2 Evaluation of the Urologic Patient Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common causes of colorless urine, and how can I remember them?

A

Use the mnemonic “Very Overly Dilute”:
- Very: Very dilute urine
- Overly: Overhydration
- Dilute: Very dilute urine

Common causes of colorless urine:
- Very dilute urine
- Overhydration

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2
Q

What are the common causes of cloudy/milky urine, and how can I remember them?

A

Use the mnemonic “Phosphates Produce Clouds”:
- Phosphates: Phosphaturia
- Produce: Pyuria
- Clouds: Chyluria

Common causes of cloudy/milky urine:
- Phosphaturia
- Pyuria
- Chyluria

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3
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of cloudy urine?
    a. Bacterial cystitis
    b. Urine overgrowth with yeast
    c. Phosphaturia
    d. Alkaline urine
    e. Significant proteinuria
A
  1. c. Phosphaturia. Cloudy urine is most commonly caused by phosphates in the urine.
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4
Q
  1. Conditions that decrease urine specific gravity include all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. increased fluid intake.
    b. use of diuretics.
    c. decreased renal concentrating ability.
    d. dehydration.
    e. diabetes insipidus.
A
  1. d. Dehydration. Conditions that decrease specific gravity include (1) increased fluid intake, (2) diuretics, (3) decreased renal concentrating ability, and (4) diabetes insipidus.
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5
Q
  1. Urine osmolality usually varies between:
    a. 10 and 200 mOsm/L.
    b. 50 and 500 mOsm/L.
    c. 50 and 1200 mOsm/L.
    d. 100 and 1000 mOsm/L.
    e. 100 and 1500 mOsm/L.
A
  1. c. 50 and 1200 mOsm/L. Osmolality is a measure of the amount of solutes dissolved in the urine and usually varies between 50 and 1200 mOsm/L.
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6
Q
  1. Elevated ascorbic acid levels in the urine may lead to false-negative results on a urine dipstick test for:
    a. glucose.
    b. hemoglobin.
    c. myoglobin.
    d. red blood cells.
    e. leukocytes.
A
  1. a. Glucose. False-negative results for glucose and bilirubin may be seen in the presence of elevated ascorbic acid concentrations in the urine.
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7
Q
  1. Hematuria is distinguished from hemoglobinuria or myoglobinuria by:
    a. dipstick testing.
    b. the simultaneous presence of significant leukocytes.
    c. microscopic presence of erythrocytes.
    d. examination of serum
    e. evaluation of hematocrit.
A
  1. c. Microscopic presence of erythrocytes. Hematuria can be distinguished from hemoglobinuria and myoglobinuria by microscopic examination of the centrifuged urine; the presence of a large number of erythrocytes establishes the diagnosis of hematuria.
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8
Q
  1. The presence of one positive dipstick reading for hematuria is associated with significant urologic pathologic findings on subsequent testing in what percentage of patients?
    a. 2%
    b. 10%
    c. 25%
    d. 50%
    e. 75%
A
  1. c. 25%. Investigators at the University of Wisconsin found that 26% of adults who had at least one positive dipstick reading for hematuria were subsequently found to have significant urologic pathologic findings.
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9
Q
  1. The most common cause of glomerular hematuria is:
    a. transitional cell carcinoma.
    b. nephritic syndrome.
    c. Berger disease (immunoglobulin A nephropathy).
    d. poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis.
    e. Goodpasture syndrome.
A
  1. c. Berger disease (immunoglobulin A nephropathy). IgA nephropathy, or Berger disease, is the most common cause of glomerular hematuria, accounting for about 30% of cases.
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10
Q
  1. The most common cause of proteinuria is:
    a. Fanconi syndrome.
    b. excessive glomerular permeability due to primary glomerular disease.
    c. failure of adequate tubular reabsorption.
    d. overflow proteinuria due to increased plasma concentration of immunoglobulins.
    e. diabetes.
A
  1. b. Excessive glomerular permeability due to primary glomerular disease. Glomerular proteinuria is the most common type of proteinuria and results from increased glomerular capillary permeability to protein, especially albumin. Glomerular proteinuria occurs in any of the primary glomerular diseases such as IgA nephropathy or in glomerulopathy associated with systemic illness such as diabetes mellitus.
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11
Q
  1. Transient proteinuria may be due to all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. exercise.
    b. fever.
    c. emotional stress.
    d. congestive heart failure.
    e. ureteroscopy.
A
  1. e. Ureteroscopy. Transient proteinuria occurs commonly, especially in the pediatric population, and usually resolves spontaneously within a few days. It may result from fever, exercise, or emotional stress. In older patients, transient proteinuria may be due to congestive heart failure.
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12
Q
  1. Glucose will be detected in the urine when the serum level is above:
    a. 75 mg/dL.
    b. 100 mg/dL.
    c. 150 mg/dL.
    d. 180 mg/dL.
    e. 225 mg/dL.
A
  1. d. 180 mg/dL. This so-called renal threshold corresponds to a serum glucose level of about 180 mg/dL; above this level, glucose will be detected in the urine.
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13
Q
  1. The specificity of dipstick nitrite testing for bacteriuria is:
    a. 20%.
    b. 40%.
    c. 60%.
    d. 80%.
    e. >90%.
A
  1. e. >90%. The specificity of the nitrite dipstick test for detecting bacteriuria is greater than 90%.
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14
Q
  1. All of the following are microscopic features of squamous epithelial cells EXCEPT:
    a. large size.
    b. small central nucleus.
    c. irregular cytoplasm.
    d. presence in clumps.
    e. fine granularity in the cytoplasm.
A
  1. d. Presence in clumps. Squamous epithelial cells are large, have a central small nucleus about the size of an erythrocyte, and have an irregular cytoplasm with fine granularity.
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15
Q
  1. The number of bacteria per high-power microscopic field that corresponds to colony counts of 100,000/mL is:
    a. 1.
    b. 3.
    c. 5.
    d. 10.
    e. 20.
A
  1. c. 5. Therefore 5 bacteria per high-power field in a spun specimen reflect colony counts of about 100,000/mL.
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16
Q
  1. All of following is true of uroflowmetry EXCEPT:
    a. Qmax >20 mL/s is not consistent with obstruction.
    b. Qmax, mean flow rate, and voided volume are parameters obtained from this study.
    c. 80 mL voided volume is adequate for uroflowmetry.
    d. the study can be performed in sitting and standing positions.
    e. uroflowmetry cannot diagnose the location of obstruction.
A
  1. c. 80 mL voided volume is adequate for uroflowmetry. The minimum voided volume that is accepted as a requirement for considering an adequate assessment is at least 100 mL.
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17
Q
  1. The following should be given to uncomplicated patients undergoing simple flexible diagnostic cystourethroscopy:
    a. single-dose oral antibiotic following procedure
    b. 3 days of oral antibiotics following procedure
    c. 3 days of oral antibiotics starting the day prior to procedure
    d. nothing
    e. single intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone following procedure
A
  1. d. Nothing. For patients undergoing simple diagnostic flexible cystoscopy no antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended unless there are extenuating risk factors for infection or recent orthopedic implantation of artificial joints. Refer to American Urological Association (AUA) recommendations on antibiotic prophylaxis for urological procedures.
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18
Q
  1. What is the most appropriate initial workup for asymptomatic microscopic hematuria (AMH)?
    a. Flexible cystoscopy, urinary cytology, CT urogram, and UroVysion FISH
    b. Flexible cystoscopy and CT urogram
    c. CT urogram and NMP22
    d. Flexible cystoscopy, urinary cytology, and CT urogram
    e. Flexible cystoscopy, renal ultrasound, and urinary cytology
A
  1. b. Flexible cystoscopy and CT urogram. For the initial work-up of AMH, routine urine cytology is not necessary. Cytology is generally utilized in patients with a history of bladder cancer undergoing surveillance or the index of suspicion of a high-grade lesion is present.
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19
Q

What are the common causes of red urine, and how can I remember them?

A

Use the mnemonic “Hearty Hemoglobin Anomalies Cause Phenomenal Phenomenon Rarely”:
- Hearty: Hematuria
- Hemoglobin: Hemoglobinuria/myoglobinuria
- Anomalies: Anthocyanin in beets and blackberries
- Cause: Chronic lead and mercury poisoning
- Phenomenal: Phenolphthalein (in bowel evacuants)
- Phenomenon: Phenothiazines (e.g., Compazine)
- Rarely: Rifampin

Common causes of red urine:
- Hematuria
- Hemoglobinuria/myoglobinuria
- Anthocyanin in beets and blackberries
- Chronic lead and mercury poisoning
- Phenolphthalein (in bowel evacuants)
- Phenothiazines (e.g., Compazine)
- Rifampin

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20
Q

What are the common causes of orange urine, and how can I remember them?

A

Use the mnemonic “Dye Pee Solution”:
- Dye: Dehydration
- Pee: Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
- Solution: Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

Common causes of orange urine:
- Dehydration
- Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
- Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

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21
Q

What are the common causes of yellow urine, and how can I remember them?

A

Use the mnemonic “Normal Pee Routine”:
- Normal: Normal
- Pee: Phenacetin
- Routine: Riboflavin

Common causes of yellow urine:
- Normal
- Phenacetin
- Riboflavin

22
Q

What are the common causes of green-blue urine, and how can I remember them?

A

Use the mnemonic “Blue Birds Always Inspire More Pretty Rainbows Too”:
- Blue: Biliverdin
- Birds: Indicanuria (tryptophan indole metabolites)
- Always: Amitriptyline (Elavil)
- Inspire: Indigo carmine
- More: Methylene blue
- Pretty: Phenols (e.g., IV cimetidine [Tagamet], IV promethazine [Phenergan])
- Rainbows: Resorcinol
- Too: Triamterene (Dyrenium)

Common causes of green-blue urine:
- Biliverdin
- Indicanuria (tryptophan indole metabolites)
- Amitriptyline (Elavil)
- Indigo carmine
- Methylene blue
- Phenols (e.g., IV cimetidine [Tagamet], IV promethazine [Phenergan])
- Resorcinol
- Triamterene (Dyrenium)

23
Q

What are the common causes of brown urine, and how can I remember them?

A

Use the mnemonic “Ugly Puddles Always Create Foul Muddy Nonsense”:
- Ugly: Urobilinogen
- Puddles: Porphyria
- Always: Aloe, fava beans, and rhubarb
- Create: Chloroquine and primaquine
- Foul: Furazolidone (Furoxone)
- Muddy: Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- Nonsense: Nitrofurantoin (Furadantin)

Common causes of brown urine:
- Urobilinogen
- Porphyria
- Aloe, fava beans, and rhubarb
- Chloroquine and primaquine
- Furazolidone (Furoxone)
- Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- Nitrofurantoin (Furadantin)

24
Q

What are the common causes of brown-black urine, and how can I remember them?

A

Use the mnemonic “A Hard Muddy Trail Can Make Miles Suck”:
- A: Alcaptonuria (homogentisic acid)
- Hard: Hemorrhage
- Muddy: Melanin
- Trail: Tyrosinosis (hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid)
- Can: Cascara, senna (laxatives)
- Make: Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
- Miles: Methyldopa (Aldomet)
- Suck: Sorbitol

Common causes of brown-black urine:
- Alcaptonuria (homogentisic acid)
- Hemorrhage
- Melanin
- Tyrosinosis (hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid)
- Cascara, senna (laxatives)
- Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
- Methyldopa (Aldomet)
- Sorbitol

25
Q

What are the common glomerular disorders in patients with glomerular hematuria and their frequencies?

A

Use the mnemonic “I Must Find Familial Membranes Making Focal Units Suck Post-Suboptimal Options”:

  • I: IgA nephropathy (Berger disease) - 30 patients
  • Must: Mesangioproliferative GN - 14 patients
  • Find: Focal segmental proliferative GN - 13 patients
  • Familial: Familial nephritis (e.g., Alport syndrome) - 11 patients
  • Membranes: Membranous GN - 7 patients
  • Making: Mesangiocapillary GN - 6 patients
  • Focal: Focal segmental sclerosis - 4 patients
  • Units: Unclassifiable - 4 patients
  • Suck: Systemic lupus erythematosus - 3 patients
  • Post-: Postinfectious GN - 2 patients
  • Suboptimal: Subacute bacterial endocarditis - 2 patients
  • Options: Others - 4 patients

Common glomerular disorders in patients with glomerular hematuria:
- IgA nephropathy (Berger disease) - 30 patients
- Mesangioproliferative GN - 14 patients
- Focal segmental proliferative GN - 13 patients
- Familial nephritis (e.g., Alport syndrome) - 11 patients
- Membranous GN - 7 patients
- Mesangiocapillary GN - 6 patients
- Focal segmental sclerosis - 4 patients
- Unclassifiable - 4 patients
- Systemic lupus erythematosus - 3 patients
- Postinfectious GN - 2 patients
- Subacute bacterial endocarditis - 2 patients
- Others - 4 patients
- Total: 100 patients

26
Q

What is the evaluation process for glomerular hematuria based on history and specific findings?

A
  1. Family history of hematuria and/or abnormal urinalysis:
    • Familial nephritis
      • Associated finding: Deafness (Alport nephritis)
  2. Rash, arthritis:
    • Increased C3, C4, ANA: Systemic lupus erythematosus
  3. Hemoptysis, bleeding tendency:
    • Microcytic anemia: Goodpasture syndrome
  4. Recent upper respiratory or skin infection/rash:
    • Increased ASO titer, C3 level: Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
  5. Related to exercise:
    • Normal ASO titers, C3 level: Renal biopsy for IgA, IgG, β1c-globulin
      • Diagnosis: IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
  6. No other symptoms/signs:
    • Serum creatinine, creatinine clearance, 24-hour urinary protein: Renal biopsy
      • Possible diagnoses: Mesangioproliferative, mesangiocapillary, or membranous glomerulonephritis
27
Q

Q: What is an alternative to the four-aliquot test described by Meares and Stamey?

A

A: Obtaining two aliquots of urine, one before prostatic massage and one following prostatic massage.

28
Q

Q: What did one study demonstrate about the two-aliquot technique compared to the four-aliquot test?

A

A: The two-aliquot technique showed concordance with the four-aliquot test described by Meares and Stamey.

29
Q

Q: What should be done in the case of a female patient with suspected recurrent UTIs or a history of antibiotic-resistant infections?

A

A: A catheterized urine sample should always be obtained.

30
Q

Q: What complications can arise if urine is allowed to stand at room temperature for longer periods?

A

A: Bacterial overgrowth may occur, the pH may change, and red and white blood cell casts may disintegrate.

31
Q

Q: What alternative method can be used for urine collection when appropriate in neonates and infants?

A

A: Collection of urine via suprapubic aspiration.

32
Q

Q: What is the typical, normal urine color and what causes it?

A

A: Pale yellow, caused by the presence of the pigment urochrome.

33
Q

Q: How can phosphaturia be diagnosed?

A

A: By acidifying the urine with acetic acid, which will result in immediate clearing, or by performing a microscopic analysis revealing large amounts of amorphous phosphate crystals.

34
Q

Q: What is chyluria and how does it affect urine?

A

A: Chyluria is an abnormal communication between the lymphatic system and the urinary tract, resulting in lymph fluid being mixed with urine.

35
Q

Q: What are some of the substances detected by urine dipstick tests?

A

A: Specific gravity, pH, blood, protein, glucose, ketones, urobilinogen, leukocyte esterase, and nitrites.

36
Q

Q: What common medication may interfere with dipstick analysis and how?

A

A: Phenazopyridine (Pyridium), which turns the urine bright orange and makes dipstick evaluation unreliable.

37
Q

Q: Describe the technique for obtaining an accurate dipstick determination.

A

A: Completely immerse the dipstick in a fresh uncentrifuged urine specimen, withdraw it quickly while drawing the edge along the rim of the container to remove excess urine, hold the dipstick horizontally until the appropriate time for reading, and then compare with the color chart.

38
Q

Q: What can cause a faulty diagnosis with a urine dipstick?

A

A: Excess urine on the dipstick or holding it in a vertical position, which allows mixing of chemicals from adjacent reagent pads.

39
Q

Q: What can cause false-negative results for glucose and bilirubin on a urine dipstick?

A

A: Elevated ascorbic acid concentrations in the urine.

39
Q
A
40
Q

Q: What can highly buffered alkaline urine cause in dipstick testing?

A

A: Falsely low readings for specific gravity and false-negative results for urinary protein.

41
Q

Q: What is the usual range for specific gravity of urine determined by a urinary dipstick?

A

A: 1.001 to 1.035.

42
Q

Q: What does a specific gravity less than 1.008 indicate?

A

A: It is regarded as dilute.

43
Q

Q: What does a specific gravity greater than 1.020 indicate?

A

A: It is considered concentrated.

44
Q

Q: What specific gravity is associated with acute or chronic renal insufficiency?

A

A: 1.010.

45
Q

Q: What conditions can increase specific gravity of urine?

A

A: Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus (caused by glycosuria), inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone, and any condition causing dehydration.

46
Q

Q: What can cause a rise in specific gravity above 1.035?

A

A: Intravenous injection of iodinated contrasts and administration of dextran.

47
Q

Q: What is osmolality and its usual range in urine?

A

A: A measure of the amount of material dissolved in the urine, usually varying between 50 and 1200 mOsm/L.

48
Q

Q: What issue can arise with very dilute urine (below 308 mOsm) in terms of assessing red blood cells?

A

A: Reliable assessment can be compromised due to lysis.

49
Q

Q: What is the typical pH range of urine, and what is considered average?

A

A: Urinary pH may vary from 4.5 to 8; the average pH varies between 5.5 and 6.5.

50
Q

Q: What exception exists for the general rule that urinary pH reflects serum pH?

A

A: Renal tubular acidosis (RTA), where the serum is acidemic but the urine is alkalotic.

51
Q
A