensitivity to allergen
   c. Relieve respiratory distress due to bronchial spasm
   d. Restore client’s cardiac rhythm

Answer 1

CORRECT ANSWER: C

Question 2

When preparing the epinephrine injection from an ampule, the nurse initially:

a. Taps the ampule at the top to allow fluid to flow to the base of the ampule
b. Checks expiration date of the medication ampule
c. Removes needle cap of syringe and pulls plunger to expel air
d. Breaks the neck of the ampule with a gauze wrapped around it

Answer 2

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: In preparing medications in ampule or any form of medications, always check first the expiration
date and discard outdated medication. Check the label on the ampule carefully to make sure that the correct
medication is being prepared.

Question 3

Mrs. Simon is obese. When administering a subcutaneous injection to an obese patient. It is best for the nurse to:

a. Inject needle at a 15 degree angle over the stretched skin of the client
b. Pinch skin at the injection site and use airlock technique
c. Pull skin of patient down to administer the drug in a Z track
d. Spread skin or pinch at the injection site and inject needle at a 45-90 degree angle

Answer 3

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: To determine the angle of insertion , a general rule to follow relates to the amount of tissue that can be grasped at the site. A 45-degree angle is used when 1 inch of tissue can be grasped at the site; a 90-degree angle is used when 2 inches of tissue can be grasped.

Question 4

When preparing for a subcutaneous injection, the proper size of syringe and needle would be:

a. Syringe 3ml and needle gauge 21 to 23
b. Tuberculin syringe 1 ml with needle gauge 26 or 27
c. Syringe 2ml and needle gauge 22
d. Syringe l-3ml and needle gauge 25 to 27

Answer 4

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: The type of syringe used for subcutaneous injections depends on the medication given. Generally a 2-ml syringe is used for most SC injections. However, if insulin is being administered, an insulin syringe is used; and if heparin is being administered, a tuberculin syringe or prefilled cartridge may be used. Needle sizes and lengths are selected based on the clients body mass, the intended angle of insertion and the planned site. Generally a #25-gauge, 5/8-inch needle is used for adults.

Question 5

The rationale for giving medications through the subcutaneous route is;

a. There are many alternative sites for subcutaneous injection
b. Absorption time of the medicine is slower
c. There are less pain receptors in this area
d. The medication can be injected while the client is in any position

Answer 5

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Subcutaneous injections are given because there is little blood flow to fatty tissue and the injected
medication is generally absorbed more slowly, sometimes over 24 hours. Some medications injected
subcutaneously are growth hormone, insulin, epinephrine and other substances

Question 6

Situation 2 - The use of massage and meditation to help decrease stress and pain have been strongly recommended based on documented testimonials.

Martha wants to do a study on the topic. “Effects of massage and meditation on stress and pain.” The type of research that best suits this topic is:

a. Applied research
b. Qualitative research
c. Basic research
d. Quantitative research

Answer 6

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Qualitative research is the investigation of phenomena, typically in an in depth and holistic fashion, through the collection of rich narrative materials using a flexible design. Qualitative research relies on reasons behind various aspects of behavior. Simply put, it investigates the why and how of decision making, not just what, where, and when. Hence, the need is for smaller but focused samples rather than large random samples, which qualitative research categorizes data into patterns as the primary basis
for organizing and reporting results. Qualitative researchers typically rely on four methods for gathering Information: (1) participation in the setting, (2) direct observation, (3) in depth interviews, and (4) analysis of documents and materials.

OPTION A: Applied research focuses on finding solutions to existing problems. For example, a study to determine the effectiveness of a nursing intervention to ease grieving would be applied research.
OPTION C: Basic research is undertaken to extend the base of knowledge in a discipline, or to formulate or refine theory.
OPTION D: Quantitative research is the investigation of phenomena that lend themselves to precise
measurement and quantification, often involving rigorous and controlled design.

Question 7

The type of research design that does not manipulate independent variable is:

a. Experimental design
b. Quasi-experimental design
c. Non-experimental design
d. Quantitative design

Answer 7

CORRECT ANSWER: C

RATIONALE: Non-experimental research- studies in which the researcher collects data without introducing an intervention.
OPTION A: In experiment, the researcher controls the independent variable and randomly assigns subjects to
different conditions.
OPTION B: Quasi-experiment is an intervention study in which subjects are not randomly assigned to treatment conditions, but the researcher exercises certain controls to enhance the study’s internal validity.

Question 8

This research topic has the potential to contribute to nursing because it seeks to:

a. Include new modalities of care
b. Resolve a clinical problem
c. Clarify an ambiguous modality of care
d. Enhance client care

Answer 8

CORRECT ANSWER: D
Rationale: Nursing research is systematic inquiry designed to develop knowledge about issues of importance to the nursing profession, including nursing practice, education administration, and informatics. Research designed to generate knowledge and to improve the health and quality of life of nurse’s clients. Nurses increasingly are expected to adopt an evidenced-based practice, which is broadly defined as the use of best clinical evidence in making patient care decisions.

Question 9

Martha does review of related literature for the purpose of:

a. Determine statistical treatment of data research
b. Orientation to what is already known or unknown
c. To identify if problem can be replicated
d. Answering the research question

Answer 9

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: All of the choices are correct except D. Answer to the research question may be found after
conducting the study.

The following are purposes of a literature review:
• Identification of a research problem and development or refinement of research questions or hypothesis
• Orientation to what is known and not known about an area of inquiry, to ascertain what research can best
make a contribution to the existing base of evidence
• Determination of any gaps or inconsistencies in a body of research
• Determination of a need to replicate a prior study in a different setting or with a different study population
• Identification or development of new or reined clinical interventions to test through empirical research
• Identification of relevant theoretical or conceptual frameworks for a research problem
• Identification of suitable designs and data collection methods for a study
• For those developing research proposals for finding, identification of experts in the fields who could be
used as consultants
• Assistance in interpreting study findings and in developing implications and recommendations

Question 10

Client’s rights should be protected when doing research using human subjects. Martha identifies these rights as follows EXCEPT:

a. right of self-determination
b. right to compensation
c. right of privacy
d. right not to be harmed

Answer 10

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: All are the client’s rights for being the subject in a research except option B.

The following are the basic human rights of research subjects:
• Right to informed consent
• The right to refuse and/or withdraw from participation
• Right to privacy
• Right to confidentiality or anonymity of data
• Right to be protected from harm

Question 11

Situation 3 - Richard has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to excessive secretions and is at risk for infection because of retained secretions. Part of Nurse Mario’s nursing care plan is to loosen and remove excessive secretions in the airway,

Mario listens to Richard’s bilateral sounds and finds that congestion is in the upper lobes of the lungs. The
appropriate position to drain the anterior and posterior apical segments of the lungs when Mario does percussion would be:

a. Client lying on his back then flat on his abdomen on Trendelenburg position
b. Client seated upright in bed or on a chair then leaning forward in sitting position
c. Client lying flat on his back and then flat on his abdomen
d. Client lying on his right then left side on Trendelenburg position

Answer 11

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Postural Drainage involves a patient assuming various positions to facilitate the flow of secretions from various parts of the lung into the bronchi, trachea and throat so that they can be cleared and expelled from the lungs more easily. The diagram below shows the correct positions to assume for draining different parts of the lung.
OPTIONS A and C are inappropriate
OPTION D will drain the lower lobes of the lung

Question 12

When documenting outcome of Richard’s treatment, Mario should include the following in his recording EXCEPT:

a. Color, amount and consistent of sputum
b. Character of breath sounds and respiratory rate before and after procedure
c. Amount of fluid intake of client before and after the procedure
d. Significant changes in vital signs

Answer 12

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: The nurse needs to evaluate the client’s tolerance of postural drainage by assessing the stability of the clients vital signs, particularly the pulse and respiratory rates and by noting signs of intolerance, such as pallor, diaphoresis, dyspnea and fatigue. Following Postural drainage, the nurse should auscultates the client’s lungs, compare the findings to the baseline data, and document the amount, color, and character of expectorated secretions.
OPTION C is not part of the documentation.

Question 13

When assessing Richard for chest percussion or chest vibration and postural drainage Mario would focus on the following EXCEPT:

a. Amount of food and fluid taken during the last meal before treatment
b. Respiratory rate, breath sounds and location of congestion
c. Teaching the client’s relatives to perform ‘the procedure
d. Doctor’s order regarding position restriction and client’s tolerance for lying flat

Answer 13

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Option C, though is part of nursing interventions but it is not the focus during this time.
OPTION A is important to prevent vomiting and aspiration
OPTION B will give the nurse baseline data
OPTION D is important because certain position is contraindicated to the client that may further lead to dyspnea

Question 14

Mario prepares Richard for postural drainage and percussion. Which of the flowing is a special consideration when doing the procedure?

a. Respiratory rate of 16 to 20 per minute
b. Client can tolerate sitting and lying position
c. Client has no signs of infection
d. Time of last food and fluid intake of the client

Answer 14

CORRECT ANSWER:D
RATIONALE: Postural drainage treatments are scheduled two or three times daily, depending on the degree of lung congestion. The best times include before breakfast, before lunch, in the late afternoon and before bedtime. It is best to avoid hours shortly after meals because postural drainage at these times can be tiring and can induce vomiting.
OPTION A has no special consideration since it is normal
OPTIONS B & C don’t have any special considerations

Question 15

The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedure is;

a. Percussion uses only one hand white vibration uses both hands
b. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms while vibration gently shakes
secretion loose on the exhalation cycle
c. In both percussion and vibration the hands are on top of each other and hand action is in tune with
client’s breath rhythm
d. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions while vibration shakes the secretions along with the
inhalation of air

Answer 15

CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Percussion sometimes called clapping is forceful striking of the skin with cupped hands. Vibration is a series of vigorous quivering produced by hands that are placed flat against the client’s chest wall. Option A is
true to both percussion and vibration.
OPTION B is not the correct way
OPTION C: percussion can be done with one hand
OPTION D: percussion is not slapping

Question 16

Situation 4 - A 61 year old man, Mr. Regalado, is admitted to the private ward for observation; after complaints of severe chest pain. You are assigned to take care of the client.

When doing an initial assessment, the best way for you to identify the client’s priority problem is to:

a. Interview the client for chief complaints and other symptoms
b. Talk to the relatives to gather data about history of illness
c. Do auscultation to check for chest congestion
d. Do a physical examination white asking the client relevant questions

Answer 16

CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: An interview is a planned communication or a conversation with a purpose, for example, to get or
give information, identify problems of mutual concern, evaluating change, teach, provide support or provide
counseling or therapy. Initially during an assessment, the nurse first asks the complaints of the client and the
associated symptoms so that initial intervention can be done.
OPTION B: the client is the primary source of data
OPTIONS C and D: may follow after

Question 17

Upon establishing Mr. Regalado’s nursing needs, the next nursing approach would be to:

a. Introduce the client to the ward staff to put the client and family at ease
b. Give client and relatives a brief tour of the physical set up the unit
c. Take his vital signs for a baseline assessment
d. Establish priority needs and implement appropriate interventions

Answer 17

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Assessment is always done first before anything else.
OPTION A and B are interventions
OPTION D is diagnosing, planning and interventions

Question 18

Mr. Regalado says he has “trouble going to sleep”. In order to plan your nursing intervention you will.

a. Observe his sleeping patterns in the next few days
b. Ask him what he means by this statement
c. Check his physical environment to decrease noise level
d. Take his blood pressure before sleeping and upon waking up

Answer 18

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: It is another question for prioritization. Clarifying what the patient mean of “trouble going to sleep” enable the nurse to plan for the appropriate intervention.
OPTION A is inappropriate, may require some time before the intervention
OPTIONS C is judgmental that the noise is the cause of trouble in sleeping
OPTION D is inappropriate without further assessment

Question 19

Mr. Regalado’s lower extremities are swollen and shiny. He has pitting pedal edema. When taking care of Mr. Regalado, which of the following intervention would be the most appropriate immediate nursing approach.

a. Moisturize lower extremities to prevent skin irritation
b. Measure fluid intake and output to decrease edema
c. Elevate lower extremities for postural drainage
d. Provide the client a list of food low in sodium

Answer 19

CORRECT ANSWER: A

RATIONALE: All of the options are interventions for edema but option A is the immediate intervention.

Question 20

Mr. Regalado will be discharged from your unit within the hour. Nursing actions when preparing a client for
discharge include all EXCEPT:

a. Teaching the factors that may trigger chest pain
b. Giving instructions about his medication regimen
c. Telling the patient to see the doctor for the final instruction
d. Proper recording of pertinent data

Answer 20

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Nurse preparing to send clients home needs to assess the following parameters in their clients: personal and health data, abilities to perform the activities of daily living (ADLs), any physical, cognitive or other functional limitations, caregiver’s responses and abilities, adequacy of financial resources, community supports, hazards or barriers that the home environment presents and need for health care assistance in the home. Essential information before discharge includes information about medications, dietary, and activity restrictions,
signs of complications that need to be reported to the physician, follow-up appointments an telephone numbers, and where supplies can be obtained.
OPTION C is inappropriate. The nurse is giving the patient discharge instruction before leaving the hospital.

Question 21

Situation 5 - Accurate computation prior to drug administration is a basic skill all nurses must have.
21. Rudolf is diagnosed with amoebiasis and is to receive metronidazole (Flagyl) tablets 1.5 gm daily in 3 divided doses for 7 consecutive days. Which of the following is the correct dose of the drug that the client will receive per oral administration?

a. 1,000 mg tid
b. 500 mg tid
c. 1,500 mg tid
d. 250 mg tid

Answer 21

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: 1gram=1,000 milligram
1.5 gm x 1,000 mg = 1,500 mg
1,500 /3doses= 500 per oral administration

Question 22

Rhona, a 2 year old female was prescribed to receive 62.5 mg suspension three times a day. The available dose is 125 mg/ml. Which of the following should Nurse Paulo prepare for each oral dose?

a. .5 ml
b. 1.25 ml
c. 2.5 ml
d. 1 ml

Answer 22

CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Q= Drug prescribed/ drug available or stock
= 62.5 mg/125mg/ml
= 0.5 ml

Question 23

A client is ordered to take Lasix, a diuretic, to be taken orally daily. Which of the following is an appropriate
instruction by the nurse?

a. Report to the physician the effects of the medication on urination
b. Take the medication early in the morning
c. Take a full glass of water with the medication
d. Measure frequency of urination in 24 hours.

Answer 23

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: furosemide (Lasix) is a diuretic that will increase urination so it is important to instruct patient to take the drug early in the morning to prevent problems in sleep because when taken at night, it will produced urinary frequency.
OPTION A: Effects on urination is normal since it is a diuretics
OPTION C: is not that important
OPTION D: measuring the total amount of output is more important than the frequency

Question 24

Situation 6 - Mrs. Seva, 32 years old, asks you about possible problems regarding her elimination now that she is in the menopausal stage.

Instruction on health promotion regarding urinary elimination is important. Which would you include?

a. Hold urine, as long as she can before emptying the bladder to strengthen her sphincters muscles
b. If burning sensation is experienced while voiding, drink pineapple-juice
c. After urination, wipe from anal area up towards the pubis
d. Tell client to empty the bladder at each voiding

Answer 24

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE:
Promoting Urinary Elimination
• Instruct the client to respond to urge to void as soon as possible; avoid voluntary urine retention
• Teach the client to empty the bladder completely at each voiding
• Emphasize the importance of drinking 9-10 glasses of water daily
• Teach female clients about Kegel’s exercises to strengthen perineal muscles
• Etc.
OPTION A is incorrect
OPTION B might not always be correct, pineapple juice increase the acidity of urine but burning sensation may be
an indication already of an existing disease.
OPTION C: wiping should be from front to back

Question 25

Mrs. Seva also tells the nurse that she is often constipated. Because she is aging, what physical changes predispose her to constipation?

a. inhibition of the parasympathetic reflex
b. weakness of sphincter muscles of the anus
c. loss of tone of the smooth muscles of the colon
d. decreased ability to absorb fluids in the lower intestines

Answer 25

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: If the feces are very hard or if there is great difficulty in passing it out, then it is constipation.

Causes of constipation
• Peristalsis of the intestine in the elderly is usually weakened, hence they are more prone to
constipation. Aging may also affect bowel regularity because a slower metabolism results in less
intestinal activity and muscle tone.
• Inadequate water or lack of fibre in food, leading to hard faeces.
• Psychological factors, e.g. using bedpan or commode chair without privacy, a dirty toilet, depression,
etc.
• Drugs such as morphine group pain killers, certain diuretics, calcium tablets.
• Diseases, e.g. diabetic mellitus, hypothyroidism.

Question 26

The nurse understands that one of these factors contributes to constipation:

a. excessive exercise
b. high fiber diet
c. no regular time for defecation daily
d. prolonged use of laxatives

Answer 26

CORRECT ANSWER: D
Rationale: Laxatives contain chemicals that help increase stool motility, bulk, and frequency – thus relieving temporary constipation. But when misused or overused, they can cause problems, including chronic constipation! A healthy diet filled with fresh fruits, vegetables, and whole-grain products; regular exercise; and drinking at least eight cups of water daily can help prevent constipation in most people. Still, 85% of doctor visits for constipation result in a prescription for a laxative. So it’s important to understand how laxatives work and how to use them safely.
OPTION A&B will not cause constipation
OPTION C: Some people think they are constipated if they do not have a bowel movement every day. However, normal stool elimination may be three times a day or three times a week, depending on the person.

Question 27

Mrs. Seva talks about her being incontinent due to a prior experience of dribbling urine when laughing or
sneezing and when she has a full bladder. Your most appropriate .instruction would be to:

a. tell client to drink less fluids to avoid accidents
b. instruct client to start wearing thin adult diapers
c. ask the client to bring change of underwear “just in case”
d. teach client pelvic exercise to strengthen perineal muscles

Answer 27

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: It is important to remember that urinary incontinence is not part of normal aging and often treatable. Independent nursing interventions for clients with urinary incontinence include (a)a behavior-oriented continence training program that may consist of bladder training, habit training, prompted voiding, pelvic muscle exercises and positive reinforcement; (b) meticulous skin care and (c) for males, application of an external drainage device (condom-type catheter device). Pelvic muscle exercises (also known as Kegel exercises) work the muscles that you use to stop urinating. Making these muscles stronger helps you hold urine in your bladder longer. These exercises are easy to do. They can lessen or get rid of stress and urge incontinence.

Kegel Exercises -> The muscles you want to exercise are your pelvic floor muscles. These are the ones you use to stop the flow of urine or to keep from passing gas. Often doctors suggest that you squeeze and hold these muscles for a certain count, and then relax them. Then you repeat this a number of times. You will
probably do this several times a day. Your doctor will give you exact directions.
OPTIONS A,B and C are inappropriate

Question 28

Mrs. Seva asked for instructions for skin care for her mother who has urinary incontinence and is almost always in bed. Your instruction would focus on prevention of skin irritation and breakdown by

a. Using thick diapers to absorb urine well
b. Drying the skin with baby powder to prevent or mask the smell of ammonia
c. Thorough washing, rinsing and drying of skin area that get wet with urine
d. Making sure that linen are smooth and dry at all times

Answer 28

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Skin that is continually moist becomes macerated (softened). Urine that accumulates on the skin is converted to ammonia, which is very irritating to the skin. Because both skin irritation and maceration predispose the client to skin breakdown and ulceration, the incontinent person requires meticulous skin care. To maintain skin integrity, the nurse washes the client’s perineal area with soap and water after episodes of incontinence, rinses it thoroughly, dries it gently and thoroughly and provides clean, dry clothing or bed linen. If the skin is irritated, the nurse applies barrier creams such as zinc oxide ointment to protect it from contact with urine. If it is necessary to pad the client’s clothes for protection, the nurse should use products that absorb wetness and leave a dry surface
in contact with the skin.
OPTION A and B: Use of diapers and other containment devices may prevent the bedding and clothing from getting soiled, however they tend to keep the urine or stool in constant contact with the skin. Within a short period of time, the skin can become damaged. Special care must be taken to prevent skin breakdown by keeping the skin clean and dry.
OPTION D is also correct but the best is option C

Question 29

Situation 7 - Using Maslow’s need theory, Airway, Breathing and Circulation are the physiological needs vital to life. The
nurse’s knowledge and ability to identify and immediately intervene to meet these needs is important to save lives.

Which of these clients has a problem with the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues?

a. Carol with a tumor in the brain
b. Theresa with anemia
c. Sonny Boy with a fracture in the femur
d. Brigette with diarrhea

Answer 29

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Anemia is a condition characterized by abnormally low levels of healthy red blood cells or
hemoglobin (the component of red blood cells that delivers oxygen to tissues throughout the body).
The tissues of the human body need a regular supply of oxygen to stay healthy. Red blood cells, which contain hemoglobin that allows them to deliver oxygen throughout the body, live for only about 120 days. When they die, the iron they contain is returned to the bone marrow and used to create new red blood cells. Anemia develops when heavy bleeding causes significant iron loss or when something happens to slow down the production of red blood cells or to increase the rate at which they are destroyed.
OPTIONS A, C and D has no direct effect in the oxygenation of tissues.

Question 30

You noted from the lab exams in the chart of Mr. Santos that he has reduced oxygen in the blood. This condition is called:

a. Cyanosis
b. Hypoxia
c. Hypoxemia
d. Anemia

Answer 30

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Hypoxemia is an abnormal deficiency in the concentration of oxygen in arterial blood (Mosby’s
Medical Dictionary).
OPTION A: Cyanosis-a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes resulting from inadequate
oxygenation of the blood
OPTION B: Hypoxia -a condition in which there is a decrease in the oxygen supply to a tissue.
OPTION D: Anemia is having less than the normal number of red blood cells or less hemoglobin than normal in the blood.

Question 31

You will do nasopharyngeal suctioning to Mr. Abad. Your guide for the length of insertion of the tubing
for an adult would be:

a. tip of the nose to the base of the neck
b. the distance from the tip of the nose to the middle of the cheek
c. the distance from the tip of the nose to the tip of the ear lobe
d. eight to ten inches

Answer 31

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal suctioning removes secretions from the upper respiratory tract. Make an appropriate measure of the depth of the catheter by measuring the distance between the tip of the client’s nose and the earlobe, or about 13 cm (5 inches) for an adult.
OPTIONS A, B and D are inappropriate

Question 32

While doing nasopharyngeal suctioning on Mr. Abad, the nurse can avoid trauma to the area by:

a. Applying suction for at least 20-30 seconds each time to ensure that all secretions are removed
b. Using gloves to prevent introduction of pathogens to the respiratory system
c. Applying no suction while inserting the catheter
d. Rotating catheter as it is inserted with gentle suction

Answer 32

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: For nasopharyngeal suctioning, without applying the suction, insert the catheter premeasured or recommended distance into either nares and advance it along the floor of the nasal cavity. This avoids the nasal turbinates. Never force the catheter against an obstruction. If one nostril is obstructed, try another.
OPTION A: Suction is applied for 5 to 10 seconds while slowly withdrawing the catheter. A suction attempt should last only 10 to 15 seconds.
OPTION B is true to prevent infection but not avoiding trauma
OPTION D: The catheter is rotated during suction not during the insertion of catheter and no suction is applied during the insertion of the catheter.

Question 33

Myrna has difficulty breathing when on her back and must sit upright in bed to breath, effectively and comfortably. The nurse documents this condition as:

a. Apnea
b. Orthopnea
c. Dyspnea
d. Tachypnea

Answer 33

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Orthopnea: The inability to breathe easily unless one is sitting up straight or standing erect.
OPTION A: Apnea is the temporary cessation of breathing
OPTION C: Dyspnea: Difficult or labored breathing; shortness of breath.
OPTION D: Abnormally fast breathing. A respiratory rate that is too rapid.

Question 34

Situation 8 - You are assigned to screen for hypertension: Your task is to take blood pressure readings and you are
informed about avoiding the common mistakes in BP taking that lead to ‘false or inaccurate blood pressure readings.

When taking blood pressure reading the cuff should be:

a. deflated fully then immediately start second reading for same client
b. deflated quickly after inflating up to 180 mmHg
c. large enough to wrap around upper arm of the adult client 1 cm above brachial artery
d. inflated to 30 mmHg above the estimated systolic BP based on palpation of radial or brachial artery

Answer 34

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Pump up the cuff until the sphygmomanometer reads 30 mmHg above the point where the brachial pulse disappeared.

OPTION A: Wait 1 to 2 minutes before making further measurements. A waiting period gives the blood trapped in the veins time to be released. Otherwise, false high systolic readings will occur.

OPTION C: Wrap the deflated cuff evenly around the upper arm. Locate the brachial artery. Apply the center of the bladder directly over the artery. The bladder inside the cuff must be directly over the artery to be compressed if the reading is to be accurate. For an adult, place the lower border of the cuff approximately 2.5 cm or 1 inch above the antecubital space.
OPTION D is inappropriate

Question 35

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) in one of the leading causes of death worldwide and is a preventable disease. The primary cause of COPD is:

a. tobacco hack
b. bronchitis
c. asthma
d. cigarette smoking

Answer 35

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: COPD is a chronic lung disease. It has its own symptoms. The most common cause of COPD is
known. And it’s preventable. Smoking is the primary cause of COPD. It is 10 times more likely that a smoker will get COPD than a nonsmoker. Exposure to secondhand tobacco. Cigarette smoke causes COPD by irritating the airways and creating inflammation that narrows the airways, making it more difficult to breathe. Cigarette smoke also causes the cilia to stop working properly so mucus and trapped particles are not cleaned from the airways. As a result, chronic cough and excess mucus production develop, leading to chronic bronchitis.

OPTION B: is one of the diseases in COPD
OPTION A and C:incorrect

Question 36

In your health education class for clients with diabetes you teach, them the areas for control Diabetes which include all EXCEPT:

a. regular physical activity
b. thorough knowledge of foot care
c. prevention of infection
d. proper nutrition

Answer 36

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Option D: In order to maintain a constant blood sugar level, diabetics should ideally eat
approximately the same amount of food per day, with a set number of calories at around the same time of day so that blood sugar levels don’t fluctuate too much. In addition, healthy snacks should be enjoyed to stop the blood glucose levels from dropping too much in between meals. Meals should never be skipped and the day’s food should contain a mixture of whole grains, fruits, lean meat or meat substitutes i.e. corn, vegetables and low fat dairy products.

OPTION A: In conjunction with a healthy low fat diet, moderate exercise should be taken at least five times a
week for around 30 minutes each session. How a diabetic person chooses to exercise will depend to some extent on their initial level of fitness i.e. obese people will not go jogging or cycling for miles at a time, and any exercise routine should only be performed after consulting a doctor. As an individual starts to lose weight then the level of physical activity can be increased accordingly but overdoing it to begin will undoubtedly lead to even bigger problems.

OPTION C: Infection may result to hyperglycemia because the body requires more glucose for energy. Thus preventing infection also control diabetes

OPTION B: A knowledge on foot care prevents complication of diabetic foot but does not control diabetes itself.

Question 37

You teach your clients the difference between, Type I (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) Diabetes.
Which of the following is true?

a. both types of diabetes mellitus clients are all prone to develop ketosis
b. Type II (NIDDM) is more common and is also preventable compared to Type I (IDDM) diabetes which is genetic in etiology
c. Type I (IDDM) is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia
d. Type II (IDDM) is characterized by abnormal immune response

Answer 37

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: While it is said that type 2 diabetes occurs mostly in individuals over 30 years old and the incidence increases with age, we are seeing an alarming number patients with type 2 diabetes who are barely in their teen years. In fact, for the first time in the history of humans, type 2 diabetes is now more common than type 1 diabetes in childhood. Most of these cases are a direct result of poor eating habits, higher body weight, and lack of exercise. Type 1 diabetes was also called insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM), or juvenile onset diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes, the pancreas undergoes an autoimmune attack by the body itself, and is
rendered incapable of making insulin. Abnormal antibodies have been found in the majority of patients with type 1 diabetes. Antibodies are proteins in the blood that are part of the body’s immune system. The patient with type 1 diabetes must rely on insulin medication for survival. In autoimmune diseases, such as type 1 diabetes, the immune system mistakenly manufactures antibodies and inflammatory cells that are directed against and cause damage to patients’ own body tissues. In persons with type 1 diabetes, the beta cells of the pancreas, which are responsible for insulin production, are attacked by the misdirected immune system. It is believed that the tendency
to develop abnormal antibodies in type 1 diabetes is, in part, genetically inherited, though the details are not fully understood.

OPTION A: ketoacidosis – mostly in people with type 1 diabetes – and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) in people with type 2 diabetes or in people at risk for type 2 diabetes.
OPTION C:There is no such thing as fasting hyperglycemia
OPTION D: Type I is characterized by abnormal immune response

Question 38

Lifestyle-related diseases in general share common risk factors. These are the following except

a. physical activity
b. smoking
c. genetics
d. nutrition

Answer 38

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: A way of life or style of living that reflects the attitudes and values of a person or group. Lifestyle
assessment focuses on the personal lifestyle and habits of the client as they affect health. Categories of lifestyle generally assessed are physical activity, nutritional practices, stress management and such habits as smoking, alcohol consumption and drug use.

Question 39

Situation 9 - Nurse Rivera witnesses a vehicular accident near the hospital where she works. She decides to get involved and help the victims of the accident.

Her priority nursing action would be to:

a. Assess damage to property
b. Assist in the police investigation since she is a witness
c. Report the incident immediately to the local police authorities
d. Assess the extent of injuries incurred by the victims, of the accident

Answer 39

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: The first priority whenever an accident occurs is to deal with the emergency and ensure that any
injuries or illnesses receive prompt medical attention.

Question 40

Priority attention should be given to which of these clients?

a. Linda who shows severe anxiety due to trauma of the accident
b. Ryan who has chest injury, is pale and with difficulty of breathing
c. Noel who has lacerations on the arms with mild-bleeding
d. Andy whose left ankle swelled and has some abrasions

Answer 40

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Respiratory problems and problem with the oxygenation should always be the priority.

OPTION A is least priority because it is a psychological need
OPTION C is the second
OPTION D is the third

Question 41

In the emergency room, Nurse Rivera is assigned to attend to the client with lacerations on the arms,
while assessing the extent of the wound the nurse observes that the wound is now starting to bleed profusely.

The most immediate nursing action would be to:

a. Apply antiseptic to prevent infection
b. Clean the wound vigorously of contaminants
c. Control and reduce bleeding of the wound
d. Bandage the wound and elevate the arm

Answer 41

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Bleeding from any external wound sites on the victim’s body should be controlled to prevent the victim from going into shock which could lead to death if not treated immediately.
Elevation - Keeping the wound above the level of the heart will decrease the pressure at the point of injury, and will reduce the bleeding.
Direct Pressure - Placing pressure on the wound will constrict the blood vessels manually. After applying pressure for sometime, you can make a pressure bandage around the injury site. The key is to not make this too tight to cut all circulation because this could have direct consequences later on. The bandage should be tight enough to maintain pressure on the wound but not too tight to impede any blood flow. If the skin turns purple-blue or if there is no pulse present at the major pressure pints then the pressure bandage is on too tight.

OPTION A does not address the immediate need of the patient
OPTION B is incorrect because it may induce more bleeding
OPTION C is correct but option D is more specific

Question 42

The nurse applies pressure dressing on the bleeding site. This intervention is done to:

a. Reduce the need to change dressing frequently
b. Allow the pus to surface faster
c. Protect the wound from micro organisms in the air
d. Promote hemostasis

Answer 42

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Hemostasis is the stoppage of bleeding or hemorrhage. Also, the stoppage of blood flow through a blood vessel or organ of the body
Pressure dressing is a nonadherent bandage applied over the incision that is covered by an absorbent layer and a stretchable adhesive. This application is intended to compress dead space and prevent hematoma and seroma formation.

Question 43

After the treatment, the client is sent home and asked to come back for follow-up care. Your responsibilities
when the client is to be discharged include the following EXCEPT:

a. Encouraging the client to go to the, outpatient clinic for follow up care
b. Accurate recording, of treatment done and instructions given to client
c. Instructing the client to see you after discharge for further assistance
d. Providing instructions regarding wound care

Answer 43

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Nurse preparing to send clients home needs to assess the following parameters in their clients: personal and health data, abilities to perform the activities of daily living (ADLs), any physical, cognitive or other functional limitations, caregiver’s responses and abilities, adequacy of financial resources, community supports, hazards or barriers that the home environment presents and need for health care assistance in the home. Essential information before discharge includes information about medications, dietary, and activity restrictions,
signs of complications that need to be reported to the physician, follow-up appointments an telephone numbers, and where supplies can be obtained.

OPTION C: The client does not have the direct appointment with the nurse after the discharge.

Question 44

Situation 10 - While working in the clinic, a new client, Geline, 35 years old, arrives for her doctor’s appointment. As the clinic nurse, you are to assist the client fill up forms, gather data and make an assessment.

The nurse purpose of your initial nursing interview is to:

a. Record pertinent information in the client chart for health team to read
b. Assist the client find solutions to her health concerns
c. Understand her lifestyle, health needs and possible problems to develop a plan of care
d. Make nursing diagnoses for identified health problems

Answer 44

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: An interview is a planned communication or a conversation with a purpose, for example, to get or
give information, identify problems of mutual concern, evaluating change, teach, provide support or provide
counseling or therapy. Initially during an assessment, the nurse first ask the complaints of the client and the
associated symptoms so that initial intervention can be done.
It is an umbrella effect. Option C encompasses options A, B and D.

Question 45

While interviewing Geline, she starts to moan and doubles up in pain, She tells you that this pain occurs
about an hour after taking black coffee without breakfast for a few weeks now. You will record this as follows:

a. Claims to have abdominal pains after intake of coffee unrelieved by analgesics
b. After drinking coffee, the client experienced severe abdominal pain
c. Client complained of intermittent abdominal pain an hour after drinking coffee
d. Client reported abdominal pain an hour after drinking black coffee for few weeks now

Answer 45

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: To complete the assessment phase, the nurse records client data. Accurate documentation is
essential and should include all data collected about the client’s health status. Data are recorded in a factual
manner and not interpreted by the nurse.

OPTION D is more complete recording of the patient’s complaints.

Question 46

Geline tells you that she drinks black coffee frequently within the day to “have energy and be wide awake”
and she eats nothing for breakfast and eats strictly vegetable salads for lunch and dinner to lose weight.
She has lost weight during the past two weeks, in planning a healthy balanced diet with Geline, you will:

a. Start her off with a cleansing diet to free her body of toxins then change to a vegetarian, diet and drink
plenty of fluids
b. Plan a high protein, diet; low carbohydrate diet for her considering her favorite food
c. Instruct her to attend classes in nutrition to find food rich in complex carbohydrates to maintain daily
high energy level
d. Discuss with her the importance of eating a variety of food from the major food groups with plenty of fluids.

Answer 46

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Diet planning principles (ABCNMV)
1. Adequacy - Provides sufficient energy and nutrients
2. Balance - Consume a number of different foods in appropriate proportion to each other
3. kCalorie control - Energy balance
4. Nutrient density - Large amount of nutrients in a food with a small amount of calories
5. Moderation - In consuming foods that are not nutrient dense
6. Variety - Consume a variety of foods within and among the food groups

OPTION A is inappropriate because the patient is already in vegetable diet
OPTION B is limited only in protein and carbohydrates
OPTION C is limited to carbohydrates only

Question 47

Geline tells you that she drinks 4-5 cups of black coffee and diet cola drinks. She also smokes up to a pack of cigarettes daily. She confesses that she is in her 2nd month of pregnancy but she does not want to become fat that is why she limits her food intake. You warn or caution her about which of the following?

a. Caffeine products affect the central nervous system and may cause the mother to have a “nervous breakdown”
b. Malnutrition and its possible effects on growth and development problems in the unborn fetus
c. Caffeine causes a stimulant effect on both the mother and the baby
d. Studies show conclusively that caffeine causes mental retardation

Answer 47

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Maternal malnutrition impairs pregnancy outcome, increases maternal mortality and retards early
childhood development. 18 million low-birth weight babies are born to undernourished mothers each year. This is a prime cause of infant mortality in developing countries

OPTION A, C and D are all limited to effects of caffeine

Question 48

Your health education plan for Geline stresses proper diet for a pregnant woman and the prevention of
non-communicable diseases that are influenced by her lifestyle these include of the following EXCEPT:

a. Cardiovascular diseases
b. Cancer
c. Diabetes Mellitus
d. Osteoporosis

Answer 48

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Your cardiovascular system consists of your heart and all blood vessels throughout your body.
Diseases ranging from aneurysms to valve disease are types of cardiovascular disease. You may be born with
some types of cardiovascular disease (congenital) or acquire others later on, usually from a lifetime of unhealthy habits, such as smoking, which can damage your arteries and cause atherosclerosis. Cigarette smoking causes 87 percent of lung cancer deaths (1). Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in both men and women (3). Smoking is also responsible for most cancers of the larynx, oral cavity and pharynx,
esophagus, and bladder. In addition, it is a cause of kidney, pancreatic, cervical, and stomach cancers (2, 4), as well as acute myeloid leukemia (2).

OPTION D:Osteoporosis occurs when an imbalance occurs between new bone formation and old bone
resorption. The body may fail to form enough new bone, or too much old bone may be reabsorbed, or both. Two essential minerals for normal bone formation are calcium and phosphate. Throughout youth, the body uses these minerals to produce bones. If calcium intake is not sufficient or if the body does not absorb enough calcium from the diet, bone production and bone tissue may suffer.

Question 49

Situation 11 - Management of nurse practitioners is done by qualified nursing leaders who have had clinical experience and management experience.
An example of a management function of a nurse is:

a. Teaching patient do breathing and coughing exercises
b. Preparing for a surprise party for a client
c. Performing nursing procedures for clients
d. Directing and evaluating the staff nurses

Answer 49

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Management has a unique purpose and outcome that is needed to maintain a healthy organization. Management functions include planning, organizing, staffing, directing and controlling. According to Kleinman, the basic components of management functions include planning, organizing, delegating, problem solving, evaluating and enforcing policies and procedures.
Other options are not correct

Question 50

Your head nurse in the unit believes that the staff nurses are not capable of decision making so she makes the decisions for everyone without consulting anybody. This type of leadership is:

a. Laissez faire leadership
b. Democratic leadership
c. Autocratic leadership
d. Managerial leadership

Answer 50

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Autocratic Leadership Style
This is often considered the classical approach. It is one in which the manager retains as much power and
decision-making authority as possible. The manager does not consult employees, nor are they allowed to give any input. Employees are expected to obey orders without receiving any explanations. The motivation
environment is produced by creating a structured set of rewards and punishments.

OPTION A:The laissez-faire leadership style is also known as the “hands-off¨ style. It is one in which the manager provides little or no direction and gives employees as much freedom as possible. All authority or power is given to the employees and they must determine goals, make decisions, and resolve problems on their own.

OPTION B:The democratic leadership style is also called the participative style as it encourages employees to be a part of the decision making. The democratic manager keeps his or her employees informed about everything that affects their work and shares decision making and problem solving responsibilities. This style requires the leader to be a coach who has the final say, but gathers information from staff members before making a decision

OPTION D: A manager’s style of managing has been a continuing cause of concern to his manager’s style is one of the major contributors to the performance and effectiveness of his unit. The desire to define how a manager should conduct himself while working with others has led to investigations into those variables that may affect levels of managerial performance. This article examines, in summary form, investigations by various management authorities on the subject of managerial styles. These investigations have been developed into three theories of managerial style: trait, behavior, and situation.

Question 51

When the head nurse in your ward plots and approves your work schedules and directs your work, she is demonstrating:

a. Responsibility
b. Delegation
c. Accountability
d. Authority

Answer 51

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Authority is defined as the legitimate right to direct the work of others. Authority is an integral
component of managing.

OPTION A: Responsibility is an obligation to complete a task.
OPTION B: Delegation is the assignment of authority and responsibility to another person (normally from a
manager to a subordinate) to carry out specific activities. However the person who delegated the work remains accountable for the outcome of the delegate work. It allows a subordinate to make decisions, i.e. it is a shift of decision-making authority from one organizational level to a lower one.

OPTION C: Accountability is the ability and willingness to assume responsibility for one’s actions and accept the consequences of one’s behavior

Question 52

The following tasks can be safely delegated by a nurse to a non-nurse health worker EXCEPT:

a. Transfer a client from bed to chair
b. Change IV infusions
c. Irrigation of a nasogastric tube
d. Take vital signs

Answer 52

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: “Delegation” is transferring to a competent individual the authority to perform a specific nursing task in a selected situation. The nurse retains the responsibility and the accountability for the delegated tasks. The registered nurse directs care and determines the appropriate utilization of any nursing assistant/nurse aide involved in providing direct patient care.

The registered nurse may delegate components of care but does not delegate the nursing process itself. The functions of assessment, planning, evaluation and nursing judgment are pervasive to nursing practice and cannot be delegated.
The registered nurse delegates only those tasks for which she or he believes the other health care worker has the knowledge and skill to perform, taking into consideration training, cultural competence, experience and facility/agency policies and procedures.

Tasks that may be delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel:
• Taking of vital signs
• Measuring and recording intake and output
• Patient transfer and ambulation
• Postmortem care
• Bathing
• Feeding
• Clean Catheterization
• Gastrostomy feedings in established settings
• Attending to safety
• Performing simple dressing changes
• Suctioning of chronic tracheotomies
• Performing basic life support
Tasks that may not be delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel:
 Assessment
 Interpretation of data
 Making a nursing diagnosis
 Creation of a nursing care plan
 Evaluation if care effectiveness
 Care of invasive lines
 Administering parenteral medications
 Performing venipuncture
 Insertion of NGT
 Client education
 Performing triage
 Giving telephone advise
 Performing sterile procedures

Question 53

You made a mistake in giving the medicine to the wrong client. You notify the client’s doctor and write an
incident report. You are demonstrating:

a. Responsibility
b. Accountability
c. Authority
d. Autocracy

Answer 53

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Accountability is the ability and willingness to assume responsibility for one’s actions and accept the consequences of one’s behavior.
OPTION A: Responsibility is an obligation to complete a task.
OPTION C:Authority is defined as the legitimate right to direct the work of others. Authority is an integral
component of managing.
OPTION D:Autocracy-government by a single person having unlimited power; despotism. A country or state that is governed by a single person with unlimited power.

Question 54

Situation 12 - Mr. Dizon, 84 years old, is brought to the Emergency Room for complaint of hypertension flushed face, severe headache, and nausea. You are doing the initial assessment of vital signs.

You are to measure the client’s initial blood pressure reading by doing all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Take the blood pressure reading on both arms for comparison
b. Listen to and identify the phases of Korotkoff’s sounds
c. Pump the cuff up to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated
d. Observe procedures for infection control

Answer 54

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: All are correct guidelines in measuring the blood pressure except Option C. The cuff is pumped until
the sphygmomanometer reads 30mmHg above the point where the brachial pulse disappeared.

Question 55

A pulse oximeter is attached to Mr. Dizon’s finger to:

a. Determine if the client’s hemoglobin level is low and if he needs blood transfusion
b. Check level of client’s tissue perfusion
c. Measure the efficacy of the client’s anti hypertensive medications
d. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develops

Answer 55

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: A pulse oximeter is a noninvasive device that measures a client’s arterial blood oxygen saturation by means of a sensor attached to the client’s finger, toe, nose, earlobe or forehead ( or around the hand or foot of a neonate). The pulse oximeter can detect hypoxemia before clinical signs and symptoms, such as dusky skin color and dusky nailbeds develop.
OPTIONS A, B and C are incorrect

Question 56

After a few hours in the Emergency Room, Mr. Dizon is admitted to the ward with an order of hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse finds that the cuff is too narrow and this will cause the blood pressure reading to be:

a. Inconsistent
b. low systolic and high diastolic pressure
c. higher than what the reading should be
d. lower than what the reading should be

Answer 56

CORRECT Answer: C
Rationale: When the cuff is too narrow it will give the nurse an erroneously high reading.
OPTION A is a result of failure to use the same arm consistently
OPTION B is a result of deflating the cuff too quickly
OPTION D is a result of using too wide cuff

Question 57

Through the client’s health history, you gather that Mr. Dizon smokes and drinks coffee. When taking the
blood pressure of a client who recently smoked or drank coffee, how long should be the nurse wait before taking the client’s blood pressure for accurate reading?

a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 5 minutes

Answer 57

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Make sure that the client has not smoked or ingested caffeine within 30 minutes prior to measurement.
OPTIONS A,C and D are incorrect

Question 58

While the client has the pulse oximeter on his fingertip, you notice that the sunlight is shining on the area where the oximeter is. Your action will be to:

a. Set and turn on the alarm of the oximeter
b. Do nothing since there is no identified problem
c. Cover the fingertip sensor with a towel or bedsheet
d. Change the location of the sensor every four hours

Answer 58

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Cover the sensor with sheet or towel to block large amounts of light from external sources (e.g.,
sunlight, procedure lamps, or bilirubin lights in the nursery). Large amounts of outside light may be sensed by the photodetector and alter the oxygen saturation value.

OPTION A: It signals high and low SaO2 measurements and a high and low pulse rate. It is turned on before
leaving the patient.
OPTION B is a form of negligence
OPTION D: done as part of the monitoring to ensure client safety

Question 59

Situation 13 - The nurse’s understanding of ethico-legal responsibilities will guide his/her nursing practice.
59. The principles that -govern right and proper conducts of a person regarding life, biology and the health professions is referred to as:

a. Morality
b. Religion
c. Values
d. Bioethics

Answer 59

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Bioethics is a branch of applied ethics that studies the philosophical, social, and legal issues arising in medicine and the life sciences. It is chiefly concerned with human life and well-being, though it sometimes also treats ethical questions relating to the nonhuman biological environment.

OPTION A: The quality of being in accord with standards of right or good conduct.
OPTION B: Belief in and reverence for a supernatural power or powers regarded as creator and governor of the universe.

OPTION C: Values are considered subjective and vary across people and cultures. Types of values include
ethical/moral values, doctrinal/ideological (political, religious) values, social values, and aesthetic values.

Question 60

The purpose of having nurses’ code of ethics is:

a. Delineate the scope and areas of nursing practice
b. Identify nursing action recommended for specific healthcare situations
c. To help the public understand professional conduct, expected of nurses
d. To define the roles and functions of the health care giver, nurses, clients

Answer 60

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: The professional code of ethics for Filipino nurses provide direction for the nurses to act morally. It
strongly emphasizes the four-fold responsibility of the nurse, the universality of the nursing practice, the scope of the responsibilities to the people they serve, to co-workers, to society and environment and to their profession.

OPTION A is The RA 9173 of the Nursing Act of 2002

Question 61

Potassium chloride (KCL) was ordered by a physician. The nurse administered it by directive push. 
 The patient died instantly of ventricular fibrillation. She is liable for.

a. Negligence
b. Malpractice
c. Battery
d. Assault

Answer 61

CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Negligence is the commission or omission of an act that a reasonable and prudent person would
do in a similar situation or would not have done. It is also a misconduct or practice that is below the standard expected of an ordinary, reasonable and prudent person. Such conduct places another person at risk for harm.

Both medical and nonmedical professional person can be liable for negligent acts. Below are the specific
examples of Negligence:
1. failure to report observations to attending physicians
2. failure to exercise the degree of diligence which the circumstances of the particular case demands.
3. Mistaken Identity
4. wrong medicine, wrong concentration, wrong route, wrong dose.
5. Defects in the equipment such as stretchers and wheelchairs may lead to falls thus injuring the
patient.
6. Errors due to family assistance
7. administration of medicines without the doctor’s prescription.

OPTION B: malpractice in the usual sense implies the idea of improper or unskillful care of a patient by a nurse.
Malpractice also denotes stepping beyond one’s authority with serious consequences. Malpractice is a term for negligence or carelessness of professional personnel. An example of malpractice is giving of anesthesia of a nurse or prescribing a medicine.

OPTION C: Battery is an intentional, unconsented touching of another person. It is, therefore, procedures, he must have given consent to this effect. If consent has not been secured, the person performing the procedure may be liable for battery.

OPTION D: assault is the imminent threat of harmful or offensive bodily contact. It is unjustifiable to touch another person, to threat to do so in such circumstances as to cause the other to reasonably believe that it will be carried out.

Question 62

You inform the patient about his rights which include the following EXCEPT:

a. Right to expect reasonable continuity of care
b. Right to consent to or decline to participate in research studies or experiments
c. Right to obtain information about another patient
d. Right to expect that the records about his care will be treated as confidential

Answer 62

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: All are rights of the patient except option C. Other patients don’t have the right to obtain information
about the other patients.

Question 63

The principle states that a person has unconditional worth and has the capacity to determine his own destiny.

a. Bioethics
b. Justice
c. Fidelity
d. Autonomy

Answer 63

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Autonomy comes from the Greek word autos meaning self and nomos meaning governance. It
involves self-determination and freedom to choose and implement one’s decision, free from deceit, duress,
constraint or coercion.

OPTION A:Bioethics is a branch of applied ethics that studies the philosophical, social, and legal issues arising in medicine and the life sciences. It is chiefly concerned with human life and well-being, though it sometimes also treats ethical questions relating to the nonhuman biological environment.

OPTION B: Justice refers to the right to demand to be treated justly, fairly and equally.

OPTION C:Exact correspondence with fact or with a given quality, condition, or event; accuracy.

Question 64

Situation 14 - Your director of nursing wants to improve the quality of health care offered in the hospital. As a staff nurse in that hospital you know that this entails quality assurance programs.

A legislative enactment that serves as a defense to malpractice is the Good Samaritan statute.
The following statements are correct, except:

a. It protects health care provides from civil liability that may be incurred in stopping to render aid at
the scene of an accident.
b. It also applies to hospital care given to a client as long it is of an emergency nature
c. Health care professionals may still be sued by an injured victim for gross negligence.
d. Health care provides should not charge the patient during an emergency if they want to be covered
by the statute.

Answer 64

CORRECT ANSWER B
RATIONALE:All of the choices, except for B, are correct. In the United States, the Good Samaritan Law has been
passed to encourage on-the-spot volunteer first aid in emergency situations by persons with knowledge and skill. A nurse therefore who renders first aid or treatment at the scene of an emergency and who does so within the standard of care, acting in good faith, is relieved of the consequences of the act (Venzon, 124). The Good
Samaritan Act does not apply in the hospital, only on On-the-spot situations.

Question 65

Standards of nursing practice serve as guide for:

a. Nursing practice in the different fields of nursing
b. Proper nursing approaches and techniques
c. Safe nursing care and management
d. Evaluation of nursing cared rendered

Answer 65

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Establishing and implementing standards of practice are major functions of a professional
organization. The standards (a) reflect the values and priorities of the nursing profession, (b) provide direction for professional nursing practice, (c) provide a framework for the evaluation of nursing practice, and (d) define the profession’s accountability to the public and the client outcomes for which nurses are responsible (Kozier, 9).

OPTION A does not refer to Standards
OPTION B refers to Manual of Procedure
OPTION D refers to Controlling of the management process (Marquis, 28).

Question 66

You are taking care of critically ill client and the doctor in charge calls to order a DNR (do not resuscitate)
for the client. Which of the following is the appropriate action when getting DNR order over the phone?

a. Have the registered nurse, family spokesperson, nurse supervisor and doctor sign
b. Have two nurses validate the phone order, both nurses sign the order and the doctor should sign his
order within 24 hours.
c. Have the registered nurse, family and doctor sign the order
d. Have 1 nurse take the order and sign it and have the doctor sign it within 24 hours

Answer 66

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Doctors should limit orders to extreme emergency situations where there is no alternative. Only in an extreme emergency and when no other resident or intern is available should a nurse receive telephone orders. The nurse should read back such order to the physician to make certain the order has been correctly written. Such order should be signed by the physician on his/her next visit within 24 hours. The nurse should sign the name of physician per her own and note the time the order was received.
All other options are incorrect

Question 67

To ensure the client safety before starting blood transfusion the following are needed before the procedure can be done EXCEPT:

a. take baseline vital signs
b. blood should be warmed to room temperature for 30 minutes before blood transfusion is administered
c. have two nurses verify client identification, blood type, unit number and expiration date of blood
d. get a consent signed for blood transfusion

Answer 67

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Options A,B and C are correct. It is true that consent is signed before the blood transfusion but it’s
the physician’s responsibility to let the patient’s sign the consent.

Question 68

Part of standards of care has to do with the use of restraints. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. Doctor’s order for restraints should be signed within 24 hours
b. Remove and reapply restraints every two hours
c. Check client’s pulse, blood pressure and circulation every four hours
d. Offer food and toileting every two hours

Answer 68

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: All options are correct except option C. It is correct to check client’s pulse, blood pressure and
circulation but it is done simultaneously every 2 hours when you remove the restraints.

Question 69

Situation 15 - During the NUTRITION EDUCATION class discussion a 58 year old man, Mr. Bruno shows increased interest.
Mr. Bruno asks what the “normal” allowable salt intake is. Your best response to Mr. Bruno is:
a. 1 tsp of salt/day with iodine and sprinkle of MSG
b. 5 gms per day or 1 tsp of table salt/day
c. 1 tbsp of salt/day with some patis and toyo
d. 1 tsp of salt/day but not patis or toyo

Answer 69

CORRECT ANSWER: B

RATIONALE: A minimum recommendation is proposed by the RDA in the amount of 500 mg/day for adults.

Question 70

Your instructions to reduce or limit salt intake include all the following EXCEPT:

a. eat natural food with little or no salt added
b. limit use of table salt and use condiments instead
c. use herbs and spices
d. limit intake of preserved or processed food

Answer 70

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: All are correct except option B because condiments still contains more sodium along with other
spices.
Tips for Reducing Sodium in Your Diet
• Buy fresh, plain frozen, or canned “with no salt added” vegetables.
• Use fresh poultry, fish, and lean meat, rather than canned or processed types.
• Use herbs, spices, and salt-free seasoning blends in cooking and at the table.
• Cook rice, pasta, and hot cereals without salt. Cut back on instant or flavored rice, pasta, and cereal mixes,
which usually have added salt
• Choose “convenience” foods that are lower in sodium. Cut back on frozen dinners, pizza, packaged mixes,
canned soups or broths, and salad dressings — these often have a lot of sodium.
• Rinse canned foods, such as tuna, to remove some sodium.
• When available, buy low- or reduced-sodium, or no-salt-added versions of foods.
• Choose ready-to-eat breakfast cereals that are lower in sodium.

Question 71

Which of the following behaviors by a client indicates to the nurse that learning in cognitive domain has
taken place?
a. Physically demonstrating how to cook low sodium dish
b. Actively demonstrating the new skill
c. Telling the nurse that he has accepted the illness and its effects on lifestyle
d. Explaining the need to have low sodium diet

Answer 71

CORRECT ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Learning in the cognitive domain involves the acquisition and use of knowledge mentally or
intellectually.

OPTION A and B involve learning in the psychomotor domain

OPTION C involves learning in the affective domain which involves changing feelings and values toward a
positive health behavior.

Question 72

The nurse determines that dietary teaching has been effective when a client states that which of the
following food items has the highest sodium content?

a. milk
b. fresh fruits
c. meats
d. chocolate pudding

Answer 72

CORRECT Answer: D
RATIONALE: Processed foods have the highest sodium content. Chocolate pudding is the only option that
reflects a processed food item. The other options are of lower sodium content.

Question 73

The role of the health worker in health education is to:

a. report incidence of non-communicable disease to community health center
b. educate as many people about warning signs of non-communicable diseases
c. focus on smoking cessation projects
d. monitor clients with hypertension

Answer 73

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Individuals and communities who seek to increase their personal health and self-care require health education. The trend toward health promotion has created the opportunity for nurses to strengthen the profession’s influence on health promotion, disseminate information that promotes an educated public and assist individuals and communities to change long-standing health behaviors. As health educator, our main function is to educate the people about illness care, the prevention of problems and the promotion of optimal wellness and wellbeing.

Question 74

Situation 16 - You are assigned to take care of 10 patients during the morning shift. The endorsement includes the IV infusion and medications for these clients. Mr- Felipe, 36 years old is to be given 2700ml of D5RL to infuse for 18 hours starting at 8am.

At what rate should the IV fluid be flowing hourly?

a. 100 ml/hour
b. 210 ml/hour
c. 150 ml/hour
d. 90 ml/hour

Answer 74

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Milliliters per hour= Total infusion volume/Total infusion time
= 2700ml/18hours
= 150 ml/hr

Question 75

Mr. Lagro is to receive 1 liter of D5LR to run for 12 hours. The drop factor of the IV infusion set is 10 drops per minute. Approximately, how many drops per minute should the IV is regulated?

a. 13-14 drops
b. 17-18 drops
c. 10-12 drops
d. 15-16 drops

Answer 75

CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Drops per minute= Total infusion volume x drop factor/ Total of infusion in minutes
 = 1000 ml x 10
 12hr x 60min
 = 13.89 drops

Question 76

You are to apply a transdermal patch of nitroglycerin to your client. The following important guidelines
to observe EXCEPT:

a. Apply to clean hairlines of the skin that are not subject to too much wrinkling
b. Patches may be applied to distal part of the extremities like forearm
c. Change application and site regularly to prevent irritation of the skin
d. Wear gloves to avoid any medication of your hand

Answer 76

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: All of the options are correct except option B. Transdermal dosage forms can be applied to any
nonhairy part of the skin except distal parts of arms and legs because absoption won’t be maximal at distal sites.

Question 77

You will be applying eye drops to Miss Romualdez. After checking all the necessary information and
cleaning the affected eyelid and eyelashes you administer the ophthalmic drops by instilling the eye drops.

a. directly onto the cornea
b. pressing on the lacrimal duct
c. into the outer third of the upper conjunctival sac
d. from the inner canthus going towards the side of the eye

Answer 77

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Pressing the lacrimal duct prevents the absorption through the tear duct and drainage of the
medication.
OPTION A: It is not instilled directly in cornea but on the sac formed by lower lid.
OPTION C: it should be outer third of lower conjunctival sac
OPTION D: it is true in an eye ointment.

Question 78

When applying eye ointment, the following guidelines apply EXCEPT:
a. squeeze about 2 cm of ointment and gently close but not squeeze eye
b. apply ointment from the inner canthus going outward of the affected eye
c. discard the first bead of the eye ointment before application because the tube likely to expel more than desired
amount of ointment
d. hold the tube above the conjunctival sac do not let tip touch the conjunctiva

Answer 78

CORRECT ANSWER: C
Rationale: All are guidelines in administering eye ointment except C. In order not to expel more than the desired amount of the medication, hold the tube of ointment in your hand for a few moments. This will warm the medicine so it will flow easily from the tube. Do not use ointment that has dried out. Or The first bead of ointment from a tube is discarded because it is considered to be contaminated not because it will expel more than the desired amount.

Question 79

Situation 17 - Nursing management is performing leadership functions of governance and decision-making within organizations employing nurses.

79. The unit manager is meeting with the director of nursing for the unit manager’s yearly performance review. The director of nursing states that the unit manager needs to improve leadership skills. In differentiating leadership from management, the nurse manager recognizes that which of the following approaches will apply?
    a. The manager works more one-on-one with staff
    b. A leader seeks a higher position on an organizational chart
    c. A good leader uses managerial principles
    d. A manager is not required to use leadership principles

Answer 79

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: A good leader can incorporate managerial theories into practice, whereas a manager does does not
necessarily utilize leadership techniques. It is unnecessary to work on-on-one with staff unless the need arises.
OPTIONS B and D are false statements

Question 80

When Mrs. Guevarra, a nurse, delegates aspects of the clients care to the nurse-aide who is an unlicensed staff, Mrs. Guevarra.

a. makes the assignment to teach the staff member
b. is assigning the responsibility to the aide but not the accountability for those tasks
c. does not have to supervise or evaluate the aide
d. most know how to perform task delegated

Answer 80

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Delegation is the transference of responsibility and authority for the performance of an activity to a
competent individual. It is important to note that the nurse is not held legally responsible for the acts of the
unlicensed person, but is accountable for the quality of the acts of delegation and has the ultimate responsibility to
ensure that proper care is provided.

Question 81

A staff nurse is responsible for the care of the assigned client from admission to discharge. When the
staff nurse is not on duty, others provide care based on instructions left by the staff nurse. Which type
of nursing assignment does this represent?
a. Case management
b. Team
c. Primary
d. Functional

Answer 81

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: In primary nursing, one nurse is responsible for total care of a number of clients 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. Team nursing provides individualized nursing care to clients by a nursing team lead by a professional nurse. The case manager may not provide direct client care but coordinates health care among numerous healthcare workers. Functional nursing care is organized by task with specific tasks being performed by different nursing personnel rather than one nurse.

Question 82

Process of formal negotiations of working conditions between a group of registered nurses and employer is:

a. grievance
b. arbitration
c. collective bargaining
d. strike

Answer 82

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Collective bargaining is a legal process used by organized employees to negotiate with an
employer about wages and related concerns resulting in an employment contract.

OPTION B: Arbitration includes procedures for using the services of a third party to settle labor disputes.
OPTION A: Grievance is any complaint by an employer or union concerning an aspect of employment
OPTION D: Strike is a concerted withholding of labor supply to bring about economic pressure on employers and cause them to grant employee demands.

Question 83

You are attending a certification program on cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) offered and required by 
 the hospital employing you. This is;
a. professional course towards credits
b. in-service education
c. advance training
d. continuing education

Answer 83

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: In-service education program is administered by an employer; it is designed to upgrade the knowledge or skills of employees. Some in-service programs are mandatory such as cardiopulmonary
resuscitation and fire safety programs

OPTION D: Continuing education refers to formalized experiences designed to enlarge the knowledge or skills of practitioners.

Question 84

Situation 18 - There are various developments in health education that the nurse should know about.
84. The nurse is preparing a client for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which of the following client
statements indicates to the nurse that teaching has been successful?
a. “The dye used in the test will turn my urine green for about 24 hours.”
b. “This procedure will take about 90 minutes to complete. There will be no discomfort.”
c. “I will be put to sleep for this procedure. I will return to my room in two hours.”
d. “The wires that will be attached to my head and chest will not cause me any pain.”

Answer 84

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: procedure takes approximately 90 minutes, not painful
OPTION A: no dye is used for an MRI
OPTION C: client is not anesthetized for this procedure
OPTION D:indicates misunderstanding of MRI because no wires are used

Question 85

In preparing a teaching plan regarding colostomy irrigations, the nurse should include which of the following?

a. The colostomy needs to be irrigated at the same time every day
b. Irrigate the colostomy after meals to increase peristalsis
c. Insert the catheter about 10 inches into the stoma
d. The solution should be very warm to increase dilation and flow

Answer 85

CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE:Colostomy irrigation should be done at same time each day to assist in establishing a normal pattern of elimination.

OPTION B: colostomy should be irrigated only once a day.

OPTION C:catheter should never be inserted more than 4 inches.

OPTION D:solution should be at body temperature; increasing the temperature does not make irrigation more efficient.

Question 86

Part of teaching client in health promotion is responsibility for one’s health, when Danica states she need to improve her nutritional status this means:

a. Goals and interventions to be followed by client are based on nurse’s priorities
b. Goals and intervention developed by nurse and client should be approved by the doctor
c. Nurse will decide goals and, interventions needed to meet client goals
d. Client will decide the goals and interventions required to meet her goals
CORRECT ANSWER: D

Answer 86

RATIONALE: Health promotion plans need to be developed according to the needs, desires and priorities of the
client. The client decides on health promotion goals, the activities or interventions to achieve those goals, the frequency and duration of the activities, and the method of evaluation. During the process the nurse acts as a resource person rather than an advisor or counselor. The nurse provides information when asked, emphasizes the importance of small steps to behavioral change and reviews the client’s goals and plans to make sure they are realistic, measurable and acceptable to the client.

OPTION A: It should be based on client’s priorities
OPTION D: There is no need for the doctor to approve the goal set by the client
OPTION C. The client is the one who will decide.

Question 87

Nurse Beatrice is providing tertiary prevention to Mrs. De Villa. An example of tertiary prevention is:

a. Marriage counseling
b. Self-examination for breast cancer
c. Teaching complications of diabetes
d. Poison control

Answer 87

CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Marriage counseling is a tertiary prevention. Marriage seminar ir primary prevention and accepting the presence of a problem is a secondary prevention.
OPTION B and D are secondary prevention
OPTION C is a primary prevention

Question 88

Mrs. Ostrea has a schedule for Pap smear. She has a strong family history of cervical cancer. This is an 
 example of:
a. tertiary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. health screening
d. primary prevention

Answer 88

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: health promotion ( health education) and illness prevention ( proper nutrition, regular exercise etc.)
are primary prevention; diagnosis and treatment are secondary prevention; and rehabilitation and health
restoration are tertiary prevention

Question 89

Situation 19 - Ronnie has a vehicular accident where he sustained injury to his left ankle. In the Emergency Room, you notice how anxious he looks.

You establish rapport with him and to reduce his anxiety you initially

a. Take him to the radiology, section for X-ray of affected extremity
b. Identify yourself and state your purpose in being with the client
c. Talk to the physician for an order of Valium
d. Do inspection and palpation to check extent of his injuries

Answer 89

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Nurses carry out measures to minimize client’s anxiety and stress by providing an atmosphere of
warmth and trust and convey a sense of caring and empathy. For example, explain procedures before they are implemented including sensations likely to be experienced during the procedure.

OPTION A: you disregard the feeling of the patient could further aggravate anxiety level
OPTION C is inappropriate
OPTION D: inappropriate , further aggravate anxiety

Question 90

While doing your assessment, Ronnie asks you “Do I have a fracture? I don’t want to have a cast.” The most appropriate nursing response would be:

a. “You have to have an X-ray first to know if you have a fracture.”
b. “Why do you; sound so scared? It is just a cast and it’s not painful”
c. “You seem to be concerned about being in a cast.”
d. “Based on my assessment, there doesn’t seem to be a fracture.”

Answer 90

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Option C is reflecting. It is directing ideas, feelings, questions or content back to clients to enable
them to explore their own ideas and feelings about a situation.

OPTION A ignores the client’s feeling
OPTION B belittle the client’s feeling
OPTION D is giving false reassurance

Question 91

Situation 20 - You are taking care of Mrs. Leyba, 66 years old, who is terminally ill with ovarian cancer stage IV.
91. When caring for a dying client you will perform which of the following activities?

a. Encourage the client to reach optimal health
b. Assist client perform activities of daily living
c. Assist the client towards a peaceful death
d. Motivate client to gain independence

Answer 91

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Nurses need to ensure that the client is treated with dignity, that is with honor and respect. Dying clients often feel they have lost control over their lives and over life itself. Helping clients die with dignity involves maintaining their humanity, consistent with their values, beliefs and culture. Clients want to be able to manage the events preceding death so they can die peacefully. Nurses can help clients to determine their own physical, psychologic and social priorities.

OPTIONS A, B and D are inappropriate

Question 92

The client prepares for eventual death and discusses with the nurse and her family how she would like her funeral to look like and what dress she will use. This client is in the stage of:

a. acceptance
b. resolution
c. denial
d. bargaining

Answer 92

CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: The model was introduced by Elizabeth Kübler-Ross in her 1969 book “On Death and Dying”. The stages have become well-known as the “Five Stages of Grief”.

The stages are:
1. Denial: “It can’t be happening.”
2. Anger: “Why me? It’s not fair.”
3. Bargaining: “Just let me live to see my children graduate.”
4. Depression: “I’m so sad, why bother with anything?”
5. Acceptance: “It’s going to be OK.”
Acceptance-there is a difference between resignation and acceptance. You have to accept the loss, not just try to bear it quietly. Realization that it takes two to make or break a marriage. Realization that the person is gone (in death) that it is not their fault, they didn’t leave you on purpose. (even in cases of suicide, often the deceased person, was not in their right frame of mind) Finding the good that can come out of the pain of loss, finding comfort and healing. Our goals turn toward personal growth. Stay with fond memories of person.

Question 93

Situation 21 - You are a newly hired nurse in a tertiary hospital. You have finished your orientation program recently and you are beginning to assimilate the culture of the profession. Using Benner’s stages of nursing expertise, you are a beginning nurse practitioner. You will rank yourself as a/an:

a. competent nurse
b. novice nurse
c. proficient nurse
d. advanced beginner

Answer 93

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Benner’s model describes five levels of proficiency in nursing-based on the Dreyfus general model of skill acquisition. The five stages, which have implications for teaching and learning, are novice, advanced beginner, competent, proficient, and expert.
Benner’s Stages of Clinical Competence

Stage 1: Novice
Beginners have had no experience of the situations in which they are expected to perform. Novices are
taught rules to help them perform. The rules are context-free and independent of specific cases; hence the rules tend to be applied universally. The rule-governed behavior typical of the novice is extremely limited and inflexible. As such, novices have no “life experience” in the application of rules. “Just tell me what I need to do and I’ll do it.”

Stage 2: Advanced Beginner
Advanced beginners are those who can demonstrate marginally acceptable performance, those who have
coped with enough real situations to note, or to have pointed out to them by a mentor, the recurring meaningful situational components. These components require prior experience in actual situations for recognition. Principles to guide actions begin to be formulated. The principles are based on experience.

Stage 3: Competent
Competence, typified by the nurse who has been on the job in the same or similar situations two or three
years, develops when the nurse begins to see his or her actions in terms of long-range goals or plans of which he or she is consciously aware. For the competent nurse, a plan establishes a perspective, and the plan is based on considerable conscious, abstract, analytic contemplation of the problem. The conscious, deliberate planning that is characteristic of this skill level helps achieve efficiency and organization. The competent nurse lacks the speed and flexibility of the proficient nurse but does have a feeling of mastery and the ability to cope with and manage the many contingencies of clinical nursing. The competent person does not yet have enough experience
to recognize a situation in terms of an overall picture or in terms of which aspects are most salient, most
important.

Stage 4: Proficient
The proficient performer perceives situations as wholes rather than in terms of chopped up parts or
aspects, and performance is guided by maxims. Proficient nurses understand a situation as a whole because they perceive its meaning in terms of long-term goals. The proficient nurse learns from experience what typical events to expect in a given situation and how plans need to be modified in response to these events. The proficient nurse can now recognize when the expected normal picture does not materialize. This holistic understanding improves the proficient nurse’s decision making; it becomes less labored because the nurse now has a perspective on which of the many existing attributes and aspects in the present situation are the important ones. The proficient nurse uses maxims as guides which reflect what would appear to the competent or novice performer as unintelligible nuances of the situation; they can mean one thing at one time and quite another thing later. Once one has a deep understanding of the situation overall, however, the maxim provides direction as to what must be
taken into account. Maxims reflect nuances of the situation.

Stage 5: The Expert
The expert performer no longer relies on an analytic principle (rule, guideline, maxim) to connect her or his
understanding of the situation to an appropriate action. The expert nurse, with an enormous background of
experience, now has an intuitive grasp of each situation and zeroes in on the accurate region of the problem
without wasteful consideration of a large range of unfruitful, alternative diagnoses and solutions. The expert operates from a deep understanding of the total situation. The chess master, for instance, when asked why he or she made a particularly masterful move, will just say: “Because it felt right; it looked good.” The performer is no longer aware of features and rules;’ his/her performance becomes fluid and flexible and highly proficient. This is not to say that the expert never uses analytic tools. Highly skilled analytic ability is necessary for those situations with which the nurse has had no previous experience. Analytic tools are also necessary for those times when the expert gets a wrong grasp of the situation and then finds that events and behaviors are not occurring as expected
When alternative perspectives are not available to the clinician, the only way out of a wrong grasp of the problem is by using analytic problem solving.

Question 94

Benner’s proficient nurse level is different from the other levels in nursing expertise in the context of having:

a. the ability to organize and plan activities
b. having attained an advanced level of education
c. a holistic understanding and perception of the client
d. intuitive and analytic ability in new situations

Answer 94

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Stage 4: Proficient
The proficient performer perceives situations as wholes rather than in terms of chopped up parts or
aspects, and performance is guided by maxims. Proficient nurses understand a situation as a whole because they perceive its meaning in terms of long-term goals. The proficient nurse learns from experience what typical events to expect in a given situation and how plans need to be modified in response to these events. The proficient nurse
can now recognize when the expected normal picture does not materialize. This holistic understanding
improves the proficient nurse’s decision making; it becomes less labored because the nurse now has a
perspective on which of the many existing attributes and aspects in the present situation are the
important ones. The proficient nurse uses maxims as guides which reflect what would appear to the competent or novice performer as unintelligible nuances of the situation; they can mean one thing at one time and quite another thing later. Once one has a deep understanding of the situation overall, however, the maxim provides direction as to what must be taken into account. Maxims reflect nuances of the situation.

OPTION A : Stage 3, Competent
OPTION D: Stage 5. Expert

Question 95

The nurse checks for placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube before beginning a tube feeding for a client.
Which of the following results would indicate to the nurse that the tube feeding can begin?

a. A small amount of white mucus is aspirated from the NG tube
b. The pH of the contents removed from the NG tube is 3
c. No bubbles are seen when the nurse inverts the NG tube in water
d. The client says he can feel the NG tube in the back of his throat

Answer 95

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Stomach contents are acidic. Research indicates that testing pH is a reliable way to determine
location of a feeding tube.

OPTION A:may be from lungs
OPTION C: not a safe way to check placement
OPTION D: not a reliable indication

Question 96

The nurse in the outpatient clinic assists with the application of a cast to the left arm of a five-year old girl.
After the cast is applied, the nurse should

a. petal the edges of the cast to prevent irritation
b. elevate the client’s left arm on two pillows
c. apply cool, humidified air to dry the cast
d. ask the client to move her fingers to maintain mobility

Answer 96

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Strategy: Answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it
desired? Option B is correct. It minimizes swelling, elevated for first 24-48 hours, protects from pressure and flattening of cast.

OPTION A: done when cast is completely dry, prevents crumbling of plaster into cast
OPTION C: would delay drying of cast
OPTION D: maintaining mobility of fingers not most important after application of cast

Question 97

A nurse teaches a health class at the local library to a group of senior citizens. Which of the following
behaviors should the nurse emphasize to facilitate regular bowel elimination?
a. Avoid strenuous activity
b. Eat more foods with increased bulk
c. Decrease fluid intake to decrease urinary losses
d. Use oral laxatives so that a bowel pattern emerges

Answer 97

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Strategy: Answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it
desired? Option B is correct. It is contained in whole grains, legumes, vegetables, fruits, seeds, nuts, bulk
promotes peristalsis

OPTION A: regular exercise program facilitates bowel elimination
OPTION C: fluid intake of 1,500 cc/day facilitates bowel elimination
OPTION D: laxatives used as last resort because they become habit-forming

Question 98

An 8-year-old client is returned to the recovery room after a bronchoscopy. The nurse should position the client

a. in semi-Fowler’s position
b. prone, with the head turned to the side
c. with the head of the bed elevated 45° and the neck extended
d. supine, with the head in the midline position

Answer 98

CORRECT ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Strategy: Answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it
desired? Option A:correct–check vital signs every 15 minutes until stable, assess for respiratory difficulty (stridor and dyspnea resulting from laryngeal edema or laryngospasm)

OPTION B: would limit respiratory excursion and assessment of breathing
OPTION C: extension of neck could obstruct airway because tongue falls in back of mouth
OPTION D: not best position after procedure

Question 99

The nurse is reviewing procedures with the health care team. The nurse should intervene if an
RN staff member makes which of the following statements?

a. “It is my responsibility to ensure that the consent form has been signed and is attached to the patient’s chart.”
b. “It is my responsibility to witness the signature of the patient before surgery is performed.”
c. “It is my responsibility to explain the surgery and ask the patient to sign the consent form.”
d. “It is my responsibility to answer questions that the patient may have before surgery.”

Answer 99

CORRECT ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Strategy: “Nurse would intervene” indicates that you should look for an incorrect
statement.Question is unstated. Read answer choices for clues.Option C: correct–physician should provide
explanation and obtain patient’s signature

OPTION A:describes the nurse’s responsibility in obtaining consent
OPTION B:signature indicates that the nurse saw the patient sign the form
OPTION D:.the nurse should answer questions after the physician has obtain consent

Question 100

For a client with a neurological disorder, which of the following nursing assessments will be MOST helpful in determining subtle changes in the client’s level of consciousness?

a. Client posturing
b. Glasgow coma scale
c. Client thinking pattern
d. Occurrence of hallucinations

Answer 100

CORRECT ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Strategy: Think about each answer choice. Option B:correct–Glasgow coma scale score best evaluates changes in a client’s level of consciousness by evaluating eye-opening, motor, and verbal responses

OPTION A: indicates increased intracranial pressure
OPTION C: more appropriate for the psychiatric client
OPTION D: more appropriate for the psychiatric client