2 - Microbiology Flashcards

Lectures: Bacterial Upper Respiratory Infections Viral Infections of Upper Respiratory Mycobacteria and Pulmonary TB Common Acquired Pneumonia Atypical Pneumonia Endemic Mycoses Urinary Tract Infection

1
Q

What are the major pathogens responsible for infections in the:

1) Nasopharynx,
2) Oropharynx,
3) Middle ear/parasinuses,
4) Epiglottis.

A

1) Nasopharynx - VIRUS -> rhinov., coronav.
2) Oropharynx - Strep. pyrogens, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, EBV, adenovirus, enterovirus
3) Middle ear/parasinuses - Strep. pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza (non-typable)
4) Epiglottis - Haemophilus influenza type B

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2
Q

What are the identifying characteristics of Streptococcus pyrogens that could be seen in the labratory?

A

1) gram +, cocci (typically in chains)
2) catalase positive
3) B-hemolytic
4) bacitracin sensitive
other -> anti-A sera sensitivity

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3
Q

What is the primary virulent factor of Strep. pyrogens? What is its importance in disease progression?

A

M-Protein - helical, anti-phagocytic protein on the surface of S. pyrogens
Due to Molecular Mimicry, antibodies to M-protein can cross react with cardiac tissue and cause Rheumatic Fever/Rheumatic Heart Disease.

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4
Q

What are the microbiological characteristics of Haemophilus influenza?

A

1) gram -, coccobacilli (curved on short rods)
2) growth on chocolate agar
3) requires X and V factors to grow
4) best in 5-10% CO2
5) slide agglutination serotyping positive for capsule type

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5
Q

What are the microbiological characteristics of Corynebacteria diphtheriae?

A

1) gram +, rods (“Chinese letters)
2) non-motile, non-spore forming
3) catalase +

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6
Q

What are the primary diseases associated with Streptococci pyrogens?

A

Pharyngitis, scarlet fever, TS-like syndrome, pyoderma, impetigo, cellulits, rheumatic fever

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7
Q

What are the primary diseases associated with Haemophilus influenza?

A

Type b -> meningitis, epiglottis, cellulitis, acute pneumonia
Non-encapsulated - otitis media, sinusitis, conjunctivitis

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8
Q

What are the primary diseases associated with Corynebacteria diphtheriae?

A

Diptheria!!

Toxin can also target heart, nerves and cause pseudomembrane in throat.

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9
Q

What is the mechanism of Haemophilus influenza vaccine?

A

Anti-capsule antibodies act as opsonins that mediate complement-dependent phagocytosis. The Ab-Complement pair can also cause lysis.
VERY effective vaccine - high risk groups are <5mo (no/incomplete vaccination) and elderly (diminished immunity).

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10
Q

What is the structure of Rhinovirus?

A
  • Non-enveloped
  • ssRNA genome
  • icosohedral capsid
  • small
  • > 100 serotypes
  • prefers “cooler” temps of nasal passages over GI tract
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11
Q

Briefly describe the mechanism of Rhinovirus replication.

A

+ssRNA genome => encodes its own RNA polymerase

  • > binds to ICAM-1 to gain entry into the cell
  • > ssRNA undergoes translation
  • > core proteins are produced
  • > replicated virus (RNA + protein) is assembled
  • > exit cell via lysis
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12
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of Rhinovirus?

A

Lasts 2-4d and is SELF-LIMITING

  • nasal discharge/congestion
  • sore throat
  • muscle aches, fatigue, headaches, loss of appetite
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13
Q

How is Rhinovirus diagnosed and treated?

A

Diagnosis is made from symptoms.

Tx is to control symptoms and wait for virus to run its course.

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14
Q

What is the structure of RSV?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus
(-)ssRNA genome
Helical capsid
Envelope proteins -> G (attachment) and F (fusion)

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15
Q

Describe the general mechanism of RSV replication.

A
  • ssRNA genome => bind via G and F envelope proteins to fuse with cellular membrane
  • > encodes its own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  • > transcription to mRNA
  • > translation to produce required proteins
  • > new RNA and proteins assembled
  • > exit via exocytosis
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16
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of RSV?

A

Infection is usually self-limiting in 7-10d

  • runny nose
  • fever
  • labored, rapid breathing w/ wheezing/cough
  • lips turn blue (cyanosis)
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17
Q

How is RSV diagnosed and treated?

A

Dx- nasal swab/aspirates -> ELISA/DFA for rapid dx; culture for confirmation
Tx - treat symptoms, infants may need hospitalization w/ O2 supplementation
Vaccine - ribavirin used with mixed success, RespiGam and palivizumab are antibodies for RSV components (new)

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18
Q

What is the structure of Adenovirus?

A
  • ds linear DNA
  • icosahedral capsid
  • BIG (largest non-enveloped virus)
  • hexon and pentose fibers/proteins emanate from capsid (like “spikes”) that aid in attachment to cells
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19
Q

Describe the replication of Adenovirus.

A
  • infects mucoepithelial cells in respiratory tract, GI tract and eye (conjunctiva or cornea)
  • attach to receptors of host cell via fiber protein (hexon and pentose fibers)
  • migrate to clathrin-coated pits on surface and form endosomes
  • after internalization the pH drops and causes endosome rupture
  • migrates to nucleus via microtubules and nuclear pore
  • displays temporal regulation (immediate, early and late phases)
  • DNA replication
  • virion assembly
  • lyse host cell to release virus
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20
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of adenovirus?

A

Anyone -> Pneumonia
Infants/Young Children -> febrile, undifferentiated URI; Pertussis-like syndrome
Children/Adults -> pharyngoconjunctival fever
Military recruits -> Acute Respiratory Disease

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21
Q

How is Adenovirus infection diagnosed? Tx?

A

Diagnose:
-adenovirus antigen or virus can be identified in nasopharyngeal aspirates or swabs
-Serology or PCR assays are also available
TX:
-control symptoms
-self-limiting 7-10d
-limited vaccine is recently approved for military recruits in concentration areas

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22
Q

Describe the structure of Epstein Barr Virus.

A
  • enveloped
  • icosahedral capdis
  • linear dsDNA
  • encodes its own DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
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23
Q

Describe the replication of Epstein Barr Virus.

A
  • highly regulated, temporal expression of dsDNA leads to replication(immediate-early, early and late phases)
  • attach and fuse with host cell membrane
  • migrate to nucleus via microtubules
  • transcription initiated via own DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
  • some immediate-early proteins help inactivate host apoptotic signals
  • after replication, DNA exit nucleus via budding
  • exit from cell via exocytosis or cell death
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24
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Epstein Barr Virus infections?

A
  • majority are clinically inapparent
  • Acute Mononucleosis Syndrome: low-grade fever, fatigue, pharyngitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and peripheral blood monocytosis
  • in newborn infants infected in utero (transmitted from mother) can cause significant multiorgan disease
  • EBV latency can manifest in several other diseases: Lymphoma (Hodgkin’s, Non-Hodgkin’s, burkitt’s)
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25
Q

How is Epstein Barr Virus diagnosed? Tx?

A
Diagnose:
1) atypical lymphocytes
2) agglutination test for heterophile antibodies
3) ELISA for EBV antibody
4) PCR for EBV genes
Tx:
-typically self-limiting
-treat symptoms
-no vaccine available
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26
Q

Describe the cell wall of an Acid-Fast organism. What are the advantagesbfor the organism?

A

-hallmark of mycobacteria
-retain basic dyes within mycobacterial envelope when treated with acidic solutions
-due to waxes (ie. mycolic acid) reducing permeability => neither gram (-) or (+) since stain can’t penetrate
ADV -> waxes make cell much more resistant to drying, allowing it to survive both in and out of the body
->also makes them resistant to killing in phagocytes
->still susceptible to heat (ie. pasteurization)

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27
Q

Describe the transmission and stages of infection for Pulmonary TB.

A

Transmission:
- carried in “droplet nuclei” that can be aerosolized by coughing and sneezing
- can remain suspended for hours, but prolonged exposure is typically required for infection
-can also be ingested (M.bovis) in contaminated milk/milk products
Stage 1:
-seeding in mid-lower lung
-multiply in alveolar spaces
-ingested by alveolar macrophages and are killed or grow inside
Stage 2:
-logarithmic growth in macs
-dissemination of infected macs via lymph and blood
-NO HOST reaction for first 1-2wks
Stage 3:
-host humoral response -> activated macs/CD-8 T-cells destroy
-form granulomas to “wall off” infection -> primary lesion
Stage 4:
-bacteria continue to multiply in granulomas, but are isolated from immune response
-caseous necrosis in granulomas
-lesions may heal, but bacteria is still viable inside
Reactivation:
-disturbance of immune surveillance and microbial growth
-viable bacteria released to lung (typically)
-Triggers-> diminished immune response, malnutrition, aging

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28
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Pulmonary TB.

A

Historical: decreased from ‘53-‘84, but increased from ‘84-‘92 largely due to HIV epidemic and immigration; steady decrease since ‘92 due to improved public health controls
Current: highest rate in Africa and China, but incidence continue to fall
-High Risk includes increased contact with persons infected with TB, low-income populations, ILLICIT DRUG use, HIV
-small portion of those infected with develop symptoms

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29
Q

How does PPD-T work? Interpreted?

A

Culture is the “gold standard,” but too slow for screening. PPD-T looks for a memory reaction due to previous infection with TB. Positive test criteria vary by population.
>5mm is positive for:
-HIV positive
-recent contact with TB case
-persons w/ fibrotic changes on CXR
-organ transplants/immunosuppressed
>10mm is positive for:
-recent arrivals from high-risk populations
-IV drug users
-residents/employees of high-risk congregate settings
-pre-disposing illnesses
-children 15mm is positive for:
-other
** PPD-T should only be conducted on those in high-risk groups

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30
Q

How is Pulmonary TB tx?

A

Drug combination therapy is now standard due to development of drug-resistant strains. (Rifampin and Isoniazid OR Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide)
To help with compliance, and thus fight development of resistance, Direct Observed Therapy (DOT) is increasing in popularity.
XDR TB is resistant to ALL known therapies.

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31
Q

What is the pathogenesis of a primary Influenza infection? What is a secondary infection?

A
  • Virus transmitted as aerosol and imbedded in respiratory epithelium.
  • local replication in epithelium cells
  • **damage to epithelium from the virus and the subsequent immune response makes the airway susceptible to SECONDARY BACTERIAL INFECTIONS
  • no viremia
  • immune response (macrophages, lymphocytes =>cytokines, INF-g)
  • antibodies to virus generated and clearance from tissue

Secondary Infection occurs when person is re-infected, but their own symptoms are mild due to the IgA response. However, they can still infect others with the active virus.

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32
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Influenza infection?

A
  • Abrupt onset!
  • headache
  • high fever (101-103F; higher in children)
  • myalgia
  • sore throat
  • non-productive cough
  • runny/stuffy nose
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33
Q

What are some common complications of Influenza?

A
  • *Secondary Infection -> injury to respiratory epithelium from virus and the subsequent immune response makes them more susceptible to infection
  • Bacterial (common)-> after improvement of symptoms, fever reappears with productive cough Step. pneumoniae, Staph. aureus, H. influenzae
  • Viral (rare)-> failure of infection to resolve, dyspnea, hypoxia, cyanosis, severe infammation of alveoli -> ARDS
  • Cardiac infection
  • Neurological symptoms: Guillan-Barre, encephalopathy, encephalitis, Reye’s syndrome (associated with Aspirin use during infection)
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34
Q

Who is at high risk for influenza infection?

A

1) Elderly (>65)
2) residents/nurses of chronic care facilities (prolonged exposure to >65)
3) chronic pulmonary/cardiovascular disorders(including asthma)
4) frequent/regular hospitalizations
5) 6mo-18yrs who receive chronic Aspirin
6) pregnant (2nd-3rd trimester) during flu season

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35
Q

Describe the structure of Influenza virus.

A
  • RNA virus (8 segments)
  • envelope
  • haemaggutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA) surface projections (spikes) that support attachment/fusion and release/disaggregation, respectively
  • membrane within viral envelope
  • membrane ion channel(M2) important for acidification of endosome
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36
Q

Describe the infection and replication of the Influenza virus.

A

1) attachment to cell via binding of HA to surface receptor (sialic-acid glycoprotein)
2) migration to a coated membrane pit leading to endocytosis
3) acidic conditions in cell induces a conformational change in HA causing fusion of envelope and edocytotic vesicle
4) M2 membrane ion channel opens to allow inflow of H+ to vesicle, this induces uncoating and release of viral gene segments
5) viral gene segments migrate to nucleus where transcription AND RNA replication takes place (rare for RNA viruses)
6) glycoproteins made in ER, RNA in nucleus, then they are combined at cell membrane by budding
7) NA removes sialic acid receptors from virus membrane -> cannot be infected by another influenza virus

4)

37
Q

How is Influenza diagnosed?

A

1) Culture from throat swab/nasal wash in fertilized eggs
2) note cytopathic effects, immunofluorescence, hemagglutination
3) determine serotype (hemagglutination, complement fixation)
4) RT-PCR

38
Q

Describe the mechanism of antigenic variation in Influenza.

A

Two mechanisms cause antigenic variation (mutation):
1) Antigenic shift: due to reassortment of the viral genome with animal variant -> requires animal reservoir (Type A Influenza)
2) Antigenic drift: consequence of natural mutations in genome during replication; more pronounced in influenza since the RNA dependent RNA polymerase has no proof-reading capability (Type A and B Influenza)
(Type C Influenza is relatively stable)

39
Q

What vaccines are available for Influenza? Who are they recommended for?

A

1) Trivalent Inactivated Vaccine(TIV): intramuscular injection
2) Live Attenuated Influenza Vaccine (LAIV): nasal spray -> recommended for healthy patients 5-59y/o
**both vaccines produce antibodies to the HA and NA surface proteins of the viral envelope
Recommended for:
-pregnant
-caregivers/household with infant <6mo
-healthcare and emergency medical personnnel
-6mo-24y/o: due to increase risk of school age exposure and the preference of H1N1 for healthy 19-24y/o
-25-64y/o with high risk medical conditions

40
Q

What antiviral therapies are available for Influenza? What are their basic mechanisms?

A

Inhibit:
Neuramindase(NA)-> prevents removal of sialic acid receptors from cell surface and budding of new virus=> inhibits spread of virus:
-oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
-zanamirvir (Relenza)
Ion Channel(M2)-> prevents disassembly of virus in endocytic vesicle and maturation of HA glycoproteins=> inhibit cell infection and virus production
-amantadine
-rimantadine

41
Q

What are the defining characteristics of a Typical versus Atypical Pneumonia?

A

Typical - high fever, shaking chills, chest pain, LOBAR consolidation seen on CXR
-Agents: Strep. pneumoniae; Staph. aureus; Haem. influenzae, Gram neg enterics (nosocomial)
Atypical - “walking pneumonia” - less severe, dry cough, headache, systemic aches, diffuse pattern on CXR
-Agents: Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae; Legionella pneumonia, influenza and other viruses, Coxiella burnetti

42
Q

What are some common causes of subacute pneumonia?

A
  • tuberculosis

- fungal

43
Q

What are the bacterial characteristics of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A
  • Gm+, diplicocci, lancet-shaped
  • alpha-hemolytic
  • catalase negative
  • colonies appear “mucoid” due to capsule
  • optochin sensitive*
  • bile soluble*
  • these characteristics help distinguish pneumococci from normal flora
44
Q

Describe the major virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae.

A

Capsular polysaccharides

  • anti-phagocytic due to preventing complement (C3b) from binding to the surface
  • requires anti-capsule antibody for phagocytosis
  • however, ~90 serotypes of capsule prevent maintenance of immunity
45
Q

What are the major risk factors for infection with Pneumococcal pneumonia?

A

1) previous/recent viral infection of upper airway(influenza)
2) compromised pulmonary function (alcohol, anesthesia)
3) age - very young (American indian>Alaskan natives
5) impaired immunity - sickle cell anemia, splenectomy/asplenia, HIV, myeloma, lymphoma, leukemia, etc

46
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of Pneumococcal pneumonia?

A

-sudden onset of fever, chills, pleuritic pain, rusty sputum, positive blood cultures (~30%)
-typically a lobar infiltrate
Complications - lung abscess, empyema, pericarditis, meningitis, intrapleural abscess, septic arthritis

47
Q

How is Pneumococcal infection treated?

A
  • many are penicillin resistant ->empiric tx varies with time
  • different therapy is recommended based on the specific infecting orgamism
48
Q

What vaccines are available for pneumococcal pneumonia? Who are they recommended for?

A

PCV13 (Conjugate Vaccine) - combination of 13 most virulent serotypes are conjugated to proteins to generate a T-cell dependent response, thus improving immunity of children
23PC (old version) - combination of 23 most virulent serotypes, but not conjugated
Recommended: PCV13 ->children 6wks to 6yr; PS23-> everyone >65y/o

49
Q

What are the common agents associated with Atypical Pneumonia?

A
Bacterial:
-Mycoplasma pneumoniae
-Chlamydia pneumoniae 
-Chlamydia psittaci
-Coxiella burnetti
Viral:
-Adenovirus
-Parainfluenza virus
-Epstein-Barr virus
-RSV
50
Q

What is the mechanism of infection of Mycoplasma peumoniae?

A
  • Entry via respiratory track
  • Attach at lower respiratory track via P1 adhesion (no invasion, just tight association)
  • Secrete CARDS toxi -> Lead to ciliostasis and vacuolization-> deteriorate cilia both structurally and functionally
  • Impaired clearance and mucous accumulation
  • Cell Mediated Immune response leads to additional tissue damage
51
Q

How is M. Pneumoniae diagnosed?

A

Dx of exclusion

  • Cultures are difficult due to the specific growth requirements and ability to spread
  • serology shows a >4x rise in antibody
  • cold hemagglutinins is non-specific
52
Q

What is the Tx for M. pneumoniae pneumonia?

A
  • Antimicrobial can help with symptoms

- Antibiotics: Tetracycline, Erythromycin/Azithromycin, (NOT B-Lactams)

53
Q

Describe the Elementary and Reticulate Bodies of Chlamydia.

A
Elementary Bodies
-small, dense
-extracellular
-Infectious form
-metabolically inactive
-disulfide cross-liked to membrane
Reticulate Bodies
-large
-intracellular
-replicative form
-metabolically active
-osmotically fragile
54
Q

Describe the Chlamydia developmental cycle.

A

Elementary bodies(EB) attach to the outer membrane via disulfide bonds and promote endocytosis.
Reorganization forms the Reticulate Body within vesicle.
Multiplication within vesicle of RB. Antigen proteins are expressed on host cell surface, preventing further infection.
RB convert to EB. Now appear as large cytoplasmic inclusion.
Vesicle and cell lyse, releasing EB to continue infectious process.

55
Q

How is Chlamydia diagnosed?

A

Serology - IgM titer >1:64 OR 4x rise in IgG in a four week growth
Culture - difficult and restricted to specific labs due to contagious nature

56
Q

What are the common niches for Legionella?

A
  • air-conditioning cooling towers
  • Whirpool spas
  • sink taps and shower heads
57
Q

What are the common niches for pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A
  • soil and water
  • fresh fruit and vegetables
  • whirlpools, sinks, respiratory therapy eat
  • common nocosomial contaminant
58
Q

What are common risk factors for legionnaire’s disease?

A
  • immunosuppressed/AIDS
  • cigarettes
  • alcohol abuse
  • > 50y/o
  • hematological malignancies
  • males>women
59
Q

What are the structural characteristics of Legionella?

A

-Gram (-) (but do NOT take up stain well due to capsule)
-specific culture req’s= Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract agar, amino acids, and iron
-

60
Q

What is the typical manifestation of a respiratory infection with Legionella?

A

Legionnaire’s Disease

  • fever, chills, headache, malaise
  • diarrhea, nausea
  • interstitial pneumonia
61
Q

What is the typical manifestation of a respiratory infection with psuedomonas aerginosa?

A
  • fever, sepsis

- tissue damage in airways

62
Q

What are the structural characteristics of Psuedomonas aeruginosa?

A

Gram (-)
Flagellated
strict aerobes
Nonfermenters - use oxidative metabolism

63
Q

What diseases are associated with Psuedemonas aeruginosa?

A
  • pneumonia in Cystic Fibrosis patients
  • burn infections
  • nosocomial infections
  • cellulitis
  • folliculitis
  • UTI
  • swimmers ear
64
Q

How is Psuedemonas aeruginoas ID’d in the Lab?

A
  • growth on MacConkey (lactose -)
  • oxidase (+)
  • pigment production (green)
  • glucose oxidation
  • grape bubblegum-like smell (characteristic)
65
Q

What is a dimorphic fungi?

A

One that can exist as either a mold or yeast.

66
Q

What are the most common causes of endemic mycoses?

A

Histoplasmosis
Blastomycosis
Coccidiodomycosis
Paracoccidioidomycosis

67
Q

How is Histolplasmosis typically acquired?

A
  • mold lives in soil with high nitrogen (bird/bat droppings –> guano)
  • disturbances to soil lead to aerosolization
  • spreads through aerosol transmission of SPORES
68
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Histoplasmosis?

A

Inhaled as spores, mature to yeast form in lungs.
Once phagocyosed by macrophages, they multiply and can be spread throughout the body.
2-3wks after initial infection, cellular immunity develops. This leads to granulomas to form.
Some yeast form remain within granulomas and can cause relapses of the disease years later.

69
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Histoplasmosis?

A

Most are asymptomatic.
Pulmonary can be:
1)Acute - mild, self-limiting, fever, sweats, cough, headache/GI (sometimes)
-diffuse pulmonary infiltrates
2)Subacute (weeks) - fever, sweats, cough, weight loss, hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy
-focal/patchy pulmonary infiltrates
3)Chronic - fever, cough, sweats, weight loss
-interstitial/consolidative infiltrates, bullae, calcifications
**can lead to Progressive Disseminated Histoplasmosis –>can be fatal if not Tx quickly; most common in immunocompromised

70
Q

How is Histoplasmosis diagnosed?

A

Culture - 2-4wks for results
Fungal stain - fast, but low sensitivity
Serology - fast and sensitive, but several false +/-
Antigen - fast, low sensitivity (best for disseminated disease)

71
Q

How is Histoplasmosis treated?

A

Most are self-limiting -> no Tx
Moderate - Itraconazole (anti-fungal)
Severe - Amphotericin B (anti-fungal)

72
Q

How is Blastomycosis typically acquired?

A
  • Mold grows in soil and leaf litter
  • disturbances release spores
  • transmitted via aerosol
  • *dogs 10x more susceptible –> history of sick dog is big hint for blasto
73
Q

What is the pathogenesis of blastomycosis?

A
  • Spores inhaled and imbed in alveoli.
  • organisms change into yeast in lungs
  • multiply by budding (characteristic “broad base” budding from parent cell)
  • disseminated hematogenously before immunity develops
74
Q

What is the typical clinical presentation of blastomycosis?

A

-most are asymptomatic
-pulmonary, cutaneous, bone and genitourinary presentations
Pulmonary:
1)Acute pneumonia - presents as atypical (walking) pneumonia w/ alveolar infiltrate -> no response to antibiotics
-mass-like lesions can be mis-dx as cancer
2)Subacute/Chronic pneumonia - fever, sweats, fatigue, weight loss
** called the Great Pretender for its ability to present as other pathologies (bacterial pneumonia, Cx, etc)

75
Q

How is blastomycosis diagnosed? Treated?

A
Dx:
-Histopathology
-culture --> any colonies believed to pathogenic since not part of normal flora
-serology - poor specificity
Tx:
Intraconazole, Amphotericin B
76
Q

What is the typical clinical presentation of Coccidiodomycosis?

A

-most are asymptomatic
Valley Fever/San Joaquin Valley Fever -> model planes-> dust
-self-limited pneumonia (1-3wks after exporure)
-fever, cough, chest pain, fatigue, shortness of breath, chills aches, night sweats, weight loss (potentially lasting for months)
-Chronic (5-10%) can develop into a “cavernous lung disease with eosinophilia” -> this is rather specific for cocci.

77
Q

How is coccidioidomycosis diagnosed? Treated?

A
Dx:
-direct microscopy of sputum/tissue
-culture -> must warn lab due to infectious nature
-serology
Tx:
itraconazole/fluconazole, amphotericin B
78
Q

What is the typical clinical manifestations of Paracoccidioidomycosis?

A
  • usually asymptomatic
  • acute, subacute, or chronic pneumonia
  • can develop into a disseminated disease (chronic mucocutaneous ulcers, meningitis)
79
Q

How is Paracoccidioidomycosis diagnosed? Treated?

A
Dx:
-direct microscopy
-tissue biopsy
-culture
Tx:
itraconazole, amphotericin b
80
Q

Histologically describe the four most common edemic mycosis.

A

Histoplasmosis:
mold - white/brown hyphal colonies -> large balls w/ spikes
yeast - “dot disease” - small,intracellular, uninucleate ovals
Blastomycosis:
mold - white/tan filamentous colonies - > small conidia on terminal hyphae
yeast - spherical, multinucleated, thick double-contoured walls
Coccidioidomycosis:
mold - barrel shaped, segmented hyphae
yeast - collections of arthroconidia collect as spherules
Paracoccidioidomycosis:
mold - ??
yeast - round with multiple buds -> pilot wheel

81
Q

Describe the clinical manifestation of UTIs.

A

Cystitis -> dysuria, frequent urination, suprapubic pain –> must rule out STI
Pyelonephritis-> flank pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, chills, C-reactive protein, bacteremia (30%)

82
Q

What are the major virulence factors of Escherichia coli?

A
  • Type 1 fimbriae -> reversible expression which allows them to either implant in bladder(ON) or ascend to upper tract (OFF)
  • P pili ->adherence in kidneys
  • Hemolysin ->damage cell membranes
  • Cytonecrotizing factor (CNF toxin) -> degrades actin cytoskeleton
83
Q

How is staphylococcus saprophyticus identified in the lab?

A
  • gram (+) cocci clusters
  • gamma-hemolytic (non-hemo)
  • catalase positive
  • coagulase negative
  • *Novobiocin resistant
84
Q

What are the high risk groups for uncomplicated, complicated and catheter-associated UTIs?

A

Uncomplicated -> women, sexual intercourse, diaphragm/spermacide use, pregnant
Complicated -> metabolic disorders that cause impaired urine drainage, stones
Catheters-> chronic catheterization

85
Q

What are the common microbes associated with uncomplicated, complicated and catheter-associated UTIs?

A

Uncomplicated -> E. coli(enterobacteriaceae family), Staph. saprophyticus
Complicated -> Staph. aureus, Staph. epididemis, Proteus mirabilis
Catheter -> Enterococcus faecalis, Enterococcus faecium

86
Q

What is the role of biofilms in UTIs?

A

Significant virulence factor for Staph. epi, Staph. aureus, Enter. faecalis, Psuedomonas aeruginosa, E. coli and Proteus mirabilis.
Produces extracellular polymers that facilitate adhesion and protect microbes for antibiotics/host defenses. Detachment can lead to sepsis.
VERY important in Catheter-associated UTIs

87
Q

What is the major virulence factor of Proteus mirabilis?

A

Member of Enterococcus family and is commonly involved in complicated upper UTI.
Swarming motility allows it to “swim” up the ureter against urine flow.
Produces characteristic “ripple pool” rings around initial culture. Indicates coordination in swarming pattern.

88
Q

How are UTIs diagnosed?

A

1) Specimen collection:
a) voided (“clean-catch, mid-stream”) specimen
b) Catheter samples -> from “flowing” urine
c) Suprapubic aspiration -> for those without bladder control (coma, infants)
2) Urinalysis: dipstick for chemical content, examine sediment for WBC, bacteria and/or urinary (granular) casts
3) Urine Culture: 0.1ml sample on plate, count colonies and multiple by 1000 to compare to “norms” given the collection system