2.0 Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations Flashcards

1
Q

What distinguishes a nation-state threat actor from an organized crime group?

A

Nation-state actors are typically government-sponsored with political motives, while organized crime groups focus on financial gain.

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2
Q

How can shadow IT pose a risk to an organization?

A

Shadow IT can introduce vulnerabilities by bypassing official security protocols.

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3
Q

What is a common motivation for hacktivists?

A

Promoting political or ideological beliefs through cyber activities.

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4
Q

Why is it important to consider both internal and external threat actors?

A

Internal actors have legitimate access that can be exploited, while external actors may use different attack vectors.

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5
Q

What mitigation strategy can help prevent insider threats?

A

Implementing strict access controls and monitoring user activity.

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6
Q

How does data exfiltration differ from espionage?

A

Data exfiltration focuses on stealing data for any purpose, while espionage specifically involves gathering intelligence.

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7
Q

What role does encryption play in mitigating threats?

A

Encryption protects data integrity and confidentiality against unauthorized access.

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8
Q

How can an organization detect potential insider threats?

A

By monitoring unusual behavior patterns and access logs.

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9
Q

What is a key characteristic of an unskilled attacker?

A

Limited technical skills relying on pre-made hacking tools.

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10
Q

Why might a nation-state engage in cyber warfare?

A

To disrupt another nation’s infrastructure or gather intelligence.

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11
Q

How can service disruption be a motivation for attackers?

A

To damage a competitor’s reputation or operations.

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12
Q

What is a common misconception about hacktivists?

A

That they lack technical skills; many are highly skilled in exploiting vulnerabilities.

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13
Q

How does financial gain motivate organized crime in cyber activities?

A

By conducting fraud, theft, or extortion online for profit.

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14
Q

What is an effective way to mitigate risks from shadow IT?

A

Enforcing strict IT governance policies and regular audits.

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15
Q

How does ethical hacking differ from other forms of hacking?

A

It is authorized and aims to improve security by identifying vulnerabilities.

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16
Q

How do philosophical beliefs motivate certain threat actors?

A

They may conduct attacks to support causes they believe in strongly.

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17
Q

What can be a direct consequence of ignoring insider threats?

A

Loss of sensitive data due to unauthorized access by trusted individuals.

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18
Q

Why is continuous monitoring important in cybersecurity?

A

To detect and respond promptly to emerging threats or attacks.

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19
Q

What distinguishes revenge-motivated attacks from other types?

A

They are personal and aim at causing harm due to perceived grievances.

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20
Q

How can organizations prepare for potential cyber warfare scenarios?

A

By strengthening defenses and collaborating with government agencies for intelligence sharing.

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21
Q

What type of attack involves sending fraudulent emails designed to trick recipients into revealing personal information?

A

Phishing

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22
Q

Which threat vector involves hiding malicious code within an image file?

A

Image-based attack

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23
Q

What is the term for registering domain names similar to legitimate ones in hopes of catching users who mistype URLs?

A

Typosquatting

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24
Q

How does vishing differ from phishing?

A

Vishing uses voice calls, while phishing typically uses email.

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25
Q

What is the risk associated with using default credentials on devices?

A

Attackers can easily guess default credentials, gaining unauthorized access.

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26
Q

What type of attack targets frequently visited websites by specific groups?

A

Watering hole attack

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27
Q

What is smishing?

A

SMS-based phishing attack

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28
Q

Why are unsupported systems considered high-risk?

A

They no longer receive security updates, leaving known vulnerabilities unpatched.

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29
Q

What is the difference between client-based and agentless software?

A

Client-based requires installation on endpoints; agentless operates without local installation but still may expose vulnerabilities

30
Q

Which type of network is more vulnerable if left unencrypted?

A

Wireless networks

31
Q

What kind of social engineering technique involves creating a fake scenario to obtain sensitive information from someone?

A

Pretexting

32
Q

How do supply chain attacks typically work?

A

Attackers compromise third-party vendors or suppliers to gain access to their customers’ systems.

33
Q

What is business email compromise (BEC)?

A

An attack where cybercriminals spoof executive emails to trick employees into transferring money or sharing sensitive data

34
Q

Which Bluetooth exploit allows attackers unauthorized access?

A

Bluesnarfing

35
Q

What is one way attackers exploit open service ports?

A

By performing port scanning and exploiting services running on those ports

36
Q

What is an Indicator of Compromise (IOC)?

A

A: Forensic evidence suggesting a potential intrusion or malicious activity, such as unusual traffic patterns or suspicious account activities

37
Q

Describe a scenario where anomalous outbound traffic could indicate a security breach.

A

A: A sudden spike in outbound data could indicate data exfiltration by malware or a compromised system sending sensitive information to an external server.

38
Q

How does a DDoS attack differ from a credential replay attack?

A

A: A DDoS attack overwhelms a target with excessive traffic, while a credential replay attack uses stolen credentials to gain unauthorized access.

39
Q

What role do Intrusion Detection Systems play in identifying malicious activity?

A

A: IDS monitor network traffic for known threat signatures and unusual behavior patterns to detect potential security breaches.

40
Q

Explain the difference between static and dynamic malware analysis.

A

A: Static analysis examines malware without execution, focusing on file signatures, while dynamic analysis runs malware in a controlled environment to observe behavior.

41
Q

What are common indicators of a ransomware attack?

A

A: Encrypted files with ransom notes, unusual file extensions, and unexpected system performance degradation.

42
Q

How can establishing a baseline for network traffic help in detecting threats?

A

A baseline helps identify deviations from normal traffic patterns, making it easier to spot anomalies that may indicate malicious activity.

43
Q

What is the significance of account lockout as an indicator?

A

A: Account lockout can indicate attempted unauthorized access or brute force attacks due to repeated failed login attempts.

44
Q

Describe how RFID cloning can be used in physical attacks.

A

A: RFID cloning copies data from an RFID card/device to create duplicates for unauthorized access to secure areas or systems.

45
Q

What are the potential impacts of a buffer overflow attack?

A

A: Buffer overflow attacks can lead to arbitrary code execution, allowing attackers to take control of systems or cause them to crash.

46
Q

How can privilege escalation be detected within an application?

A

A: By monitoring for unauthorized changes in user permissions or access levels within applications.

47
Q

Why is it important to monitor for impossible travel scenarios?

A

A: Impossible travel involves login attempts from geographically distant locations in short time frames, indicating potential credential misuse.

48
Q

What are the differences between spraying and brute force password attacks?

A

A: Password spraying tries common passwords across many accounts, while brute force attacks try many passwords on one account until successful.

49
Q

How do cryptographic collision attacks work?

A

A: Collision attacks exploit weaknesses in hash functions by producing two different inputs that result in the same hash output, compromising data integrity

50
Q

Explain the importance of monitoring concurrent session usage as an indicator.

A

A: Monitoring concurrent sessions helps detect unauthorized access when multiple sessions are active simultaneously from different locations for the same user account.

51
Q

What steps should be taken when suspicious registry changes are detected?

A

A: Investigate changes for legitimacy, restore the registry from backups if necessary, and monitor for further unauthorized modifications.

52
Q

Describe how directory traversal can be exploited by attackers.

A

A: Directory traversal exploits vulnerabilities allowing attackers to access files outside the intended web root folder by manipulating file paths.

53
Q

How does analyzing DNS requests help in identifying potential threats?

A

Analyzing DNS requests can reveal attempts to connect to malicious domains or unusual patterns suggesting command-and-control communications.

54
Q

What are the challenges associated with detecting logic bombs?

A

A: Logic bombs are difficult to detect because they remain dormant until triggered by specific conditions, making them hard to identify until activation.

55
Q

In what ways can rootkits evade detection by traditional security measures?

A
56
Q

What is the primary purpose of network segmentation?

A

To isolate parts of a network and reduce the attack surface.

57
Q

What does an Access Control List (ACL) specify?

A

It specifies which users or systems are granted access to resources and what actions they are allowed to perform

58
Q

How does least privilege contribute to enterprise security

A

It limits user permissions to only what is necessary for their role, reducing potential misuse

59
Q

What is the difference between a DACL and an SACL?

A

A DACL specifies who is allowed or denied access, while an SACL logs access attempts for auditing purposes

60
Q

Why is patching important in securing an enterprise?

A

Patching fixes known vulnerabilities in software that could be exploited by attackers.

61
Q

What is an application allow list used for?

A

It restricts which applications are allowed to run on a system, preventing unauthorized software from executing

62
Q

How does encryption protect data?

A

Encryption converts data into an unreadable format unless decrypted with the correct key.

63
Q

What is configuration enforcement?

A

Ensuring that all systems adhere strictly to predefined security settings.

64
Q

Why should ports/protocols be disabled when not in use?

A

To reduce potential entry points for attackers by limiting unnecessary services

65
Q

What is involved in decommissioning hardware securely?

A

Securely wiping all data from devices before disposal or repurposing them

66
Q

How does monitoring help in enterprise security?

A

It allows real-time detection of suspicious activities and potential breaches

67
Q

What is host-based intrusion prevention (HIPS)?

A

A system that monitors and prevents malicious activities on individual hosts by analyzing behavior patterns

68
Q

Why should default passwords be changed immediately after installation?

A

Default passwords are well-known and could be easily exploited by attackers if not changed promptly

69
Q

How does isolation contribute to securing critical systems?

A

It prevents unauthorized communication with sensitive systems by separating them from less secure networks.

70
Q

What role does encryption play in endpoint protection?

A

It ensures that data stored on endpoints remains confidential even if the device is compromised

71
Q
A