2: Common Viral syndromes/ Rabies Flashcards

1
Q

what is a quick way to know if a virus has DNA or RNA?

A

if it causes cancer - DNA, b/c incorporate it into genome, which causes the growth dysregulation
-one exception: Hep C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe the virus that causes polio

A

picornavirus

  • nonenveloped
  • RNA
  • enterovirus
  • infects oropharynx tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why does polio have a longer incubation period?

A

infects oropharynx, then secreted into saliva and swallowed, then multiples in intestinal mucosa and lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how often does polio get into the CNS and what does it cause?

A

1% invades CNS to replicate in motor neurons of spinal cord or brain stem - paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the cellular receptors used by polioviruses?

A

members of Ig superfamily (chromosome 19)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what do Ig superfamily members bind to?

A

integrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what do selectins bind to?

A

surface carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

polio vaccines?

A

Salk- inactive polio virus injection

  • requires booster
  • no risk of paralytic disease

Sabin (oral) - attenuated polio virus

  • risk of paralytic disease, esp in immunocompromised
  • greater duration of immunity
  • induction of IgA production in GI tract
  • “free immunization” by virus shed in stool
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

common viral syndromes of URT

A
  • adenovirus
  • rhinovirus
  • echovirus
  • coronavirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

common viral syndromes of LRT

A
  • influenza
  • parainfluenza
  • RSV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

common viral syndromes of GI tract/liver

A
  • rotavirus (kids)
  • Norovirus (cruises)
  • hepatitis A,E
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the cause of more than 50% of common colds?

A

rhinovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does rhinovirus bind to?

A

ICAM-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pathogenesis of rhinovirus

A
  • slight damage

- hypersecretion due to bradykinins and inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

second most common cause of common cold?

A

coronavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

symptoms of coronavirus

A
  • profuse nasal discharge

- little effect on LRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

function of hemagglutinin

A

binds to sialic acid-containing proteins and lipids on most cells and mediates entry into cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

function of neuraminidase

A

may play a role in releasing virus from host cells (cleaves sialic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A,B, or C: which causes pandemics/epidemics of flu? what do the others do?

A

A

others infect mostly kids

20
Q

what syndrome is this associated with in kids and with what medicine?

A

aspirin in kids for flu -> Reye’s syndrome

21
Q

most common cause of myocarditis

A

coxsackie

22
Q

pathology of flu

A
  • mucosal hyperemia with lymphomonocytic and plasmacytic infiltration of submucosa
  • hypersecretion
  • obstruction due to secretions results in secondary bacterial infections - most deaths from secondary bacterial pneumonias
23
Q

antigenic drift vs. antigenic shift

A

drift: mutations year to year

shift: cause of major epidemics - introduction of new isotype/subtype of virus by recombination of two different flu viruses or 2 different viruses, particularly a human + an animal virus
- shift must involve change in HA, may/may not involve NA

24
Q

what is croup and what causes it?

A

acute laryngotracheobronchitis

  • parainfluenza type 3
  • acute febrile illness w/ inspiratory stridor, hoarseness, and barking cough
25
Q

most common cause of viral pneumonia in children less than 2 y/o

A

RSV

26
Q

common cause of death in infants aged 1-6 mo

A

RSV

27
Q

what accounts for most forms of pneumonia and bronchiolitis (croup) in children

A

RSV

28
Q

typical presentation of RSV

A

severe pneumonia in infants:

  • infant w/ history of fever, cough, poor feeding
  • appears ill
  • high RR
  • XR w/ patchy bilateral infiltrates
29
Q

common cause of acute respiratory disease and pneumonia in military recruits

A

adenovirus

30
Q

what will histology of adenovirus show?

A

cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions

31
Q

pathology of adenovirus

A

epithelial necrosis with sloughing

32
Q

what three bugs can cause pneumonias in immunosuppressed people?

A
  • CMV
  • varicella
  • HSV
33
Q

two fecal/oral viruses that don’t cause GI disease

A

enteroviruses - coxsackie, poliovirus

34
Q

major cause of diarrhea in infants

A

rotavirus - most common at time of weaning (IgA in mother’s milk protective)

35
Q

pathology of rotavirus

A

destroy mature host epithelial cells

36
Q

what does norwalk agent cause

A

epidemic viral gastroenteritis

37
Q

name some GI viruses

A

coronavirus can cause diarrhea
enteric adenoviruses
Hep A, E

38
Q

transmission of rabies

A

contamination of open wounds or mucous membranes by saliva from infected animals

39
Q

what animals account for most cases of animal rabies in US

A

raccoons
foxes
skunks

40
Q

in US, how are most humans infected

A

bats or cats who have been infected by bats

41
Q

pathogenesis of rabies

A
  • virus excreted in saliva of infected animal
  • saliva contaminates bite wound
  • virus replicates, travels through axons to CNS (weeks)
  • establishes infection in brain
  • virus travels through nerves to salivary glands
  • in salivary gland, virus excreted in saliva
42
Q

symptoms of rabies

A
  • hydrophobia

- CNS sx

43
Q

histology of rabies

A

Negri bodies in purkinje cell bodies

44
Q

what is the only way rabies can be diagnosed?

A

direct examination of brain tissue from animal

45
Q

pre-exposure prophylaxis for rabies

A

vaccination series of 3 injections + boosters if bitten

46
Q

post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies

A
  • check animals for rabies (kill or quarantine)
  • if no animal, then vaccinate
  • vaccination series, 5 injections
  • rabies-specific gamma globulin