2. Wills: Interpretation, Alteration and Revocation Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of court interpretation in wills?

A

To establish the testator’s intentions.

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2
Q

What is the presumption regarding the meaning of non-technical words in a will?

A

They are given their ordinary meaning.

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3
Q

What is the presumption regarding the meaning of technical words in a will?

A

They are given their technical meaning.

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4
Q

When can the presumption regarding the meaning of words in a will be rebutted?

A

When the will clearly shows that the testator intended to use a word in a different sense.

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5
Q

What factors does the court consider in interpreting a will?

A

Ordinary meaning, context, and common sense.

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6
Q

When will the court consider external evidence in interpreting a will?

A

When the wording is meaningless, ambiguous, or unclear in the will or in the light of surrounding circumstances.

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7
Q

What is the aim of rectification in relation to a will?

A

To rectify the will to carry out the testator’s intentions when the wording does not effectively do so.

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8
Q

What are the two situations in which a will may fail to carry out the testator’s intentions?

A

Due to a clerical error or a failure to understand instructions.

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9
Q

What is considered a clerical error in relation to a will?

A

An error of a clerical nature, such as writing or omitting something by mistake.

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10
Q

What is the scope of Section 20 AJA in relation to rectification of a will?

A

It is very narrow and does not apply to misunderstandings of the law or issues of the testator’s knowledge and approval.

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11
Q

What is the basic rule regarding the determination of assets passing under a will?

A

Assets are determined according to those in existence at the date of death.

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12
Q

When does a will ‘speak from the date of death’?

A

Unless a contrary intention appears in the will.

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13
Q

What are examples of words that indicate a contrary intention in a will?

A

Words that refer to the ‘present’, to a specific asset, or to a generic collection of assets.

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14
Q

What does it mean when a will states ‘the house I now own’?

A

It refers to the house the testator currently owns.

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15
Q

What does it mean when a will states ‘my car’?

A

It refers to the car the testator owned at the date of the will.

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16
Q

What does a generic will state?

A

Collection of cars at date of death.

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17
Q

How are beneficiaries identified in a will?

A

By name or description.

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18
Q

What is the general rule for beneficiaries in a will?

A

Alive at the time of execution.

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19
Q

What happens if a beneficiary is named but predeceased the testator?

A

Doctrine of lapse applies.

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20
Q

How is family described in a will?

A

By their relationship to the testator.

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21
Q

What is a class of beneficiaries?

A

Group fulfilling a description, e.g. ‘my children’.

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22
Q

When does a class close for new beneficiaries?

A

When the first beneficiary in the class obtains a vested interest.

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23
Q

Who are included in gifts referring to blood relationships?

A

Stepchildren are not included unless contrary intention.

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24
Q

What is the meaning of ‘issue’ in relation to children?

A

Direct descendants of any generation, including adopted children.

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25
Q

Can children born from extra-marital affairs benefit from gifts?

A

Yes, unless contrary intention in the will.

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26
Q

Who is included in the term ‘my children’?

A

Children of whom the testator is a legal parent under the HFE Act.

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27
Q

Are ‘husband’ and ‘wife’ synonymous with ‘civil partner’?

A

No, a gift to a wife will fail if the testator enters a civil partnership instead.

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28
Q

What is the Gender Recognition Act 2004?

A

Legally recognizes individuals who obtained a full gender recognition certificate.

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29
Q

What is the effect of acquired gender on property disposal under a will made before April 4, 2005?

A

Acquired gender does not affect disposal of property.

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30
Q

What can be done if the disposition made after the appointed day is different due to gender reassignment?

A

An application can be made to the High Court for defeated expectations.

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31
Q

What happens when individual gifts fail in a will?

A

Subject matter falls into the residuary and is taken by the beneficiary, unless there is a substitution clause.

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32
Q

What happens in the residuary effect of a failing gift?

A

There is partial intestacy and the residuary estate passes under the intestacy rules, unless there is a substitution clause.

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33
Q

What is the circumstance of a failing gift due to uncertainty?

A

It is not possible to identify the subject matter from the wording.

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34
Q

What is the exception for a gift of exclusive charitable purposes?

A

The court has discretion as to which charity will benefit.

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35
Q

What happens if a beneficiary or their spouse/civil partner witness the will?

A

The gift to the beneficiary fails, but the will is validly executed as they remain a competent witness.

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36
Q

What is the exception for valid execution if the beneficiary’s signature is ignored?

A

A codicil confirming the original will.

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37
Q

What happens to the interest of an ex-spouse in case of divorce or dissolution?

A

The interest passes as if they had died, separation is not sufficient.

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38
Q

What is ademption?

A

Ademption is when a gift is adeemed if the property is sold, given away, or destroyed during the testator’s lifetime.

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39
Q

What is an example of ademption through change in substance?

A

Changing shares to holding in a company.

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40
Q

What is an example of ademption through substituted items?

A

Swapping ‘my car’ for a new car after the will is made.

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41
Q

When does a gift not adeem if the property is capable of increase or decrease?

A

Shares and jewellery.

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42
Q

What can republish a will to account for replacement property?

A

A codicil.

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43
Q

What happens if a beneficiary dies before the testator?

A

The gift lapses and will pass under intestacy, unless there is a substitution gift available.

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44
Q

What is the purpose of revocations?

A

To cancel or withdraw a will.

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45
Q

What is the effect of nullifying the will?

A

Nullify the will in whole or part.

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46
Q

What is the rule regarding revoking a will?

A

Testator can revoke will if they have capacity.

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47
Q

What is the capacity test for revoking a will?

A

Bank v Goodfellow test.

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48
Q

How can a will be revoked by a later will or codicil?

A

By a declaration in a later will or codicil.

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49
Q

What is the presumption regarding revoking a will by a later will or codicil?

A

No express revocation clause revokes earlier will or codicil.

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50
Q

What is conditional revocation?

A

Revocation may be conditional upon a particular event.

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51
Q

How many witnesses are required for a will or codicil?

A

Two witnesses.

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52
Q

How can a will be revoked by destruction?

A

By destruction by the testator or another in their presence and by their directions.

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53
Q

Is accidental destruction sufficient to revoke a will?

A

No, intention to revoke must be present.

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54
Q

What is the test for partial destruction of a will?

A

Whether the remainder is intelligible and operable.

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55
Q

What happens if a will is destroyed but not revoked?

A

May obtain order allowing admission to probate as a valid will.

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56
Q

How does marriage or civil partnership affect a will?

A

Automatically revokes the will.

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57
Q

What is the exception to revoking a will by marriage or civil partnership?

A

If will recites expected marriage + no intention for the will to be revoked.

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58
Q

What happens if the expected marriage never takes place?

A

The will is still effective unless conditional on marriage.

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59
Q

What happens if the testator marries another person other than the one specified?

A

The will is revoked.

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60
Q

Does conversion from civil partnership to marriage affect a will?

A

No, it does not revoke the will or affect dispositions.

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61
Q

What are mutual wills?

A

Agreement not to revoke wills, breach if revoked.

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62
Q

What is the general rule regarding identical wills?

A

Likely intended to be mutual, not mirror wills.

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63
Q

What is required for mirror wills?

A

Strong evidence of intent.

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64
Q

Are mutual wills revocable?

A

Yes, unless unconscionable for one party to go back on their promise.

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65
Q

What does the doctrine of mutual wills do?

A

Imposes a constructive trust on survivor’s estate to protect beneficiaries.

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66
Q

Does the agreement on mutual wills restrict the use of property?

A

No, it only specifies not to revoke the wills.

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67
Q

What must the survivor of mutual wills not do?

A

Make dispositions during lifetime intending to defeat the agreement.

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68
Q

How can mutual wills be revoked?

A

By mutual decision, unilateral revocation is valid but amounts to breach.

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69
Q

What are codicils?

A

Additions, amendments, or revocations in part to a will.

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70
Q

How are codicils executed?

A

As a document that supplements an existing will.

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71
Q

What does republication of a will do?

A

Re-publishes the will at the date of execution and can perfect imperfect formalities.

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72
Q

How can a will be revived?

A

Through re-execution or a codicil with express intention to revive.

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73
Q

What should a testator provide when making a codicil?

A

A letter explaining the reason for the codicil.

74
Q

What is the general rule regarding alterations made after execution?

A

They are invalid and unenforceable unless attested or an exception.

75
Q

What is the presumption regarding alterations made after execution?

A

They are presumed to be made after execution unless proven otherwise.

76
Q

What are attested alterations?

A

Changes made to a will that must be signed and witnessed.

77
Q

What is obliteration?

A

A valid alteration if the original text is illegible.

78
Q

What is interlineation?

A

Adding something previously omitted in a will.

79
Q

What are other alterations?

A

Striking through text and adding at the end of the will.

80
Q

What is a clerical error?

A

An error made by a solicitor or in writing or omitting something by mistake.

81
Q

When is a strike through valid?

A

When it is an error of a clerical nature.

82
Q

What makes an alteration invalid?

A

If the original wording is optically apparent without additional evidence or interference.

83
Q

What happens if the original wording is optically apparent?

A

The will stands and no alteration is needed.

84
Q

What is the exception to contingent obliterations?

A

If the condition is not met, the court will use any and all methods to establish the original words.

85
Q

What is the purpose of the opening section of a will?

A

To identify the testator and the nature of the document.

86
Q

What should be stated in the opening section of a will?

A

The full name and address of the testator.

87
Q

When is a will dated?

A

At the time of execution, either at the opening or end of the will.

88
Q

What should be stated regarding intention to marry in a will?

A

The testator should state any future intentions and whether marriage should revoke the will.

89
Q

What is the purpose of the revocation clause?

A

To indicate that all earlier wills and codicils are revoked.

90
Q

Who are appointed in the appointments section of a will?

A

Executors and trustees.

91
Q

When are trustees appointed in a will?

A

If the testator created an express trust of the estate.

92
Q

What can executors and trustees do?

A

They can administer the estate and hold the remainder of the trust.

93
Q

How many executors are required?

A

At least 2, but there is no maximum.

94
Q

What is the recommended number of executors?

A

4, as that is the maximum to apply for grant of probate to the same assets.

95
Q

Who can be chosen as an executor?

A

Non-professional individuals, solicitors, other professionals, banks, or trust corporations.

96
Q

What are charging provisions?

A

Provisions that allow a fiduciary to charge for their services.

97
Q

Who can benefit from charging provisions?

A

Sole executor/trustee with an express charging clause.

98
Q

What are the advantages of appointing non-professional individuals as fiduciaries?

A

Familiarity with the testator, unlikely to charge for time spent, only solicitor costs paid.

99
Q

What are the advantages of appointing solicitors or other professionals as fiduciaries?

A

Necessary expertise, firm will not die or retire.

100
Q

What are the disadvantages of appointing solicitors or other professionals as fiduciaries?

A

Costs for expenses incurred and time spent doing the work.

101
Q

What type of partnership should be appointed as fiduciaries?

A

General partnership (not LLP) with at least two partners.

102
Q

What changes should be indicated in the appointment of fiduciaries?

A

Possible changes of name, business mediums between date of will and death.

103
Q

What are the advantages of appointing banks or other trust corporations as fiduciaries?

A

Financial and legal expertise, corporation will not die or retire.

104
Q

What are the disadvantages of appointing banks or other trust corporations as fiduciaries?

A

Large and impersonal to the family, charging methods based on percentage of estate value.

105
Q

What type of trustees can be reasonably remunerated for their time spent on work?

A

Trust corporations or trustees acting in a professional capacity.

106
Q

When should a guardian be appointed?

A

If the testator has infant children, to care for them after the death of both parents.

107
Q

What are non-residuary gifts?

A

Gifts that are not part of the residue of the estate.

108
Q

What are pecuniary legacies?

A

Gifts of money.

109
Q

What are specific legacies?

A

Gifts of specific assets.

110
Q

What is a specific legacy?

A

A gift of personalty (e.g. a watch).

111
Q

What is a specific devise?

A

A gift of land (e.g. a house).

112
Q

What information is necessary to identify a beneficiary?

A

Name, address, and relationship to the testator.

113
Q

What is the difference between vested and contingent gifts?

A

Vested gifts are made outright, while contingent gifts depend on a condition.

114
Q

What happens if a predeceased beneficiary is named in a legacy?

A

They do not take the legacy, and the gift passes with the residue unless there is an express substitutional beneficiary or the gift is stated otherwise.

115
Q

What is the purpose of accurate identification in charities?

A

To provide the address and registered charity number.

116
Q

What is the requirement to authorize executors in charities?

A

To accept receipt of an authorized office of the charity or sufficient equivalent.

117
Q

What should be indicated in relation to changes in charities?

A

Any changes should be clearly indicated.

118
Q

What is the burden of IHT?

A

If the estate is large enough, IHT will be payable on the estate value.

119
Q

What is the general rule for IHT on individual legacies?

A

IHT on individual legacies is paid out of the residuary estate.

120
Q

What is the exception to the general rule for IHT on individual legacies?

A

A will can displace the general rule by exhibiting a contrary intention.

121
Q

Who bears the costs of packing or transporting a specific gift?

A

The beneficiary bears the costs, unless it is stated that costs will be paid from the residue of the estate.

122
Q

Who bears the burden of mortgage charges on a specific devise of land?

A

The beneficiary bears the burden, unless the devise is expressed as ‘free of mortgage’, in which case the debt will be paid from the residue.

123
Q

What is the purpose of a gift of residue?

A

To express the direction for the payment of all debts, expenses, and legacies from the residue before it is distributed to the beneficiaries.

124
Q

What types of express trusts are common in family wills?

A

Contingent and discretionary trusts, and trusts with successive interests.

125
Q

What is the purpose of avoiding partial intestacy?

A

To provide express substitutional gifts to cover the possibility of the primary gift failing.

126
Q

Who is usually the longstop beneficiary in case all arrangements fail?

A

A charity is usually the longstop beneficiary.

127
Q

What should be omitted in the identification of beneficiaries in residue?

A

Names and specific shares should be omitted, only referring to them in generic terms (e.g., ‘my children’).

128
Q

What is the rule for survivorship clauses?

A

Unless stated otherwise, a beneficiary only needs to be alive at the death of the testator to acquire a vested interest.

129
Q

Can a survivorship period apply to all gifts in a will?

A

Yes, a survivorship period can apply to all gifts in a will, requiring the beneficiary to survive the testator’s death by 28 days.

130
Q

What do administrative provisions in a will cover?

A

Administrative provisions cover various practical matters related to the execution and administration of the will.

131
Q

What is a power to charge?

A

Executor and trustees’ power to charge remuneration.

132
Q

Why is it important to be clear about the profession involved in administering estates and trusts when charging?

A

To avoid someone of any profession charging, like a doctor.

133
Q

What is the extended power to appropriate assets without consent of legatee?

A

Section 41 AEA gives PRs power to appropriate assets in the estate in or towards satisfaction of any legacy or any interest in residue.

134
Q

What is the requirement for PRs to obtain formal consent for appropriation?

A

The legatee (or parent or guardian of legatee) must consent to the appropriation.

135
Q

What happens if an executor appropriates assets for their own beneficial interest?

A

It would amount to a breach of fiduciary duty.

136
Q

What is the power to insure assets?

A

PRs have a duty to preserve the value of the estate and insure assets against all risks.

137
Q

Who can give a good receipt for a legacy or share of the estate on behalf of infants?

A

Parents and guardians can give a good receipt to PRs on the infant’s behalf.

138
Q

What is self-dealing?

A

Entering into any transaction where the duties and personal self-interest of PRs and trustees conflict.

139
Q

What is the power to appropriate assets for trustees?

A

Necessary to include an expression provision as section 41 does not apply to trustees.

140
Q

What is the duty of trustees when it comes to investing?

A

Trustees have a duty to invest, take proper advice, and review investments from time to time.

141
Q

What is the exception to the duty to invest for trustees?

A

Investments in land, other than by mortgage or purchase by section 8.

142
Q

What is the power to purchase land?

A

A power for trustees to purchase land for the trust.

143
Q

What powers do trustees have in relation to acquiring land?

A

Trustees can acquire freehold or leasehold land in the UK for investment, occupation by a beneficiary, or any other reason.

144
Q

What powers do trustees have in relation to selling land?

A

Trustees holding land in their trust have the power to sell it under their powers of an absolute owner.

145
Q

What restrictions are there on trustees acquiring land?

A

Trustees cannot acquire land abroad or an interest in land with another, unless stated otherwise by express terms.

146
Q

What can income from a trust fund be used for in relation to minors?

A

Income received from the fund can be used for a minor’s maintenance, education, or benefit.

147
Q

What is the duty of trustees in relation to future income received by beneficiaries aged 18 or over?

A

Trustees have a duty to pay future income received from a beneficiary’s share of the fund to them, unless the will expresses postponing the right to benefit until a greater age.

148
Q

What does Section 32 of the Trustee Act 1925 allow trustees to do?

A

Section 32 allows trustees in certain circumstances to give a beneficiary a payment of trust capital sooner than they would receive it under the basic provisions of the trust.

149
Q

Who does Section 32 of the Trustee Act 1925 apply to?

A

Section 32 applies only to beneficiaries who have an interest in trust capital.

150
Q

Can beneficiaries compel trustees to make an advancement of trust capital?

A

No, beneficiaries cannot compel trustees to make an advancement as Section 32 gives absolute discretion to trustees.

151
Q

What is the scope of advancements of a beneficiary’s share of capital in will trusts created on or after 1 October 2014?

A

Trustees can make an advancement of the whole of a beneficiary’s share of capital.

152
Q

What is the scope of advancements of a beneficiary’s share of capital in will trusts created before 1 October 2014?

A

Trustees are restricted to making an advancement of only one half of a beneficiary’s share of capital.

153
Q

Is it common to extend Section 32 of the Trustee Act 1925 to permit advancements of capital to the life tenant in a life interest trust?

A

Yes, it is common to extend Section 32 to permit advancements of capital to the life tenant.

154
Q

What are the requirements for beneficiaries to control trustees?

A

Beneficiaries must be sui juris (aged 18 or more with full capacity) and together entitled to the whole fund.

155
Q

What power do beneficiaries have in relation to trustees?

A

Beneficiaries can direct the trustees to end the trust, retire, and appoint new trustees of their own choice.

156
Q

What are trusts of land?

A

Trusts of land involve the holding of land by trustees for the benefit of beneficiaries.

157
Q

What is the power of trustees in relation to acquiring land for trusts of land?

A

Trustees can acquire freehold or leasehold land in the UK for investment, occupation by a beneficiary, or any other reason.

158
Q

What is the power of trustees in relation to selling land for trusts of land?

A

Trustees holding land in a trust of land have the power to sell it under their powers of an absolute owner.

159
Q

What restrictions are there on trustees acquiring land for trusts of land?

A

Trustees cannot acquire land abroad or an interest in land with another, unless stated otherwise by express terms.

160
Q

What can income from a trust fund be used for in relation to minors in trusts of land?

A

Income received from the fund can be used for a minor’s maintenance, education, or benefit.

161
Q

What is the duty of trustees in relation to future income received by beneficiaries aged 18 or over in trusts of land?

A

Trustees have a duty to pay future income received from a beneficiary’s share of the fund to them, unless the will expresses postponing the right to benefit until a greater age.

162
Q

What does Section 32 of the Trustee Act 1925 allow trustees to do in relation to trusts of land?

A

Section 32 allows trustees in certain circumstances to give a beneficiary a payment of trust capital sooner than they would receive it under the basic provisions of the trust.

163
Q

Duty to consult beneficiaries

A

Must consult beneficiaries before exercising functions.

164
Q

Beneficiary’s rights of occupation

A

Beneficiary with interest in possession has right to occupy land.

165
Q

Power to carry on the testator’s business

A

PRs can run the business as a going concern.

166
Q

Business medium

A

Sole trader (unincorporated) included in estate.

167
Q

Scope of running the business

A

Limited to assets employed in the business at death.

168
Q

Attestation clause

A

Wills should contain a clause confirming due execution.

169
Q

Purpose of attestation clause

A

Raises a presumption of due execution.

170
Q

Execution formalities

A

Testator and witnesses must sign in each other’s presence.

171
Q

Professional Conduct

A

Only act on client’s instructions or authorized person’s instructions.

172
Q

Gifts to solicitor drafting will

A

Do not act if there is a conflict of interest.

173
Q

Solicitor as executor

A

Act in the best interest of the client.

174
Q

Consulting beneficiaries

A

Consult beneficiaries before taking any actions.

175
Q

Beneficiary’s right to occupy

A

Beneficiary with interest in possession can occupy land.

176
Q

Limitations on running the business

A

Can only use assets employed in the business at death.

177
Q

Requirements for attestation clause

A

Clause confirming compliance with execution formalities.

178
Q

Presumption of due execution

A

Attestation clause raises this presumption.

179
Q

Execution formalities for wills

A

Testator and witnesses must sign in each other’s presence.

180
Q

Professional conduct for solicitors

A

Act only on client’s or authorized person’s instructions.

181
Q

Restrictions on gifts to solicitor drafting will

A

No acting if there is a conflict of interest.