2. The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 and Financial Services Act 2012 Flashcards

1
Q

IMPORTANT: What does general prohibition state? What happens if you go against general prohibition?

A

No person can carry on a regulated activity in the UK unless they are either authorised (by the PRA and/or FCA) or exempt from the requirement to be authorised.

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2
Q

MEM & IMPORTANT: Criminal penalties: What is the maximum penalty for carrying out regulated activites without be authorised? Civil law consequences: What can happen to a contact entered into by a client if advisor carried on reg activities while authorised?

A

Criminal: Contravention is a criminal offence, max sanctions are up to 2 years imprisonment and an unlimited fine.
Civil:
-Also if the contravening party has made an agreement with another party, the party is allowed to recover any money or property transferred under an agreement and to be compensated for any loss (e.g. a broker who sold a stock in XYC company to Mrs A, but isn’t authorised, so Mrs A can sue the broker and get money back).
-The contract is voidable ith at the discretion (choice) of the client.
-Injunctions (preventing further harm e.g. shutting fown business/person conducting)

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3
Q

If an authorised firm is conducting unauthorised regulated activities, this will be considered to be which ONE of the following?
AA criminal matter
BA civil matter
CA regulatory matter
DA due diligence matter

A

A) FSMA makes the breach of the general prohibition a criminal offence; therefore the criminal offence is the best answer.

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4
Q

IMPORTANT: What is the definition of regulated activity and what order is it defined under?

A

Defined under the Regulated Activities Order: Specified activity undertaken with a specified investment.

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5
Q

IMPORTANT: Which of the following constitutes a regulated activity under the FSMA 2000?
A Acting as a manager of an authorised unit trust
B Using options to limit identifiable risks as a jeweller
C Arranging deals in investments as a personal executor of a will
D Operating an employee share scheme for one’s employees

A

A

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6
Q

MEM & IMPORTANT: Exempt persons from general prohibition/authorisation (6)

A
  1. Appointed Representatives
  2. Recognised Investment exchanges and clearing houses (run settlement systems for nearly all securities in UK and Ireland e.g. Euroclear)
  3. Recognised Investment Exchanges e.g. LSE
  4. Lloyd’s syndciate members/Lloyd’s of London (gather together to form a syndicate for insurance activities)
    5.Members of Designated Professional Bodies (e.g. Lawyers, accountants, surveryors, acturies, conveyencers.)
  5. Other exempted bodies e.g. Bank of England, Central banks, supranationals, World Bank, IMF
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7
Q

IMPORTANT Q: Members of which of the following professional bodies must be authorised by the FCA before they can give investment advice and charge a fee for doing so?
a) Chartered Institute of Securities and Investments (CISI)
b) Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales (ICAEW)
c) Institute of Actuaries
d) Royal Institution of chartered surveyors (RICS)

A

A
Think about the exempt persons!

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8
Q

Which of the following would not be exempt from requiring authorisation?
A
Recognised investment exchange
B
Appointed representative
C
Lloyd’s of London
D
Members of certain professions

A

C - it’s MEMBERS of Lloyd’s that are exempt. Lloyd’s of London is another way of saying Lloyd’s Syndicate.
I thought it was D originally because it didn’t say ‘bodies’ but I guess all people in those professions are members of the professional bodies.

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9
Q

What question does the perimeter guidence manual answer?

A

Do I need Part 4A access/am I conducting specified activities in specified investments?

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10
Q

IMPORTANT: A client has purchased a National savings &Investments (NS&I) bond, depositary receipts and local authority loan stock. Which of these are specified investments under the Regulated Activies Order?

A

Depositary Receipts and loan stock only. NS&I is specifically excluded

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11
Q

IMPORTANT: For which type of product must a financial adviser be fully qualified before giving advice, even under supervision?
1. Securities
2. Non-investment insurance
3. Cash ISAs
4. Friendly society endowments

A
  1. Securities
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12
Q

IMPORTANT: For which of the following activities must a person be fully qualified before performing the role, even under supervision?
a) providing basic advice
b) acting as a pension transfer specialist
c) advising on non-investment insurance
d) dealing in securities

A

B

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13
Q

IMPORTANT: Which one of the following activities is regulated in accorance with FSMA 2000 (RAO)?
1. Provising BBG share price informaiton
2. Writing tip sheets
3.Writing a newspaper column advising on investments
4. Hositng a financial programme on television

A

if the principal purpose of a publication was the provision of investment advice (i,e, tip sheets) then the authorisaton would be required.
Newspapers and broadcasters have a specific exemption and so do providers of factual share price info.

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14
Q

IMPORTANT: Spectified investments with the Regulated Activities Order (RAO)

A

Ones you’d expect:
-Shares/depositary receipts (certificates representing shares)/Warrants
-Debt instruments e.g. bonds, Gilts, loan stock (unsecured corp bonds)
-Units in collective investment schemes (unit trust/open ended investment company (OEIC)/ investment company with variable capital (ICVC)/ Hedge funds
-Options
-Futures
-Contracts for difference (CFDs) e.g. swaps and spread bets

Ones you’d not expect:
-Lloyd’s syndicates (society for insurance), insurance contracts, funeral plan contracts
-Pensions
-Regulated mortgages and home finance
- Deposits and electronic money
- Rights to specified investments, e.g. sale & repurchase agreements (Repos) (using as collateral for loans
-Loans and other forms of credit
-Emissions auction products (e.g. carbon credit)
- Benchmarks e.g. LIBOR
- Forward rate agreement
-Floating rate agreement

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15
Q

According to the Regulated Activities Order 2001, which of the following are specifiedinvestments?
A
Commercial property, including buy-to-let investments
B
Gold bullion
C
Insurance covering vehicle breakdown
D
Units in a collective investment scheme

A

D -
Learn the list and be confident. Tangible assets and car breakdown insurance are not specified investments (physical stuff)

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16
Q

IMPORTANT: Specified activities under the RAO (regulated activities order)

A

One’s you’d expect:
-Dealing in investments
-Arranging deals in investments
-Managing investments
-Advising on investments
-Operating a multilateral or organised trading facility (MTF or OTF)

One’s you wouldn’t expect:
-Safeguarding and administering investments e.g. acting as a custodian
-Sending dematerialised instructions e.g. electronic money transfer
-Lloyd’s activities, insurance activities and providing funeral plan contracts
-Mortgages: provisions, administration, advising and arranging
-Home finance activities
-Managing dormant account funds
-Accepting deposits by way of business and issuing electronic money
-Providing credit insurance or credit information services
-Establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme or pension scheme
-Agreeing to carry on most regulated activities

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17
Q

IMPORTANT Q: Does a firm that accepts deposits from customers need to be regulated and authorised to carry out this activity?

A

Yes, we know that if a business is carrying on a regulated activity (and deposit taking is one) then it must either be authorised or exempt.

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18
Q

What is dealing is a principal in shares and bonds and why is it excluded from general prohibition?

A

Someone is excluded if individuals or companies are not in the business of dealing in investments and which invest only for THEMSELVES in the hope of making a profit.

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19
Q

What is NOT an exclusion in Newspaper/Media investment advice

A

If the principal of a publication is the provision of investment advice, with the view to encourage investors to undertake investment activity, authorisation is required - TIP SHEETS

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20
Q

MEM & IMPORTANT Q: Exclusions relating to regulated activity (not requiring authorisation/Part 4A)

A

-Dealing as principal and end used (for yourself only)
-Primary market sale or buyback (company issues shares to public or buyback from public)
-Derivatives for risk management (hedging)
-Precious metals
-Foreign exchange
-NS&I Premium bonds (not actually bonds)
- Group or Joint Enterprises - Firms undertaking intra-group dealing (SUBSIDIARY provides services to parent)
- Advice in Newspapers and other media - unless it’s a tip sheet
-Providing information (Bloomberg, Reuters etc)
- UNPAID Trustees, Nominees and Personal Representatives - acting as the representative of the other party, e.g. executer of someone’s will or charity worker.
- Employee Share Schemes - Companies to set up schemes enabling employees to hold shares in the company they work for
- Oversees Persons - They carry on regulated activity from a permanent place of business outside of the UK.

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21
Q

In relation to rules governing regulated and unregulated activities, Part 9A of
theFinancial Services and Markets Act 2000
empowers the FCA to do which one of the following?
A
Make rules that are legally binding on authorised firmsconcerning regulated activity only
B
Suggest rules to HM Treasury that would be legally binding onauthorised firms concerning regulated activity only
C
Create rules that are legally binding on authorised firmsconcerning regulated activity and also activity that is notregulated
D
Propose rules to HM Treasury that would be legally binding onauthorised firms concerning regulated activity and also activitythat is not regulated

A

C

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22
Q

A defence against a charge of carrying out a regulated activity without authorisation could be:
AManaging own portfolio
BThey did not believe that it was a regulated activity
CThey had applied and were awaiting confirmation
DThey dealt on their own account and held themselves out to others

A

A - dealing for yourself is excluded from the need of getting authorisation

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23
Q

A subsidiary company acts as broker for its parent company and arranges a deal in the shares of a public company. Which of the following statements is true?
AThe subsidiary company is performing a regulated activity and requires Part 4A permission under the RAO
BArranging deals in the shares of public companies is not a regulated activity so no Part 4A permission is required
CAs the activity is conducted within the company group, it creates an exclusion from the need for Part 4A permission
DAs the activity is conducted within the company group, a breach of conflict of interest rules has occurred

A

C, a subsidiary is excluded from the need to get part 4a,; don’t need to specify if parent is authorised or not.

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24
Q

IMPORTANT: What is the regulatory states of a trustee or personal representative carrying out regulated activities for which they are separately remunerated?

A

They are required to be authorised. Trustees or personal representatives carrying out regulated activities for which they are separately renumerated require authorisation. There’s an exclusion under FSMA 2000 from the need for authorisation if a person carrying on a regulated activity is a trusee or personal representatives and not receiving renumeration for providing investment services.

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25
Q

IMPORTANT Q: An exclusion from the need for authorisation under the FSMA 2000 regulated Activities Order applies to which specfic category of individual?
1. Trustees
2. Fund Managers
3. Politically exposed persons
4. Board Directors

A
  1. Trustees
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26
Q

IMPORTANT Q: Is a market maker required to be regulated and authorised when carrying out on such activity for a firm?

A

Yes, people acting as market makers and who regularly solicit the public with the purpose of inducing them to deal are required to be authorised or exempt.

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27
Q

IMPORTANT Q: Exemptions of the FSMA: Appointed Representatives, what are they? How are they exempt?

A

It’s a person who has entered into a contract with an authorised person (the principal) for the purpose of conducting regulated activiity. The authorised person becomes the principal and accepts legal responsibility for the regulated activity conducted by the appointed representative. The principal must conduct reviews of suitability and conduct of the authorised representative.
However, some people within an appointed representative firm must be approved for controlled functions like governors and individuals who perform customer functions.

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28
Q

What are Recognised Investment Exchanges (RIEs) and Recognised Clearing Houses (RCHs)? Who regulates?

A

The formal exchanges conducts the trading&issuance of securities. A clearing system is connected to the formal exchange and it facilitates the settlement of the trades that take place.
FCA regulates , recognises and supervises changes and clearing houses.
Once the exchange/clearing house is recognised by the FCA, they are referred to as Recognised Investment Exchanges (RIEs) and Recognised Clearing Houses (RCHs) and these are EXEMPT PERSONS once recognised. Therefore they don’t have to seek authorisation from the FCA to carry out regulated activities. They are exempt fromg eneral prohibition under the FSMA.

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29
Q

IMPORTANT Q: Investment exchanges in London have to be recognised by which organisation?
a) LSE
b) FCA
c) PRA
d) BoE

A

B - FSMA gives the FCA responsibility of recognising, regulating and supervising exchanges and clearing houses. Think about FCA responsibilities!

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30
Q

What are central banks exempt from?

A

Exempted from the need to be authorised to carry on any regulated activity exept from carrying out contracts of insurance.

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31
Q

Who are exempt from the need to be authorised for the regulated activity of accepting deposits?

A

Muncipal banks, local authorities and charities

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32
Q

IMPORTANT What are the five professions where individual firms are permitted to carry on particular regulated activities without the need to apply to the regulators for authorisation? Who do they require permission from instead?

A

Accountants.
Solicitors.
Actuaries.
Chartered surveyors.
Licensed conveyancers.
Required to apply to their relevant professional body for permission to conduct the activities.

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33
Q

IMPORTANT: What permission does the FRA and/or PRA grant for a person to be authorised?

A

Part 4A permission - means that authorisation is granted. Can carry out designated regulated activities without breaching general prohibition.
It specifies precisely which regulated activities the firm can carry on, the investments those activities may related to and any further requirements/special conditions attached to the permission.
The activities which a firm is given permission to conduct can be limited. E.g. it may be permitted to deal as principal but only for a particular type of client.

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34
Q

What’s the process if a firm is likely to be dual-regulated? Who do they apply to?

A

The firm will make a single application (application pack) to the PRA as its lead regulator. If the FCA consents to the firm’s authorisation, the PRA has the final decision whether to authorise.

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35
Q

Who is the regulator of insurance firms?

A

PRA: need to make sure there’s money for claims!

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36
Q

IMPORTANT Q: What are the Threshold Conditions (TCs) for bring granted and remaining to have Part 4A permission? I.e. how do we get it?

A
  • Legal status in UK / solo: N/A / dual reg (DR): PRA
    -Location of offices (needs to be UK) / solo: FCA / DR: PRA
    -Effective supervision (disclose close links e.g. significant shareholder)/ solo: FCA/ DR: FCA & PRA
  • Appropriate resources (sufficient finance and staff etc)/ solo: FCA/ DR: N/A
    -Appropriate non-financial resources: solo: FCA/ DR: FCA
    -Prudent conduct: solo: N/A / DR: PRA
    -Suitability (fitness and propriety): solo: FCA / DR: FCA & PRA
    -Business model (impact on FCA objectives): Solo: FCA / DR: FCA
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37
Q

IMPORTANT Q: Q: Which of the following threshold conditions applies to PRA regulated firms only?
a) suitability
b) effective supervision
c) Legal status
d) business model

A

C

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38
Q

IMPORTANT Q: The threshold condition of location of offices requires UK registered company to have its head office registered in which geographical area?
a) EEA
b) EU
c) UK
d) UK or EU only

A

C

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39
Q

MEM & IMPORTANT: How long does it take to get a decision to be granted authorisation?

A

Up to 6 months (can grant, refuse or authorisation with limitations (some of the activities applied for but not all)

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40
Q

Senior Manager and Certification Regime (SM & CR) aka Individual Accountability Regime: 4 types of staff/functions, who are approved by regulator, who are subject to the fit and proper test? Who are subject to conduct rules?

A
  1. Senior Management Functions - NEED PRIOR APPROVAL FROM REGULATOR and FIT AND PROPER TEST and SUBJECT TO CONDUCT RULES
  2. Certification Functions (client dealing/significant harm functions): NEED CERTIFICATE ISSUED BY FIRM, SUBJECT TO FIT AND PROPER TEST AND SUBJECT TO CONDUCT RULES
  3. Other conduct rules staff (e.g. general compliance, legal, middle office, operations) SUBJECT TO CONDUCT RULES]
  4. Ancillary staff: catering, hospitality, health and safety staff. Not subject to any rules
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41
Q

Fatima’s role involves dealing with customers, specified as a significant harm function bythe regulator. Under the certification regime, which of the following is true?
A
Fatima needs regulatory pre-approval by the regulator beforeperforming the role
B
Fatima needs to be certified by her firm before performing therole only
C
Fatima needs to be certified by her firm before performing therole and annually thereafter
D
Fatima could perform the role without the need for anassessment of fitness and propriety

A

C - this is the fit and proper test

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42
Q

All of the following are specified by the FCA as a certification function except:
A
Material risk takers
B
Dealing directly with clients
C
Supervisors of Certification Functions
D
Information providers

A

D - Certification functions are: CASS oversight, proprietary trader, significant management, functions requiring qualifications, managers of certification functions, material risk takers and client dealing

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43
Q

Which of the following functions in an authorised firm is LEAST likely to require approvalunder the individual accountability regime?
A Chief Financial Officer
B Manager responsible for certified persons
C Money laundering reporting officer
D Customer advisor on investments

A

D - it is the most likely to require certification, notapproval.. B means like a head of a team or dept.

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44
Q

Which one of the following conduct rules applies to all persons captured by the SM&CR regime? You must:
ATake reasonable steps to ensure the business of the firm for which you are responsible complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system
BTake reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the firm for which you are responsible is controlled effectively
CDisclose appropriately any information of which the FCA or PRA would reasonably expect notice
DObserve proper standards of market conduct

A

D) all staff are subject to conduct rules

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45
Q

Examples of SMFs (senior manager functions)

A

Chief of -, Chair, DIrector, Compliance oversight, Money laundering money officer (MLRO)

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46
Q

IMPORTANT: What does the Accountability Regime set out?

A
  1. Prescribe responsibility for different SMF functions - set out in a statement of responsibilities signed by SMF and sent to regulator & kept for 6 years
  2. Responsibilities map - enhance transparency on reporting lines
  3. Senior managers have duty of responsibility and prove how they do this and stop/remedy breaches
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47
Q

MEM & IMPORTANT: When should the fit and proper test be done?

A

On appointment and annually of a certication function and SMF

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48
Q

IMPORTANT: The Fit and Proper Test: what are the 3 things

A
  1. Honesty, Integrity and reputation
    -Employment history (6 years)
    -criminal convictions (no time limit)
    -breaches of FCA/PRA rules
    -complaints
  2. Competence and capability
    -exam success
    -experience and training
  3. Financial soundness
    -Bankruptcy, default on loans
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49
Q

IMPORTANT Q: A regulatory reference must capture a candidate’s employment going back how many years?

A

6 years

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50
Q

IMPORTANT: What does the firms fill in to get approval from regulators for SMFs and by when should they be informed?

A

Firms use Form A to apply on behalf of SMFs
Should be informed within 90 days.

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51
Q

MEM & IMPORTANT: Individual Conduct Rules

A
  1. Must act with integrity (a breach would be deliberate) (1st FCA principle)
  2. Act with skill, care and diligence (a breach would be careless) (2nd FCA principle)
  3. Open and co-operative with the FCA, PRA and other regulators (breach would be failure to inform FCA of anything of a nature that it would reasonably expect to be informed) (11th FCA principle)
  4. Must pay due regard to the interests of customers and treat them fairly (6th FCA principle)
  5. Observe proper standards of market conduct (a breach would be failure to comply with the code of market conduct) (5th FCA principle)
52
Q

Which one of the following conduct rules applies to all persons captured by the SM&CR
regime? You must:
A Take reasonable steps to ensure the business of the firm for
which you are responsible complies with the relevant
requirements and standards of the regulatory system
B Take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the firm
for which you are responsible is controlled effectively
C Disclose appropriately any information of which the FCA or
PRA would reasonably expect notice
D Observe proper standards of market conduct

A

D - remember individual conduct rules
Market conduct is one of them!

53
Q

Which of the following best describes the FCA’s attitude with regard to the enforcement ofthe Principles for Business?
A
A firm can be prosecuted for failure to comply with theprinciples
B
The FCA will fine firms for violation of the principles
C
FCA firms can be disciplined because of a principle violation
D
The FCA doesn’t enforce the principles

A

C
Not A - cannot be CRIMINALLY prosecuted for a breach of principles, but can be disciplined. FCA can only proscute in relation to Insider dealing

54
Q

Which of the following is a breach of the ‘Integrity’ Conduct Rule?
AFailure to explain the risks of a derivative to a retail client
BMisleading a client about a transaction
CNot sending out a client agreement to an eligible counterparty
DTrading on inside information

A

B )
The first breach (Failure to explain the risks of a derivative) would be of skill, care and diligence. The second breach (Misleading a client about a transaction) would be a breach of integrity. Not sending out a client agreement to an eligible counterparty is not a breach, and trading on inside information is a breach of the Market Conduct rule.

55
Q

Which of the following would be a breach of the Conduct Rule ‘Integrity’?
A Misleading a client by providing false information
B Failing to take reasonable steps to apportion responsibilitiesclearly amongst those to whom responsibilities have beendelegated
C Permitting transactions without a sufficient understanding ofthe risks involved
D Accepting implausible or unsatisfactory explanations fromsubordinates without testing the veracity of those explanations

A

A

56
Q

IMPORTANT Q: Is the SMF 1 (Chief Executive) a PRA or FCA-designated function?

A

PRA

57
Q

MEM & IMPORTANT: What’s the maximum penalty to fail to co-operate and providing false/misleading evidence when the regulators require information/documentation whilst supervising?

A

2 years in prison or an unlimited fine

58
Q

Mem& Important: Supervision of firms: Co-operation (the fca/pra has the legal power to demand info/docs) and the section numbers

A

S165 - Must be provided within a reasonsable time frame
S167 - Direct the firm to appoint competent persons to provide FCA/PRA with any required info
S168 - Appoint a 3rd party to carry out investigation
S177 - Failure to co-operate and providing sale or misleading evidence is a criminal offence.

59
Q

IMPORTANT: What is ‘the directory’? What does it do?

A

A new public register checking the details of key people working in the financial services industry.

60
Q

IMPORTANT Q: Which act provides the legal basis for the protection of whistleblowers?

A

Public Interest Disclosure Act (PIDA) 1998

61
Q

Who do the rules on Whistleblowing apply to?

A

Deposit takers (banks, building societies and credit unions) with over £250million in assets and insurers subject to the Solvency II Directive. They are non-binding guidance for all other firms.

62
Q

IMPORTANT: What is a whistleblowers’ champion? Who should this be?

A

Under the SMCR, some firms (banks with the deposit-taking permission and insurance companies) are required to appoint a whistleblowers’ champion. Their responsibility is to ensure and oversee the integrity, independence and efectiveness of the firm’s policies and procedures on whistleblowing. This includes P&P’s intended to protect whistleblowers from being victimised. Should be a non-executive director or a senior manager if a bank doesn’t have one.

63
Q

Whistleblowing procedures within an authorised firm should:
A Ensure all concerns are escalated to the responsible senior
manager
B Keep the progress on any investigation confidential, even from
the whistleblower
C Provide a single method of disclosure to be used by
employees and other relevant staff
D Include the preparation of an annual report on the
effectiveness of the procedures

A

D - not C because disclosures should be able to be made through a range of methods. not B because firms should provide feedback to the whistleblower where feasible and appropriate and not A because ensure concerns are assessed and escalated where appropirate, not necessarily the senior manager (could be about them).

64
Q

IMPORTANT: What happens when the regulator raises an investigation on a firm? General stages

A

-Investigation launched
-Regulator puts together preliminary findings
Either:
-They find a tiny problem that has pushed boundaries but not far enough for disciplinary action, they issue a PRIVATE WARNING and this stays on their record if a problem arises again.
OR:
-Regulator hands over to Regulatory Decisions Committee to investigate further
-RDC issue a:
-Firstly a Warning notice (inform the recipient that the regulatory has the intention of providing disciplinary action, can be published with consent); Supervisory notice (things going wrong but we can help put them right -> leading to support) or Notice of Discontinuance (shouldn’t discipline) can happen any time
-Firms can respond and can their side of the story
- Then a Decision Notice (decided to take disciplinary action), supervisory notice or Notice of discountinuance
-The firm can apppeal to the Upper Tribunal within 28 days
-Then Final decision (‘we are going to take disciplinary action on this date’, will be published), Final supervisory (‘we are going to help on this particular date’), Notice of discontinuance
-Disciplinary measures

65
Q

Can a third party appeal to the Tribunal on behalf of an authorised firm against a decision
notice?
A Yes, if the appeal is made within 28 days of the notice being
issued
B No, unless the time limits for the disciplinary procedures are
extended
C Yes, if all other parties agree to this appeal being made
D No, only the firm to whom the notice was issued can appeal

A

A

66
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of the statutory notices issued by the RDC?
A
A decision notice may suggest actions that differ from thewarning notices
B
There is no right to appeal against a supervisory notice
C
There is no right to appeal a further decision notice
D
A supervisory notice will lead directly to disciplinary action

A

A - not C. You can only not appeal for final notice.

67
Q

The FCA intend to take action against a firm for a breach of a rule. Which of the followingwill inform the firm of the action proposed?
AWarning notice
BDecision notice
CFinal notice
DNotice of discontinuance

A

A The warning notice gives the recipient details about the action proposed and why the FCA proposes to do so, INTENTION, so havent DECIDED they definitely will discipline

68
Q

The FCA has decided to discipline a firm or employee for a breach of a regulation. Whichof the following notices are used to inform them?
A Supervisory notice
B Warning notice
C Decision notice
D Enforcement notice

A

C - deffo going to discipline: just don’t know how or when yet (that will come in Final Notice).

69
Q

IMPORTANT Q: What does the Regulatory Decisions Committee (RDC) have the power to do?/key responsibilities, who are the RDC accountable to?

A

FCA/PRA hand over an investigation to the RDC if they find a problem to issue statutory notices (warning/decision/final decision notices or supervisory/final supervisory Notice). They then have the power to refuse an application for Part 4A permission or cancel an existing permission. They are independent of the FCA, but close links as they are a committee in the FCA and accountable to them, but the perople deciding are independent of people launching the investigation initially.

70
Q

MEM & IMPORTANT: Which body has the power to refuse an application for Part 4A permission or cancel an existing
permission?
A Financial Conduct Authority
B Training and Competence Committee
C Regulatory Decisions Committee
D Prudential Regulation Authority

A

C ) after an investigation

71
Q

Following an FCA investigation, the Regulatory Decisions Committee can issue a range ofstatutory notices. What is the best description of a warning notice?
A
Sent by the RDC when the RDC believes no wrongdoing hasbeen done but proper procedures have not been followed
B
Sent by the FOS when a customer complaint has not beenresolved
C
Sent by the FSCS if a firm is in danger of becoming insolvent
D
Sent when the FCA believes that there is sufficient evidence tosuggest wrongdoing has taken place and it intends todiscipline

A

D - The warning notice is sent after the FCA investigation. A firm can make a representation to the RDCbased on this notice.

72
Q

IMPORTANT Q: The 3 types of Statutory Notices

A
  1. Warning Notices
  2. Supervisory Notice
  3. Decision Notices - there could also be a further decision
73
Q

Important: What statuatuory notices can lead to appeal?

A

Decision notice and Supervisory notice

74
Q

Important: Which statutuory notices can be published?

A

Final and supervisory notices can be published and the warning notice can be published with consent.
The reason you would give consent for warning is to show the regulator that you are being cooperative.

75
Q

IMPORTANT: Which of the following pieces of info is given in a decision notice issued by te FCA?
1. Decision not to proceed with the action
2. Details of the effective date
3. Right of appeal by the recipient
4. Terms of the final action

A
  1. Right of appeal by the recipient
76
Q

IMPORTANT Q: Different disciplinary measures

A

-Public statements of misconduct
-Public Censures (formal expression of severe disapproval)
-Financial penalties
-Prosecution if a crime
-Restitution order (reg apply to the courts which foreces the firm to restore to position they were in before they started providing to that client).
-Prohibition order (can only get fined for this, not imprisonable)
-Issue a private warning
-Take supervisory action e.g.: varying/cancelling firm’s part 4A/removing authorisation, withdrawing regulatory approval for a persion performing an SMF

77
Q

IMPORTANT Q: What are examples of remedial or protective actions from the FCA?

A
  1. Issuing a private warning
  2. Varying or cancelling a firm’s part 4A permission
  3. Withdrawing regulatory approval to perform a senior management function
  4. Prohibiting an individual from performing a particular role in relation to a regulated activity.
78
Q

IMPORTANT: One of the prescribed situations which could cause the FCA to withdraw a firm’s Part 4A permission would be where:
1. The firm is overdrawn at its bank for more than six months
2. The firm employs an individual who has previousy fialed that fit and proper test
3. The firm gives poor advice to a client on more than 6 occasions
4. The firm’s regulated activities have come to an end

A

4.The firm’s regulated activities have come to an end and has not applied for cancellation of its part 4A permission.

79
Q

IMPORTANT Q: What is a Private Warning? What is the aim?

A

Issued by the regulator when the behaviour of the firm/individual is wrong but they decide it’s not appropriate to bring formal disciplinary action. E.g.’s include cases of potential/unproven market abuse or where the FCA considered making a prohibition order but decided not to.
It’s helpful to let the recipient know so they have to seriously consider that person’s ability to carry out the SMF.
The benefit is that it avoids reputational damage from public sanctions.
The recipient needs to acknowledge receipt and give an appropriate response.
It stays on the company’s record.

80
Q

IMPORTANT: Which one of the following statutory notices gives the recipient the right to make representations to the FCA?
1. Decision Notice
2. Final Notice
3. Supervisory Notice
4. Warning Notice

A
  1. Warning . Not the same as appealing.
81
Q

Difference between when Public censure and Statement of Misconduct are issued

A

Public Censure - when FIRMS have contravened a requirement imposed by the regulator
State of Misconduct - for INDIVIDUALS if a person has failed to comply with conduct rules, senior conduct rules or knowingly been involved in a firm’s contravention of a requirement.

Warning notice, followed by decision notice and provides firm with the right to appeal to the Upper Tribunal

82
Q

The Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper Tribunal is operated by:
AThe PRA
BTrading Standards
CAn independent body of financial practitioners
DA government department

A

D

83
Q

The role of the Upper Tribunal

A

After receiving a decision notice, any person has the right to refer the regulator’s decision to the Upper Tribunal within 28 days of receiving the notice. The regulator must give the firm 28 days to decide.
It’s independent of the regulator and appointed by the Government’s Ministry of Justice.
Involves a full rehearing of the case and evidence whether the regulator’s decision was appropriate.

84
Q

Important: Powers of Intervention and enforcement FSA 2021, what do they say can be banned and for how long?

A

FCA can be products posing unacceptable risks to consumers - can be banned ffor up to 12 months without consultation. Allows time to makea permanent rule.
FCA can ban financial promotions deemed to be misleading - no need to go through normal enforecement process as it’s too slow.

85
Q

IMPORTANT: A client has purchased a National savings &Investments (NS&I) bond, depositary receipts and local authority loan stock. Which of these are specified investments under the Regulated Activies Order?

A

Depositary Receipts and loan stock only

86
Q

IMPORTANT: Which one of the following activities is regulated in accurance with FSMA 2000 (RAO)?
1. Provising BBG share price informaiton
2. Writing tip sheets
3.Writing a newspaper column advising on investments
4. Hositng a financial programme on television

A

if the principal purpose of a publication was the provision of investment advice (i,e, tip sheets) then the authorisaton would be required.
Newspapers and broadcasters have a specific exemption and so do providers of factual share price info.

87
Q

IMPORTANT: What power does the FCA have under s.165 of FSMA 2000?
1.Impose a financial penalty of a firm for a rule breach
2. prohibit an authorised firm form transacting business
3. Require Information about an authorised person
4. Vary a firm’s Part 4A permission where it fails to meet a threshold condition

A
  1. Require Information about an authorised person
88
Q

IMPORTANT: If a firm has allowed a controlled function to be carried out without prior approval, what redress does a private person have under Section 71 of FSMA?
1. A privateperson has no direct means of seeking redress, it is for the FCA to take action
2. They can apply for the FSCS for reimbursement of their inital investment costs only
3. a Private individual can only claim compensation for breaches of limited number of specified controlled
4. They can sure the firm for damages if they suffer loss

A
  1. They can sure the firm for damages if they suffer loss
89
Q

IMPORTANT: Which one of the following measures is most likely to be used by the FCA where a firm no longer meets its threshold conditions?
1. Financial penalty
2. Public Censure
3. Prohibition
4.Variation of Part 4A permision

A
  1. Where a firm is no longer able to meet the threshold conditions to one or moreof its regulated activiites, the FCA would be likely to issue a variation of Part 4A permission to limit its ability to perform reg activities to those areas where it still meets the threshold conditions.
90
Q

IMPORTANT: Giving investment advice in the money column of a national newspaper is:
1. Only permitted by an authorised person
2. An excluded activity under FSMA 2000
3. Covered by the execution-only selling rules
4. Subject to compliance sign-off by an authorised firm

A
  1. if a newspaper includes investment advice and that is not the principal purpose of the newspaper, then it’s excluded form the regulated activity of advising on investments,
91
Q

IMPORTANT: A firm’s application for FCA authorisation was rejected. Under what circumstances, if any, will the application fee be refunded?
1. Always
2.Only if the application was for advising and arranging
3. Only if the application was for managing investments
4. Never

A

4 Never. Neither is the the PRA’s fee.

92
Q

MEM & IMPORTANT: What’s the maximum penalty to fail to co-operate and providing false/misleading evidence when the regulators require information/documentation whilst supervising?

A

2 years in prison or an unlimited fine

93
Q

IMPORTANT Q: Which one of the following types of specified investment might represent a foreign investor’s rights over a UK company’s shares?
a) bonds
b) depository receipts
c) Futures
d) Unit trusts

A

B) rights over shares /certificates that represent shares

94
Q

IMPORTANT Q: What is the position of a trustee with regard to FCA authorisation under FSMA 2000 (Regulated Activities Order)?
a) If the settler and beneficiary of the assets are authorised, the trustee doesn’t need to be authorised
b) As the trustee has legal ownership of the assets, the trustee must be authorised
c) A trustee that does not offer investment services does not need to be authorised
d) The size of the trust business will dictate the need for authorisation

A

C
Think about the exempt activities: Unpaid trustees. Also think about the RAO: specified activity undertaken on specified investments. Trustees aren’t one of these.
A trustee is an overseer of a manager of a portfolio, they make sure the manager is acting in best interests of investors of a portfolio.

95
Q

IMPORTANT Q: What type of approach does the FCA take towards the supervision of firms?
a) Measurement-based
b) model-based
c) principles-based
d) risk-based

A

d

96
Q

IMPORTANT Q: The financial services act 2012 gave the FCA additional enforcement powers in relation to which specific form of selling?
a) Short selling
b) Execution-only selling
c) Online selling
d) Platform selling

A

A
Short selling disclosure rule-making powers to impose financial penalties those who breach short-selling rules

97
Q

MEM & IMPORTANT Q: Julie began her new career with a firm of independent financial advisers in June. By what LATEST date must she obtain the full qualification as a financial adviser if she is to avoid having to cease carrying out her duties, even under supervision?
a) June one year hence
b) December one year hence
c) June 2 years hence
d) December two years hence

I.e. what is the max number of months that someone has to obtain full qualification?

A

D
Max number of months is 30.

98
Q

IMPORTANT: Which activity falls within the scope of the Training and Competence Sourcebook and requires an individual to have a full qualification before commencing that activity?
A Providing basic advice on stakeholder products
B Advising on friendly society tax-exempt policies
C Advising on regulated sale and rent back agreements
D Providing advice on non-investment insurance products

A

B

99
Q

MEM & IMPORTANT: What is the MAXIMUM level of settlement discount normally available in relation to an enforcement penalty imposed by the FCA?
A 15%
B 25%
C 30%
D 40%

A

C

100
Q

Steve is a director within a broking firm. Under the general requirements in the Senior Manager Arrangements, Systems and Controls Sourcebook, the FCA would expect Steve to have which of the following characteristics?
AAn appropriate career history and qualifications
BAn ability to transcend the need to segregate duties within the firm
CSufficient remuneration to ensure he remains at the firm
DHe must be of good repute and sufficiently experienced

A

D
Though fit and proper tests for SM & CR will test career history and qualifications/exam success

101
Q

IMPORTANT: Spectified investments with the Regulated Activities Order (RAO)

A

Ones you’d expect:
-Shares/depositary receipts (certificates representing shares)/Warrants
-Debt instruments e.g. bonds, Gilts, loan stock (unsecured corp bonds)
-Units in collective investment schemes (unit trust/open ended investment company (OEIC)/ investment company with variable capital (ICVC)/ Hedge funds
-Options
-Futures
-Contracts for difference (CFDs) e.g. swaps and spread bets

Ones you’d not expect:
-Lloyd’s syndicates (society for insurance), insurance contracts, funeral plan contracts
-Pensions
-Regulated mortgages and home finance
- Deposits and electronic money
- Rights to specified investments, e.g. sale & repurchase agreements (Repos) (using as collateral for loans
-Loans and other forms of credit
-Emissions auction products (e.g. carbon credit)
- Benchmarks e.g. LIBOR
- Forward rate agreement
-Floating rate agreement

102
Q

IMPORTANT: Specified activities under the RAO (regulated activities order)

A

One’s you’d expect:
-Dealing in investments
-Arranging deals in investments
-Managing investments
-Advising on investments
-Operating a multilateral or organised trading facility (MTF or OTF)

One’s you wouldn’t expect:
-Safeguarding and administering investments e.g. acting as a custodian
-Sending dematerialised instructions e.g. electronic money transfer
-Lloyd’s activities, insurance activities and providing funeral plan contracts
-Mortgages: provisions, administration, advising and arranging
-Home finance activities
-Managing dormant account funds
-Accepting deposits by way of business and issuing electronic money
-Providing credit insurance or credit information services
-Establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme or pension scheme
-Agreeing to carry on most regulated activities

103
Q

The FCA intend to take action against a firm for a breach of a rule. Which of the followingwill inform the firm of the action proposed?
AWarning notice
BDecision notice
CFinal notice
DNotice of discontinuance

A

A The warning notice gives the recipient details about the action proposed and why the FCA proposesto do so

104
Q

As part of the requirements set out in SYSC, which of the following is TRUE?
A
Responsibilities must be split equally among all directors
B
All firms must maintain clear apportionment of significantresponsibilities among directors
C
Records of responsibilities must be held for a five-year periodof time
D
Directors cannot be held liable for rule breaches by employees

A

B - not A because doesn’t have to be split equally.

105
Q

2x In the event that a firm breaches the general prohibition under S19 of the FinancialServices and Markets Act 2000, which of the following is TRUE?
A
All of the firm’s contracts are void
B
Any agreements with the firm are unenforceable against the client
C
Contracts are voidable at the discretion of the court
D
Contracts are voidable at the discretion of the FCA

A

B.
Contracts can be voided with discretion of the client.

106
Q

Section 168 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 permits the FCA to appointcompetent persons to carry out investigations on its behalf if:
A
An offence has been committed
B
Too many complaints have been received
C
The firm is being liquidated
D
The Ombudsman insists that this is the case

A

A

107
Q

According to the Regulated Activities Order 2001, which of the following are specifiedinvestments?
A
Commercial property, including buy-to-let investments
B
Gold bullion
C
Insurance covering vehicle breakdown
D
Units in a collective investment scheme

A

D -
Learn the list and be confident. Tangible assets and car breakdown insurance are not specified investments (physical stuff)

108
Q

Where would a firm seeking authorisation to perform certain regulated activities find thestatutory procedures for seeking permission to perform regulated activities?
A
The Financial Services and Markets Act
B
The Criminal Justice Act 1993
C
The Financial Services Act 2012
D
The Companies Act 2006

A

A - authorisation is all FSMA.
Not C- only thing relating to FSA is the ‘powers of intervention and enforcement’ = fca can ban products with unacceptable risk for up to 12 months and ban fin promos deemed to be misleading.

109
Q

If an applicant for approved person status has a criminal history covered by theRehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 which of the following describes the right of the FCA to take thisinto account?
A
It will not be taken into account
B
It might be taken into account if relevant
C
It would be taken into account if the offence occurred withinfive years
D
It would be taken into account if the offence occurred within tenyears

A

B

110
Q

When the FCA grants an exchange with recognised status, it:
A
Confers authorisation to do investment business
B
Requires cooperation from the exchange with overseasregulators
C
Requires that the exchange must be fit and proper
D
Implies that all transactions will be settled in a timely manner

A

C - exchanges and clearing houses need to be fit and proper for their purpose.
Not A - because they are exempt from authorisation (they are instead recognised)

111
Q

For which of the following actions can a firm NOT appeal to the Tax and ChanceryChamber of the Upper Tribunal?
A
Refusal of Part 4A permission
B
Imposition of penalties under the Market Abuse Regime
C
Refusal of listing on the LSE
D
Imposition of penalties under the Criminal Justice Act

A

D - The courts decide the penalties under the Criminal Justice Act as it’s criminal (FCA just prosecutes but doesnt decide punishment for criminal activity).
The regulator just decides on Part 4A permission, market abuse and listing on the LSE.

112
Q

Which of the following is true of exempt persons under the Financial Services and
Markets Act 2000?
A They can be exempt from and authorised for the same
activities
B They can be exempt from certain activities and authorised for
others
C They cannot be both authorised and exempt regardless of
activities
D There is no distinction between exempt status and authorised
status

A

C

113
Q

Which one of the following is ALWAYS a specified activity under the Financial Services
and Markets Act 2000?
A Acting as a currency dealer
B An accountant offering investment advice
C Operating a stakeholder pension scheme
D Acting as a trustee for a trust

A

C - pensions are specified investments and this is a specified activity.
Not D - currencies aren’t specified investments unless on options or futures
Not B - Incidental to his main services
Not D - Unpaid trustees are exempt

114
Q

Which of the following is not a sanction available to the FCA in relation to a breach of the
conduct of business rules?
A Public censure
B Fine
C Prohibition order
D Disqualification of directors

A

D - Directors may only be disqualified through a court order.

115
Q

Which of the following best describes the objective of conduct risk regulation?
A Rules do matter, but outcomes for consumers and markets are
the principal focus of regulatory concern
B Prescriptive rules to manage the conduct of employees of
financial firms are the only regulatory concern
C Outcomes for consumers and markets do matter, but rules are
the principal focus of regulatory concern
D Outcomes for consumers and markets are the only regulatory
concern

A

A

116
Q

The FCAs ‘management and control’ Principle for Businesses requires firms to have adequate
systems in place specifically relating to:
A. customer fairness
B. cashflow resources
C. risk management
D. staff training

A

C
A is customer interest
B is prudential
D is a training sourcebook thing

117
Q

Which of the following is a statutory consequence of contravening the general prohibition?
A. Approved persons lose their approved status
B. A firm may not conduct any business within the UK
C. Civil proceedings may commence
D. Financial services agreements are likely to be unenforceable

A

statutory means legal. The others are more civil.

118
Q
  1. Which factor is typically NOT considered in regulators’ assessment over the fitness and propriety of
    a person performing Senior Management Functions (SMFs) within authorised firms?
    A. Honesty, integrity and reputation
    B. Competence and capability
    C. Experience and seniority
    D. Financial soundness
A
119
Q

Which of the following does NOT summarise any of the Chartered Institute for Securities &
Investment (CISI) Principles?
A. To act honestly and fairly at all times when dealing with clients
B. To ensure that staff for whom you are responsible maintain relevant standards of competence
C. To observe standards of market integrity
D. To identify and manage conflicts of interest to the best of your ability

A

B - super similar to FCA principles

120
Q

Which type of statutory notice can be issued by the FCA only with the consent of the recipient?
A. Final Decision Notice
B. Further Decision Notice
C. Notice of Discontinuance
D. Supervisory Notice

A

B -not about publishing

121
Q

Which of the following is an excluded person in the conduct of regulated activity?
A. A member of the Society of Lloyd’s
B. A firm dealing as principal
C. The London Stock Exchange (LSE)
D. An appointed representative

A

D - different to exempt to part 4A, firms who the appointed rep works on behalf of take legal responsibility for the behavior and conduct of the appointed rep.

122
Q

When a firm’s application for authorisation is reviewed, the FCA follows a set of principles.
Which of the following is NOT such a principle?
A Ensure that the firm does not pose a significant risk to the
statutory objectives
B Structure processes to support operational objectives
C Be open with applicants throughout the process to ensure they
understand what is required of them
D Look closely at the business model and the viability of the firm
over the long-term

A

The business model looks at the medium term rather than the long term.

123
Q

Which of the following set out regulations ensuring firms control information to prevent the
exchange of information that may harm the interests of one or more clients?
A Financial Stability Board
B Financial Conduct Authority
C Basel Committee
D Competition and Markets Authority

A

B - principles

124
Q

Which of these is true in relation to the Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper
Tribunal?
A It is a department of the Treasury
B An upfront fee must be paid for the initial investigation
C Cases are judged by an independent solicitor
D Its decisions are binding on the FCA

A

D because investigations can be appealed to the Upper Tribunal which are higher than the FCA in that sense.

125
Q

Who does the Regulatory Decisions Committee report to?
A The Financial Conduct Authority
B The Bank of England
C The Financial Ombudsman Service
D The Treasury Select Committee

A

A - RDC is a committee within FCA and accountable to FCA but independent of people who wanted to investigate a firm.

126
Q

With which of the below principles for business would you associate the outcomes of fair
treatment of customers?
A Principle 3
B Principle 4
C Principle 6
D Principle 8

A

C - interests of customers

127
Q

Which of these is described as exempt from the need for authorisation under FSMA
Exemption Order 2001, but only for accepting deposits?
A Lloyds Member
B Designated Professional Body
C Authorised Firm
D Local Authority

A

D - all others are exempt from any sort of authorisation from the regulator.