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Sergeant Test > #2 > Flashcards

#2 Flashcards

1
Q

Generally, if you violate Miranda, is physical evidence (dead bodies, SFSTS, dope) suppressed?

A

No, this doesn’t generally create a fruit of poisonous tree effect.

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2
Q

Generally, if a defendant and his attorney request an interview do you need to mirandize them?

A

No

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3
Q

Miranda deals with which amendments?

A

5th - self incrimination 6th - counsel14th - due process

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4
Q

Miranda: for Miranda, the presence of an attorney means:

A

Before and during questioning

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5
Q

Miranda: to ascertain the nature of an emergency is known as the:

A

Public safety exception

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6
Q

Who has the burden of proof to show a Miranda waiver was intelligently and knowingly made?What’s the test?What’s the burden?

A

The prosecutionTotality of circumstancesPreponderance of evidenceAN AFFIRMATIVE RESPONSE USUALLY SATISFIES THIS

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7
Q

Who has the burden of proof in proving a statement was voluntarily made in Miranda??

A

With a proper Miranda waiver, it is presumed to be voluntary. The burden of proof is on the DEFENDANT to challenge voluntariness. If proven, the burden shifts back to the state.Totality if circumstance test is used

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8
Q

What is fresh pursuit:

A

PC A person is wanted for a serious felonyInside a home/private placeIs about to flee

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9
Q

What are the three parts to plain view:

A
  1. Officer is in a position they have a legal right to be.2. Immediately apparent items are probably contraband/evidence 3. Seizure can be made without substantial additional intrusion “lawful right of access”
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10
Q

S+S• Exclusionary Rule and the Objective Test Under this rule, the legality of a search is based on objective reasonableness.Therefore the officers underlying intent is _________

A

Not RelevantFocus on his actions, not what he was thinking.

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11
Q

You may search an empty or abandoned vehicles if you have “_____________” to believe a weapon may be in the vehicle.

A

Reasonable suspicion

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12
Q

LVMPD limits the community care taking doctrine to (2)

A

Welfare checks and vehicle stops.

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13
Q

At a corrections facility, a strip search for weapons or contraband is based of what? And who is contacted?

A

Reasonable suspicionA corrections supervisor

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14
Q

Absent exigent circumstances or consent, officers are required to obtain a SW to enter a structure owned by a 3rd party to serve an AW or to make a PC arrest. SW must state why they think the bad guys there and why it’s reasonable to enter instead of wait.: rule

A

STEAGALD RULE.

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15
Q

Field strip searches shall be conducted rarely for life safety with the explicit approval of a BLANK and only in the presence of a BLANK.

A

Lieutenant Supervisor

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16
Q

When may officers seize a person? (4)AVIL

A

ArrestVehicle stop (driver and passenger)Investigative detentionL2K

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17
Q

In a structure, to do a limited sweep FOR WEAPONS in a subjects immediate access, an officer just needs:

A

To be legally present.

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18
Q

When may Officers seize a vehicle?(3)VIS

A

Vehicle stopImpoundSearch warrant

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19
Q

Per policy (search and seizure). What is a motor vehicle:

A

Vehicle operating or capable of behind operated.Self-propelled or towedThis includes trailers and motor homes etc.

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20
Q

All strip searches will be conducted by officers:

A

Of the same gender.

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21
Q

During a terry stop, Officers are allowed to ascertain (2)

A

Identity and purpose.

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22
Q

Per the handbook, may police do vehicles searches on a roadblock?

A

Yes, with PC!!Dog sniffs are ok too

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23
Q

What is hot pursuit:

A

A dangerous or felony suspect is fleeing from policeAn officer has DIRECT KNOWLEDGE of the suspects location, justifying a warrantless entry

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24
Q

What is the only consensual body cavity search?

A

A buccal swab

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25
Q

Consent to search: electronically record consent on a BWC includes : DATE, TIME, and EVT#…there for what other three things need to be recorded:

A

1.name of the person consenting2. Type of investigation3. Description of the location searched.This is for structures and vehicles.

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26
Q

What court case set the standard of the 4th amendment being reasonable and legitimate and pointed out the it protects people not places?

A

Katz v US

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27
Q

What are the non-criminal investigation exceptions where the 4th amendment does not apply?

A

No standingOpen viewAbandonmentDetention facilitiesAirport searchesPrivate citizens (not agents)Trash outside the curtilage. Book adds DOG SNIFFS

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28
Q

For a consensual search (this is listed under vehicles) if no report is generated, how is consent documented?

A

CAD prior to clearing the call.

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29
Q

S+SAre federal LEO’s operating in NV bound by state restrictions such as the 60 min rule for terry stops?

A

NoSo even if you break the 60 min rule and find dope etc… if the case goes federal you will be judged by federal law, not state.

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30
Q

FA impounds will be for (2) and where is this articulated?

A

Life safety or to determine ownership.This is documented and articulated in the property report narrative.

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31
Q

T/F Officers will not search a vehicle incident to arrest?

A

TRUE

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32
Q

Consent to search: what is done with the ORIGINAL consent to search card:

A

It’s scanned into OnBase.

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33
Q

Apparent authority for consent means (3):

A

Did police believe an untrue fact.Was it objectively reasonable to believe the fact.Had the fact been true it would grant actual authority.It’s your burden to prove this!!

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34
Q

Search incident to arrest only applies to persons who will be taken to a:

A

Detention or law enforcement facility.

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35
Q

There are two types of traffic offenses:

A

Primary and secondary.

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36
Q

In order to gain consent per the SS manual, police may not threaten to obtain a warrant:

A

When the threat is baseless. Meaning: if you CAN get a warrant you can mention it, but if you have no PC for a warrant and threaten it, it will be tossed

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37
Q

S+SDefine this:Police intrusion on a legitimate expectation of privacy, or physical intrusion.

A

Search

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38
Q

Who has the burden of proof in proving consent to search:

A

The state! By clear and persuasive evidence

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39
Q

BLANK to believe that a BLANK has been committed is required to conduct a “traffic stop”.

A

Probable causePrimary offense

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40
Q

Strip searches at a detention facility are based off RS. The results are documented on a:

A

Arrest report or impaired driving report

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41
Q

During a terry stop, the 60 minute rule doesn’t apply when:

A

An officer develops probably cause for an arrest.

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42
Q

In order for a search to be considered a strip search, there must be:

A

A removal of clothing to permit a visual inspection.

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43
Q

Absent exigency circumstances or consent, officers are required to have either an AW or SW to enter a structure to make a PC arrest rule:

A

PAYTON RULE

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44
Q

According to the manual, in terms of a seizure of a person, the court will examine:

A

If a REASONABLE PERSON felt free to leave from the subjects perspective

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45
Q

Per the SS manual, who has the burden of proof in proving a mistake by the police was reasonable?

A

The state

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46
Q

Per policy, vehicle frisks, what containers/compartments shall not be frisked?

A

Any LOCKED containers

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47
Q

S+SDefine this:Police interference with a person’s freedom of movement or interference with a person’s right to possess or control an item.

A

Seizure

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48
Q

What are the four prongs to a consensual person stop…per policy

A
  1. No justification2. Must feel free to leave at any time3. A persons movement can not be impeded in any way by the Officers actions.4. Consent may be revoked at anytime.
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49
Q

How long may it take to return a firearm for safekeeping??

A

An excess of 30 days

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50
Q

What’re the two circumstances to make an exigency entry into a structure.

A

Probable cause to believe:1. Prevent destruction of evidence of a serious felony offense.2. Make a warrant less arrest if a violent/dangerous suspect who officers believe committed a serious felony/violent offence and may escape if not immediately apprehended.

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51
Q

CI strip searches are with ______ Officers BEFORE and AFTER the operation

A

2

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52
Q

In order to do a SITA, what justification is required?

A

Policy justified! No additional PC or RS

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53
Q

When may Officers seize property?(5)PASS-P

A

Plain viewAbandonmentSearch warrantSafekeepingPremise freeze (electronic devices)

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54
Q

Placing holds on vehicles must be approved by who and how?

A

Investigative unitsRadio, telephone or in personRecord their P# on the impound

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55
Q

S+ST/F: Mistakes by Police in Search and Seizure will always result in evidence being suppressed at court.

A

Not an automatic disqualifier. The State carries the burden in proving the mistake was reasonable and not negligent

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56
Q

(This is list under structures and vehicles and under consent) for safety concerns per policy, BLANK officers must be present when a search is conducted.

A

2

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57
Q

For the community care taking doctrine, entry into a structure must be (2)

A

Timely and related to life safety.

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58
Q

Per policy, a probable cause search is based on:

A

A “fair probability”

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59
Q

In a structure, an officer legally present needs what to sweep for persons?

A

R/S

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60
Q

During a traffic stop, if a driver refuses to produce documents what is the leave of resistance and who WILL respond to determine how to proceed?

A

Passive, a supervisor.

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61
Q

Prior to obtaining a SW for a blood sample, an officer MUST first request:

A

Consent

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62
Q

For community care taking doctrine, entry into a structure will be documented how? How will property damage be documented?

A

Entry - CADDamage - Officers report and photos.

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63
Q

S+S• STANDING – This means the accused has _____, dominion, _____ and access to the place or item searched.

A

AuthorityControlNote: It is on the ACCUSED to demonstrate this at the burden of preponderance of evidence (51/49) in a suppression claim.

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64
Q

The fourth amendment protects an expectation of privacy that must be both (2)

A

Reasonable and legitimate.

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65
Q

S+S• GOOD FAITH – This is an OBJECTIVE test and not subjective. This mainly deals with ___________

A

officers relying on bad info such as laws that were binding at the time but later ruled unconstitutional. Two specific limits are 1) if the legislature wholly abandoned its responsibility to enact constitutional laws or 2) reasonably well trained officers should have known the law was unconstitutional.

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66
Q

When may Officers seize a structure/residence?(2)PS

A

Premise freezeSearch warrant

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67
Q

What’re the three documentation forms of consent per policy (referring to vehicles and structures)

A
  1. Electronically recorded2. Written3. Verbal
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68
Q

For the PAYTON RULE, you MUST have probable cause that the suspect: (2)

A

Resides at the locationIs currently present

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69
Q

When considering “seizures” reasonable suspicion is judged/determined by:

A

Totality of circumstances, objectivelyBy a preponderance of evidence -pg60

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70
Q

According to the USSC, emergency entries require:

A

Probable cause

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71
Q

Per SS manual, “police only required to have ________________ of exigency to make warrantless entry to perform a WELFARE CHECK”

A

Reasonable suspicion

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72
Q

9th circuit case: only a ______ exigency need be shown where entry can be accomplished without:In reference to DV

A

Mild exigencyWithout destruction of property

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73
Q

Body cavity searches are only reasonable for:

A

Risk of substantial bodily harm or death if contraband is not removed

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74
Q

Pursuit: who WILL relinquish their primary spot?

A

Motorcycles, unmarked (must still have equipment), marked SUV out of patrol.

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75
Q

Transporting prisoners: hobbles will not secure a prisoners legs to?

A

Fixed positions inside a vehicle.

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76
Q

Transporting prisoners: for an escape in another jurisdiction, what does the transporting officer do?

A

Notify communications if possible and the jurisdiction it occurred in. Do an officers report detailing the events.

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77
Q

DV: if the suspect or victim is an LVMPD member, who does the SGT notify immediately?

A

The Area LT to RESPOND.Note: WC or CIS Supervisor is also notified of ANY LE employee to RESPOND

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78
Q

Transporting prisoners: with screen, no more than two prisoners will be transported?

A

Without supervisory approval.

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79
Q

DV: what’s the process for the sgt of the suspect has a previous Dv conviction and is in possession of a FA and or Ammo??

A

Notify the Area LT.Ensure a firearms notification is done and faxed to the local ATF. Note: officer also should fax to lvmpd ccw disposition detail.Impound accordingly “evidence- prohibited person”.

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80
Q

Pursuit: the finality of a vehicle pursuit die to either suspect apprehension, crashing of the suspect, or suspect lost/evasion.

A

Termination of pursuit.

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81
Q

Cit: ED, what are the two supervisor responsibilities?

A

1.respond for advice, ensure appropriate back up, and appropriate decisions are made.2. Ensure all necessary foes are completed.

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82
Q

DV- for bsbh, awdw Bwdw, or strangulation with injury, felony DV who does the sgt notify?

A

Family justice center detectives (FJC)

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83
Q

Transporting prisoners: unless physically impossible, before the vehicle is in motion prisoners

A

Will be secured with the vehicles restraints (seat belt)!

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84
Q

Where is the use of stop sticks documented?

A

A pursuit report

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85
Q

What are two circumstances that would limit a supervisor for allowing a pursuit from another agency to occur?

A

1.Insufficient information2. Pursuit does not fit our policy.

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86
Q

CIT: when will CIT not be dispatched?

A
  1. Vague nonviolent suicide threats2. Intentional/accidental overdose (1&2 unless reported 421a or escalating volatile circumstances)3. Subjects transported to hospital and officers are needed for reports only.
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87
Q

Officers will not deploy spikes:PTHWA

A

Per deployment tacticTransporting prisonersHarm is demonstrated unless effective cover is available.Weapon or dangerous locationAtv, 2-3 wheeler, hazmat

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88
Q

Transporting prisoners: no screen, one officer?No screen two officer?

A

Front passengerRear passenger, second officer sits behind driver

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89
Q

Transporting prisoners: When practical, prisoners will be searched by?

A

Officers of the same sex.

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90
Q

Pursuit: before conducting a car stop for a stolen vehicle officers will:

A

Request the air unit and give it adequate time to arrive before activating their light and siren.

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91
Q

When a pursuit is occurring, what is the supervisors 3 responsibilities.

A
  1. Acknowledge “I am supervising this pursuit”2. Order discontinuation when dangers outweigh the need to apprehend.3. Condsider pit and stop sticks
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92
Q

CIT: supervisor will respond, assume command and control of appropriate tactics for (3).

A
  1. Suicidal subjects under violent/volatile circumstances2. Persons experiencing signs of ED3. Any event where circumstances clearly indicate the potential to become violent.
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93
Q

Code 3: who arrives via radio?

A

1st and 2nd arriving

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94
Q

Pursuit: supervisors who allow the pursuits to continue must consider the following initiation and evaluation factors: (6)

A
  1. Whether the need to apprehend outweighs the dangers of the pursuit.2. Whether the suspect is known and/or can be apprehended at a later time.3. Vehicle, pedestrian, road conditions 4. Nature of area Urbana/ rural5. Weather conditions6. Alternatives to pursuit including availability of air unit, stop sticks, pit, arrest later.
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95
Q

CIT: ED consideration…3 C’s MT

A

CITContainmentCustody planDo the plan once MEDICAL is present if possible, and TRANSFER custody as soon as practical.

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96
Q

If a pursuit leaves Clark county and continues, officers and supervisors WILL NOT:

A

Request the other agency to actively join in the pursuit.

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97
Q

CIT: at a mental facility, juveniles under a court order will not be arrested unless

A

Notification is made to the court issuing the order.

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98
Q

Who does the pursuit report (except when death or deadly force is used).

A

Anyone who assumed the primary position at any point regardless of duration

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99
Q

Transporting prisoners: officers transporting will not be diverted to any other activities unless (3 Prong)

A

Risk to 3rd party is clear and grave.Risk to prisoner(s) is minimal.Supervisory approval.

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100
Q

For a pursuit from another agency, officers will be “primary” in the secondary role unless/until (4)

A
  1. A unit from that agency takes their spot2. Pursuit doesn’t meet our policy.3. Information indicates danger outweighs the need to apprehend.4. A supervisor orders discontinuation
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101
Q

Code3 can be used for:

A
  1. Imminent dangers to citizens, officers might save lives.2. Officer needs assistance controlling a volatile situation3. Reliable information of a felony in progress.4 pursuits
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102
Q

Pursuit: vehicles in a pursuit must be equipped with siren and lights visible from:

A

Front, back, and both sides.

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103
Q

CIT: supervisors will:(6)CARSWA

A
  1. Ensure officers have Cit in line up next to name.2. Acknowledge notification and monitor to ensure CIT is enrt.3. Respond when….4. Ensure SWAT/CNT are notifies when necessary.5. Notify the WC when necessary6. Review and approve CIT AAR by end of shift.
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104
Q

For court ordered admissions, a CIT patrol officer is dispatched under what two conditions:

A

The order is verified by the DSD Records Section and the WC approves it.

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105
Q

CIT: when will supervisors be requested to immediately respond to a mental health facility?

A

When facility personnel request officers to disarm in an emergency situation.

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106
Q

CIT: for mental patient walk aways, after apprehension and transport, what do the officers need to do?

A

An officers report concerning the circumstances, the party and the facility taking custody.

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107
Q

Transporting prisoners: for an escape, what does the transporting officer do?

A

Notify communications and attempt to recapture.

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108
Q

Who responds if a citizen vehicle is damaged (stop sticks or wrecked in PIT

A

WC

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109
Q

At the conclusion of a pursuit (termination), the supervisor will:

A

Respond to the termination point, assume responsibility for the scene, reports, and notifications.

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110
Q

Transporting prisoners: No screen: one officer won’t transport more than one, nor a two officer more than two, without?

A

Supervisory approval

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111
Q

Who approves pursuits leaving Clark county?

A

The WC or field LT

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112
Q

CIT:for walk aways, DSD will need to obtain?

A

Walk away mental patients apprehension request.

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113
Q

Code3: who monitors code 3 response and cancels if necessary?

A

The field supervisors

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114
Q

Transporting prisoners: What hobbles are not allowed?Officers will not attempt to hobble a prisoner without

A

Rope.The assistance of another officer

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115
Q

Transporting prisoners: whenever possible, prisoners who are sick, mentally Ill, or injured will be transported:

A

In the same manner as other prisoners.

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116
Q

Transporting prisoners: prisoners of both sexes may be transported together as long as

A

The ability to restrict contact exists.

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117
Q

Transporting prisoners: for combative prisoners, officers may blank them or blank

A

Gobble or transport them separately.

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118
Q

Code 3: who notifies communications of their code 3 status via radio?

A

The primary officer

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119
Q

True or false? District court order admissions L2K or mental petition creates exigent circumstances ON THEIR OWN?

A

False.

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120
Q

When may officers drive code 2 (lights only)5

A
  1. Stop violators2. Upon arrival where siren may signal suspects3. Traffic hazard/slow speed4. Authorised motorcade sgt or above5. Not to solely cross intersections! On non emergency calls
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121
Q

CIT: when will CIT officers be dispatched?

A
  1. Disturbances with subjects known or reported to have mental illness2. Subjects threatening violent suicide3. Subjects experiencing signs of excited delirium.4. Mental patient walk always located and being taken into custody.
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122
Q

Tire deflation pre-deployment is authorised only by:

A

Specialized units.

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123
Q

Pursuit: when will pursuits be conducted (2).

A
  1. For a violent felony, or2. If the bandit presents a clear and immediate danger to the public.
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124
Q

Pit non-deadly Force: per policy of tires are deflated as a result of a tire deflation device, what level of force is this?

A

Non-deadly

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125
Q

Transporting prisoners: prisoners and officers of opposite sex, officers will enter in the tablet

A

Start/stop mileage to the 10th.Voice with no tablet.

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126
Q

DV: if any LE employee is a suspect or victim, the SGT will immediately notify?

A

The WC, if unavailable, the CIS supervisor

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127
Q

DV: if it is reasonably believed pimp/prostitution, Vice will be notified. When will they not assume the investigation?

A

If the relationship is not expressly stated.

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128
Q

Patrol recerts on cit?

A

6 hours every 2 years

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129
Q

For any arrest at a mental facility, what is the last step for the officer.

A

Notify their supervisor.

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130
Q

CIT: at a mental health facility, an arrest will be made only (2)

A

If the supervising physician will complete a voluntary indicating the crime was not a result of mental illness AND is willing to discharge.

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131
Q

Transporting prisoners: vehicles are searched when?

A

Start of shift and immediately before and after transport

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132
Q

Transporting prisoners: when will prisoners be put in a police vehicle without being cuffed?

A

Extraordinary situations with supervisor approval.

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133
Q

Pursuit: the primary unit may request the field supervisor for additional units to pursue if necessary, what is the stand amount?

A

Primary, secondary, and third.

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134
Q

When deploying spikes, officers mustPLCSBR

A
  1. Assist unit engaged in Pursuit.2. Pick a Location in the pathway 3. Communicate their location4. Have a Sightline to see the approaching vehicle5. Have a deploying Barrier6. Retract!
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135
Q

Requests from physician, social worker, RN to transport mentally ill lvmpd should:EXCEPT FOR COURT ORDERED ADMISSIONS

A

Advise to seek private transport or ambulance unless approved by a supervisor.

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136
Q

Pursuit: officers involved in a motor vehicle collision during an emergency response or a pursuit will immediately discontinue unless:

A
  1. No other unit is available to assume the pursuit/respond2. Damage is minor and unit can still operate without danger. 3. There are no apparent injuries as a result of the accident.
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137
Q

Code 3: 2nd Officer on advises of code how?3rd Officer on advises of arrival how?

A

MDT, not breaking the RED!

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138
Q

DV: For station reports, of a reported battery occurred in the last 24 hours, and/or visible injuries/ evidence exist, who is notified.

A

On duty patrol sgt, officers will respond to complete the investigation.

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139
Q

Who reviews pursuit reports??

A

The shift LT

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140
Q

Transporting prisoners: under no circumstances will a person under arrest be held in a transport vehicle longer than than how long? Before being transported and booked

A

2 hours

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141
Q

Pursuit: there will be no code 3 caravanning or paralleling of units…

A

Without supervisor approval. Note: by definition paralleling and caravanning are code responses

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142
Q

DV: when ever DV is a part of the investigation of any offense, the investigation will be assigned to the appropriate area commands investigative detail except for:

A

Homicide, fraud/forgery, sexual assault, sex trafficking, bSBH, felony DV, awdw, felony strangulation, child/elder abuse.420, 432, 426, 424, vice&fjc

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143
Q

(Clark county) arrests are limited to:BLANK(CLV) suspects may be booked for:

A

The single most serious felony, gross mis. Or misdemeanor. Except violent crimes! Will book on multiple.All appropriate misdemeanor offenses.

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144
Q

The determination an arrestee needs medical attention may be made by BLANK. Who is notified and approves an officers discretion to continue booking?

A

The booking sergeant with input from the CCDC medical services vendor.The WC

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145
Q

If an officer chooses not to book, they will not make the decision to release without?

A

Providing the arrestee an option for obtaining medical care ( the officer may call for private transportation).

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146
Q

When may officers transport to the hospital or ER?

A

Non life threatening, must release to medical not just a drop off!

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147
Q

The arrestee is going for medical, the officer may:

A

Issue a citation or will submit for a warrant before the end of shift.

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148
Q

Officers will not release anywhere but:

A

CCDC, CLV, HENDERSIN JAIL OR THE HOSPITAL

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149
Q

When may felonies/gross be combined with misdemeanors?

A
  1. Crimea against an Officer.2. Mandatory arrests (417/409)3. The charge leads to the felony(Sita)
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150
Q

In Clark county, multiple charges are approved by? How is this noted?

A

A supervisor, initials and P# will be on TCR and all subsequent reports.

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151
Q

What is needed at CCDC prior to leaving?

A

TCR and DOADOA is typed for all felonies and gross misdemeanor

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152
Q

Supervisors review the DOA for?

A
  1. Justification for multiple charges.2 PC3 articulation of elements4 quality.Once entire report is completed and fastened. Sign and mark approved on LVMPD 124. ENSURE ALL REPORTS ARE SCANNED APPROPRIATELY.
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153
Q

Medical: arrestees will not be released for:

A
  1. Crimes against an officer.2. Mandatories3.violence with significant injuries 4 violence with deadly weapon5. 4266. 427ADDITIONALLY: weigh if it is in the best interest of the department to cite or submit for other crimes
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154
Q

What is the time limit to NCF before the release must be coordinated with the DA?

A

48 hours

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155
Q

When may officers make arrests without warrants?

A

1.FGM in presence!2.FG not committed in presence but PC crime was committed and accused committed it.3. PC person is ABOUT to commit a FELONY.4. Juvenile M not committed in presence.5. Traffic offenses delineated6. DV.

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156
Q

Elements to make an arrest:

A

1 show of authority by an officer in words actions or both that would cause a reasonable person they are being deprived of their liberty more than temporarily. AND2. Submission to show of authority OR3. Physical touching to take the person under control.

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157
Q

When does a supervisor sign the property report prior to being transported?

A

Cash over 100, non cash over 250

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158
Q

DV and DUI: What is entered that requires a member not to use or possess a firearm?

A

Extended order for protection

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159
Q

DV and DUI: if an extended order for protection is entered, what are the firearm limitations?

A
  1. May only carry a department authorised firearm2. Only while in the performance of their duties
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160
Q

DV and DUI: who determines if an employee meets the criteria for court referred action?

A

DC contacts the Clark County Manager if Employee Assistance and Wellness Programs

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161
Q

DV and DUI: the sgt will address behaviour through: 2

A
  1. Discipline2. Counseling training or care programs
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162
Q

Arrests will not be routinely NCFd from

A

Las Vegas city detention center

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163
Q

Ncfs, the Patrol sgt, Detective, or Detective sgt will review ARs to determine validity of arrests based off of 3 (APE)

A

1.PC for each element2. Applicability of the crime charged3. Presence of additional evidence to support the charge.

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164
Q

Arrests: a person which property is being released to should put what in the circumstances section of the property report?

A

Name, phone number, signature

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165
Q

Arrests: arrestee signs where when releasing property on the property report?

A

Owners Signature portion.

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166
Q

Arrests: when is Miranda given to the arrested IF INTEROGATION IS TO FOLLOW?

A

At the time of arrest or as soon as possible

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167
Q

When does Sgt notify FJC?

A

Dv: BSBH, AWDW, BWDW, strangulation w injury

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168
Q

Transporting prisoners: resident officers transporting two prisoners of same or opposite sex will sit where?If they’re combative the LEAST violent will sit where? When may more than two be transported?

A

The rear of the vehicle.The front passenger seat.Supervisor approval.

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169
Q

Transporting prisoners: Specialty restraints will not be use unless:

A

Approved by a supervisor

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170
Q

Pursuit:Who SHOULD relinquish the primary spot?

A

Supervisors

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171
Q

Pursuits: If a motorcycle, unmarked, or SUV outside or community/tourist safety division is primary and relinquishes. At the conclusion of the pursuit they WILL:

A

Proceed to the end point of the pursuit

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172
Q

Pursuits:PIT at deadly force is for: (3)

A
  1. Continued movement of the pursues vehicle would place others in danger of substantial bodily harm or death and/or2. Apparent risk of harm, other than the occupants, is so great as to outweigh the risk of a forcible stop. And3. Other means of apprehension have been considered and rejected as impractical
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173
Q

For CODE 2 driving, officers must drive ____or_____ the speed limit.

A

At or below

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174
Q

Only ___________________ are authorized to use Code 3.

A

Commissioned personnel

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175
Q

Typing messages and use of cell phone are _______________ during a code 3 response.

A

Prohibited

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176
Q

Transporting prisoners: if a prisoner is seated in a vehicle for an extended period of time consideration should be given to (2).

A

Leaving the safety barrier lowered, and opening the FRONT windows slightly.

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177
Q

Transporting prisoners: prisoners WILL NOT be left alone in a vehicle unless:

A

Under close observation

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178
Q

Transporting prisoners:Handcuffs WIIL NOT be removed until:

A

Prisoner is placed in a holding cell or into custody of corrections, court, medical, etc.

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179
Q

Transporting Prisoners:Prisoners are handcuffed behind the back unless:

A

Impractical or impossible.

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180
Q

Transporting Prisoners:The trailing end of a hobble will be anchored:

A

Out the passenger door

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181
Q

Transporting Prisoners: When may Prisoners be transported face down?

A

On an ambulance gurney with permission of medical personnel.

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182
Q

CIT: if a subject is active military or an active reservist in crisis, who will you notify?

A

Nellis AFB security forces watch desk

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183
Q

CIT: who approves CIT AARs by the end of shift?

A

The supervisor

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184
Q

CIT: For an L2K, a person mutilates, attempts suicide, inflicts harm etc. this occurs at the call of within the preceding ___#__ days

A

30

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185
Q

CIT: per NRS, once a person is L2Kd, prior to going to a mental facility they must??(This is in policy…although we really have nothing to do with this)

A
  1. Examined at the hospital for medical problems outside of the mental illness,2. Receive treatment for such medical problems (admitted)
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186
Q

CIT: all of the circumstances for an L2K must be documented and articulated to show an ___________________ exception to the 4th amendment.

A

Exigency circumstance.

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187
Q

CIT: All Legal 2000s will be entered into the ____________________

A

SCOPE system using COT entry codes

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188
Q

CIT: Holding cells _____________ be used for restraining mentally ill persons.

A

Will not

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189
Q

CIT: supervisors will ensure the L2K forms are scanned into:

A

OnBase

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190
Q

CIT: when MOST and CIT detail have created a call/439 in an area, who do they advise?

A

Communications and the area supervisor

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191
Q

CIT: deaf or hard of hearing persons will be given ___________ unless exigent circumstances exist.

A

Primary Consideration

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192
Q

CIT: hearing impaired individuals have the right to use their hands to communicate. For an arrested, safety permitting, an officer may: (2)

A

Cuff in the front (NOT DURING TRANSPORT)Transport to a secure facility to allow for the subject to be uncuffed

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193
Q

CIT: For hearing impaired, written questions and answers will be: (2)(Copies and originals)

A
  1. Copies are forwarded to records.2. Originals are placed in evidence
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194
Q

CIT: For dead or hearing impaired, who is informed of their impairment and preferred aid prior to leaving booking??

A

The booking Sgt.

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195
Q

CIT: an arrestee May waive their right to an interpreter in:

A

Writing

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196
Q

CIT : on public or private property, officers may standby while homeless camps are cleaned up, but ______________ participate in removal or prevent belonging retrieval without a legitimate reason.

A

Will not

197
Q

CIT: city/county clean up crews may be requested by officers when the encampments are on:

A

Public property

198
Q

CIT: An officer arresting a homeless person WILL NOT bring all of their property based on their safety, the safety of booking personnel, and evidence vault. If property isn’t taken, such as soiled pillows and blankets, where is this documented?

A

An officers/arrest report as appropriate

199
Q

CIT: For questions about shelters and services, or disposal of hazardous items, who may be contacted?

A

The homeless liaison

200
Q

CIT: HIS personnel posses no police powers and WILL NOT be:

A

Left alone with victims, witnesses, suspects

201
Q

CIT: only as a last resort should people be taken into protective custody for intoxication. They will be delivered to:

A

WESTCARE -civil protective custody/ detox center

202
Q

CIT: westcare will not accept (for protective custody (5)

A
  1. Psychotic (suicidal,homicidal, uncontrollable, out of contact with reality)2. Drug overdose3. Persons on PCP4. Delirium Tremens5. Injuries that require immediate medical.
203
Q

CIT: the drug/alcohol program is intended for __________ only

A

Adults

204
Q

DV and DUI: who ensures any reduction in discipline retains the designation of the initial discipline?

A

The immediate supervisor

205
Q

DV and DUI: as a Sgt, you will coordinate any voluntary follow up care through:

A

PEAP

206
Q

DV and DUI: the employees supervisor will address the employees behavior through:

A
  1. Discipline and/or2. Counseling, training, and care programs
207
Q

DV and DUI: for a sustained IAB complaint, in order to participate in treatment, counseling, or training an employee must be _________ and must meet criteria according to:_____________

A

1.Agreeable2. Clark County Manager of Employee Assistance and Wellness Programs

208
Q

DV and DUI: while not on-duty, the firearm will be stored with/by:

A

The Bureau Commander or designee

209
Q

DV and DUI: Members subject to a __________________ May only carry a _______________ firearm and only in the performance of their duties.

A
  1. Extended order for protection2. Department Authorized
210
Q

DV and DUI: DV and DUI cases may depart from the criminal violations by LE directive EXCEPT FOR _______________

A

Notifications

211
Q

Arrest procedures: A supervisor will weigh what (2) when determining to release an arrestee to medical?This doesn’t include the mandatory 6

A

If it’s in the best interest of the arrestee If it’s in the best interest of the department.

212
Q

Arrest procedure:Detectives will submit the case to the DA (felonies and gross) within ________ working days of the criminal complaint.

A

5

213
Q

Arrest procedures:The DA reviews all cases submitted and files charges on ALL appropriate offenses. If the suspect is released from custody warrants or summons will be issued by:

A

The court

214
Q

DV: what misdemeanor crimes get an entire booking package?

A

Batt DV and violation of protective orders

215
Q

CIT: if an interpreter is used and recorded, it will be:

A

Impounded by the person requesting the interpreter

216
Q

Vehicle pursuits:A pursuit with a primary, secondary, and third unit is taking place. Who will broadcast progress if feasible? (Assuming the air unit is NOT there)

A

The secondary unit.

217
Q

Vehicle pursuits:Who will designate a supervisor to monitor a pursuit IF the officers supervisor is not available?

A

Communications

218
Q

Vehicle pursuits:A pursuit with a primary, secondary, and third unit is taking place. Who will broadcast progress if feasible? (Assuming the air unit is NOT there)

A

The secondary unit.

219
Q

Vehicle pursuits:Who will designate a supervisor to monitor a pursuit IF the officers supervisor is not available?

A

Communications

220
Q

Code 3: 1 and 2 units arriving will ______________or_____________ as needed. Field supervisors will ______________ or ______________ code 3 as warranted.

A

1 continue or discontinue2 cancel or direct

221
Q

What should be documented in an L2K? MACD

A

MedsActions/statementsContact info (family, relatives)Diagnosis

222
Q

Supervisors review all applicable reports in Blue Team for accuracy and completeness, what 3 documentations are done?

A
  1. Document how use of force was justified and adhered to policy.2. Document training deficiencies and how they were corrected.3. Document any identified misconduct and how it was addressed.
223
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: who acts as the IC until relieved by the LT or WC?

A

First supervisor on scene.

224
Q

Intentional use of more than one ECD simultaneously is:

A

Prohibited.

225
Q

Unintentional discharge of a firearm that does not cause injury or death to a person, or the humane euthanising of injured or dangerous animals.

A

Other firearm discharge.

226
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: the IC should also:5

A
  1. Establish a command post2. Establish 3 staging areas (yours, PPA, Media)3. Establish a outer perimeter4. Identify and separate civilians, officers, and assign witness monitors. (This is duplicated from msliscp)PD will:4. Begin preliminary investigation5. Ensure the major incident log is assigned and completed.
227
Q

Deadly force or significant force investigations. Any officer/supervisor assigned, involved or arrived on scene will not leave until released by Who?

A

The FIT supervisor involved.

228
Q

Blocking blue team v incident?

A

Blue team- officer makes occupied contactIncident- suspect makes contact

229
Q

Each involved officer does a blue team that includes:4

A

Level of “force”, tool/tactic, effectiveness, and 8 reasonableness factors.

230
Q

CCDc is notified of what uses of force for screening:

A

OCLVNRECDCanineLL/40

231
Q

For PIT, supervisors should: 2

A

Acknowledge officers intent over the radio and weigh if you’ll approve the PIT and;Consider other options

232
Q

Who notifies the IAB LT if significant force is used?

A

Area LT or WC.

233
Q

PIT application is for : (2)

A

Driver refuses to stop (Patrol is using lights and sirens and giving opportunity). And elements of pursuit must be met.

234
Q

When is PIT deadly force?

A

Over 40 mph.Motor cyclesHigh center of gravityOther circumstances

235
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: IC first initial steps (7)Ms LISCP

A

M- ensure medical is provided.S - search for outstanding suspectsL- lockdown sceneI- identify and isolate witnessesS- seperate witness and involved officers, get witness monitors not connected to the incident.C- notify comms of incidentP- public safety statement (done separately with all necessary. Written down from the card)

236
Q

OC- caution should be used for?

A

Extremes of ages, pregnant, disabled.

237
Q

CIRT will complete the UOF report for what?

A

When deadly force is used or force which results in death. Less lethal during deadly force incident will be at the discretion of the cirt LT.

238
Q

Supervisors oversee and address over deployment of rifles. They will: (3)

A
  1. Proceed to an incident with rifle deployment and assume control, when possible.2. Ensure the deployment is appropriate.3. Modify or cancel if necessary.
239
Q

Handcuffing on terry stops. (8)

A
  1. Physically uncooperative2. Actions present physical danger to themselves or others3 possibility of flight4 info subject is armed5 closely follows violent crime and specific parts match6 crime of violence is about to occur7 avoid age extremes, pregnant, disabled8 only handcuff as long as above exists
240
Q

Without exception approved by the supervisor, when are blue teams completed?

A

By the end of shift.

241
Q

For unfounded, alleged uses of force, what will the supervisor complete?

A

Citizen contact in Blue Team

242
Q

When 40mm or low leathal is deployed, how many officers WILL be present?

A

2

243
Q

When may animals be shot (3)

A

Self defenseDefense of othersBadly injured to prevent suffering ONLY AFTER ATTEMPTS HAVE BEEN MADE WITH ASSISTING AGENCIES

244
Q

LL avoid shooting through what?

A

Glass/ chain link fences

245
Q

Officer/supervisor who participated, directed or influenced the application of force.

A

Involved officer

246
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: who does the briefing and what does it include?5. Locations and summary….HA gave ya one.

A

Patrol detective or on-scene supervisor 1.L of involved officer, witness, civilian witness.2. Location of Subject3. Location of scene4. Location of evidence.5. Location of supervisor taking PSS if applicable. 6. Details of incident.

247
Q

LL and 40mm SHOULD NOT be used for (4)H.E.E.B

A
  1. Extremes of ages or disabled2. Elevated position3. Handcuffed4 breeching tool
248
Q

LL and 40 WILL NOT be used:(3)

A
  1. Subject with a FA unless compelling reasons can be articulated.2. Civil unrest unless authorised by IC or above. Must specifically target an imminent threat.3. Pregnant unless deadly force is the only other option.
249
Q

Low level vehicle force 2

A

Blocking and pinching

250
Q

OC can be used on protesters when?

A

Authorised by the IC in response to an imminent threat.

251
Q

LL and 40mm May be used in deadly force:

A

Only when it doesn’t create unnecessary risk to officers or others

252
Q

Ecd will not be used:8

A

1.Flammable situations2. Position to fall3. Coercion4. Escort/jab5. Awaken/intoxicated6. Pregnant unless deadly force is only other7. Solely passive/active resistance8. Fleeing is sole justification

253
Q

Disapproved handcuffing 2

A

Refrain: when medical circumstances make it unreasonable.In-custody: until RS or PC is established

254
Q

Criteria to block:

A

RS a crime was committed and will try to flee

255
Q

OC is only authorised for vehicles when?

A

Police are attempting to secure an aggressive subject in their vehicle. NOT USED FOR EXTRACTION OUTSIDE OF DETENTION FACILITY

256
Q

Non deadly with ECD, 2 things a Supervisor does?

A
  1. Ensure video is uploaded into Blue Team prior to end of shift.2. Verify probes wire and cartridges are impounded. Not done on an AD unless injury occurs. Arrange for replacements.
257
Q

PIT is reportable for:

A

Success, attempts, or declared use

258
Q

UOF Blue teams are forwarded to?

A

Investigating supervisor????????

259
Q

Non deadly force, a supervisor starts the investigation by: Mr Nnips

A

M- ensure Medical is requested when applicable.R- Respond without unnecessary delay (if unable, get the same level or higher)N- ensure force is Non-deadlyN- notify comms and LT/WC for proper Notifications to include when significant force is used.I- interview subject, officer, medical, witnesses who have 1st hand knowledge. Obtain vols through uninvolved officer.P- takes Photos of subjects, scene, officers and collect evidence. Check and obtain video.

260
Q

Ramming is for:

A

Deadly force only

261
Q

Handcuff outside terry stops.

A

Suicidal personsSW- for safetyTransport to detox facilityCCDC moving in-custody’s

262
Q

May OC be used on animals for self defense or others?

A

Yes

263
Q

Officers discharge of a firearm at a person, with or without physical injury or death of the person

A

OIS

264
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: Supervisor places involved officer on what:And who determines if other officers will be on this status??

A

Relief of duty.PEAP - PEAP will determine other officers, but the supervisor actually places them on relief of duty (ie. COMPLETES THE FORM)

265
Q

ECD should not be used unless can be clearly articulated: 5

A
  1. Handcuffed2. Operating vehicle3. Holding FA4. Extremes of age or disabled5. Clearly deadly force but other officer present and capable of providing deadly force of necessary
266
Q

Video, supervisors will: 2

A

Permit officer to review only THEIR actions before doing their report.Ensure it’s impounded as evidence and noted in Blue Team

267
Q

Officer or supervisor who did not participate in or directly influence the application of the use of force.

A

Witness officer

268
Q

Officers may use reasonable force to: 5

A

Protect themselves Protect othersAffect lawful detention Affect lawful arrestConduct lawful search

269
Q

Chain of command has how long on blue teams?

A

30 Calendar days!

270
Q

If a Supervisor is involved in a UOF, May they investigate?

A

No, it goes to the next level of supervision.

271
Q

Officers will not discharge at or from a moving vehicle. If done: (3)

A
  1. Will get out of the path as a priority!2. Shots are not to disable the vehicle.3. Driver must present an imminent threat to others and shooting is the only option to preserve lives
272
Q

When multiple rifles are deployed, who does the blue team?

A

One, they list the others as involved.

273
Q

Officers will handcuff an arrested person:

A

As soon as possible.

274
Q

Photos will be taken when?

A

All reportable uses of force, regardless of visible injury.

275
Q

Firearms discharge is not authorised for(2)

A
  1. Warning shots2. It appears likely an innocent person may be injured.
276
Q

Use of impact weapons out side of baton is:

A

Strongly discouraged and must be articulated after other authorised methods are exhausted/unavailable/ineffective

277
Q

Canine may be used for civil disorder in dire emergency authorised by who?

A

Field LT

278
Q

4 objects of the witness monitor:

A
  1. Ensure involved and witnesses don’t speak to each other.2. PPA and attorneys not allowed to speak or move until FIT supervisor has arrived.3. Monitor will not talk about the event.4. Stay with them until countdown is done.
279
Q

OC- may be used on handcuffed subjects who?

A

Display aggressive resistance.

280
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: If sole officer wants to arrest, who arranges for transportation?

A

Supervisor.

281
Q

Deadly force maybe used upon another person when it is objectively reasonable to (2)

A
  1. Protect themselves /others from what is reasonably believed to be an imminent threat of death/SBH2.prevent escape of fleeing felon, PC to believe has committed a violent felony and is imminent threat to human life if escape should occur.
282
Q

Rifles may be deployed when?

A

Potential for deadly force based on distance, cover , and the tactical situation.

283
Q

Deadly force or force involving SBH or death: who chooses the briefing location?

A

IC

284
Q

What is required for pinching?

A

Rs of crime and attempting to evade, or has potential to harm themselves or others

285
Q

For PIT, when contact is made, communications will advise who?

A
  1. Officers immediate chain.2. WC3. On duty traffics supervisor.If ANY questions or concerns arise of deadly v non deadly, FIT or Fatal shall be notified.
286
Q

For significant force, who does the LT/WC notify?

A

IAB LT

287
Q

Level of control: empty hand

A

Low, intermediate, deadly

288
Q

Level of control: handcuffing

A

Low

289
Q

Level of control: baton/impact tool

A

Low, intermediate, deadly

290
Q

Level of control: OC

A

Intermediate

291
Q

Level of control: lvnr

A

Intermediate, deadly

292
Q

Level of control:ECD

A

Intermediate

293
Q

Level of control: K9

A

Low, intermediate

294
Q

Level of control: vehicle

A

Low, intermediate, deadly

295
Q

Level of control: LL

A

Intermediate, deadly

296
Q

What is significant force?

A

Any use of force which results in treatment at a medical facility due to injuries or alleged injuries caused by an officer.Ex) fractures, complaint of injury to head, sternum.

297
Q

In a use of force incident, the governmental interest must match the level of BLANK and BLANK upon an individuals constitutional rights.

A

Force and intrusion.

298
Q

Officers should place a BLANK reliance upon use of force.

A

Minimal

299
Q

The use of force policy applies to who?

A

All commissioned officers

300
Q

United States constitution states a police officer may only use such force as is “BLANK”

A

Objectively reasonable

301
Q

Civilian employees have no arrest powers but may carry a firearm or OC, they must use force consistent with:

A

Nevada laws of self defense or defense of another.They still do blue teams!!! And you will respond with another officer to assist

302
Q

The use of force chart is a graphic that is intended to be a BLANK for an officer??

A

GENERAL GUIDELINE

303
Q

Supervisors WILL acknowledge and respond to incidents in a timely manner where law enforcement use of force is BLANK?

A

PROBABLE.

304
Q

Elements of deadly force: 4

A

Imminent JeopardyAbilityOpportunity Preclusion

305
Q

Levels of control

A

Low levelIntermediateDeadly force

306
Q

Levels of resistance:

A

CompliantPassive ActiveAggressiveAggravated aggressive🔫

307
Q

Graham v. Conner establishes if force is objectively reasonable with 3 prongs:And 5 additional considerations:

A
  1. Severity of the crime at issue2. Whether the subject poses an immediate threat to the safety of officers or others3. Whether the subject is actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight.4. Influence of alcohol/drugs or mental capacity5.time available to an officer to make a decision6. Availability of resources/officers present to deescalate.7.proximity or access to weapons8.environmental factors or other exigent circumstances
308
Q

U of FCanine presence on leash is approved for:

A

Active resistance

309
Q

U of FCanine with bites is approved for:

A

Aggressive and Aggravated aggressive.Committed a crime or,A danger to themselves or others andActively evading and use of canine would reduce risk to officers and the public

310
Q

U of FIn police operation, who is in charge and responsible for the dog?

A

The handler!

311
Q

U of F The _________ must be aware of the number of rifles already deployed.

A

Officer

312
Q

U of F Airport bureau officers may openly carry rifles, slung muzzle down, when? (2).

A

At the directions of the airport bureau commander, orWhen it could make the officer more effective at crime (terrorism) prevention.No blue team needed for this!

313
Q

U of F The ________ SHOULD be used on subjects armed with a weapon. Or when a subject poses an imminent threat of safety to officers or others The ________ WILL be used on subjects armed with a weapon. Or when a subject poses an imminent threat of safety to officers or others.(Such as a brick, bottle, knife, club, etc.)

A
  1. LL shotgun2. 40mm
314
Q

U of F 40 mm will only be carried where?

A

Designated tactical vehiclesIn the trunk in their designated bag

315
Q

U of FWhen multiple rifles are deployed, the _________ shall designate one deploying officer to complete the rifle deployment report in blue team.

A

Supervisor

316
Q

U of F: who completes an annual U of F analysis?

A

IOCP

317
Q

U of F: who may interact and explain the investigative process to involved officers while being monitored by a witness monitor?

A

PEAP

318
Q

U of F: if an involved officer declines any FIT interview this is ok. However, they will be admonished by ____________ and will make a compelled statement to (answer) on a future date.

A

CIRT

319
Q

U of F: scene walkthroughs are conducted by: For involved they are:For witnesses they:

A

FITVoluntary. Will be provided

320
Q

U of F: on an OIS or use of deadly force, who determines what to do with potential video surveillance (not BWC)

A

The FIT supervisor

321
Q

U of F: who ensures non-essential personnel stay out of the FIT briefing?

A

FIT LT or designee

322
Q

U of F: at a deadly force incident, who confers prior to evidence documentation and collection?

A

Fit supervisor and csi supervisor

323
Q

U of F: there is an active shooter incident that concludes prior to metro involvement. Who would request CIRT?

A

The sheriff

324
Q

U of F: you respond to a successful PIT, even though it was great application, speed was questionable. To determine if it was deadly or non deadly force who shall be notified?

A

FIT. OR. FATAL

325
Q

U of F: you respond to an OIS and take 3 PSS. Who will you hand these over to?

A

A FIT detective

326
Q

U of F: who makes the final determination on a deadly force incident of who is a witness or involved?

A

The ranking fit supervisor

327
Q

U of F: who collects/photographs PIT evidence?

A

CSI

328
Q

U of F: for cases of deadly force or in-custody death, who impounded ECD proves, wires, and cartridges?

A

CSI

329
Q

U of F: ____________ will provide a monthly report to the appropriate division commander listing all U of F reports which have exceeded the 30 day limitation.

A

IOCP

330
Q

U of F: photos taken by officers on a U of Force are downloaded to:Photos taken by CSI are uploaded to:

A

Blue team OnBase

331
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYthe positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle where contact between the vehicles is not anticipated or is anticipated to be minimal.

A

Blocking

332
Q

U of F: when In uniform, commissioned officers will carry:

A

All issued tools and equipment required by policy

333
Q

U of F: Officers LT and below out of uniform on duty will have one intermediate option on them. Except when waiver by their:

A

Division commander

334
Q

U of Force: handcuffs may only be colored:

A

Chrome or black

335
Q

U of force: what’re deadly force strikes with a baton:

A

Head NecksternumSpineGroinKidneys

336
Q

U of F: officers wanting to get out of LVNR for MEDICAL REASONS must obtain an exemption from: 1And there after and at the beginning of every calendar year forward to: 2

A
  1. Physician2. Director of risk management
337
Q

U of F: ECD video may not be disseminated with our permission of the :

A

Sheriff or designee

338
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYDeadly Force - the degree of force which is likely to produce death or serious bodily injury. Deadly force can also result from a force option being ________ applied. Deadly force is not limited to the use of firearms.

A

Improperly

339
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYa team put in place to conduct a criminal investigation to determine whether the use of deadly force was legally justified under criminal law. ____also directs the investigation against a subject who either committed crimes which led to the use of deadly force or who has committed crimes against an officer.

A

FIT

340
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYa level of force that has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain, and is greater than low-level force

A

Intermediate Force

341
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYa level of force or control that is neither likely nor intended to cause injury

A

Low Level Force

342
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYthe level of force required to compel compliance, which is not intended to and is not known to create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm

A

Non-Deadly Force

343
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYa designated officer who is not involved in the use of deadly force. The responsibilities of the officer witness monitor are to observe and prevent discussions regarding the incident among involved officer(s), witness officer(s), witness(es), and other individuals who arrive at the scene (lieutenants, captains, Collective Bargaining Association representatives/attorneys, etc.) prior to the arrival of FIT.

A

Officer Witness Monitor

344
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYan unintentional discharge of a firearm that does not cause injury or death to a person, or the humane euthanizing of injured or dangerous animals.

A

Other Firearm Discharge

345
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F: The supervisor must take appropriate action to ensure public safety, based on the information received from the PSS.

A

TRUE

346
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYany use of force which is required to overcome subject resistance to gain compliance that results in injury or complaint of injury, complaint of continuing pain, or any use of force greater than low level force (see Levels of Control) and any application of the LVNR

A

Reportable Force

347
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F: the department examines all uses of force from an subjective standard.

A

False - UOF is judged from an OBJECTIVE standard

348
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury:Baton/Impact Weapons

A

any strikes to the head, neck or groin area

349
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury:Canine

A

all bites

350
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injuryECD

A

probe strikes to the head, neck or groin area

351
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injuryLVNR

A

when applied.

352
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injuryUse of Force with a Firearm

A

a.Low Lethality Shotgun - all strikes.b.40mm Specialty Impact Weapon - all strikes.c.Handgun/Shotgun (“00” Buck & Slug)/Rifle - any discharge

353
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injuryUse of Force with a Vehicle

A

a. Precision Intervention Technique (PIT) - over 40mph.b. Blocking - contact with an occupied vehicle.c. Stationary Vehicle Immobilization Technique (Pinching) - all.d. Ramming - all.

354
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F: Medical will be summonsed for all successful applications of a PIT

A

False - Only for over 40 MPH

355
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F The officers actions will dictate the resistance level

A

False - The Subjects actions will.

356
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F: The UOF model provided in policy is a strict model which will be adhered to for all applications of force by LVMPD officers

A

False, policy states “This graphic is intended as a general guideline for an officer”

357
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREAny commissioned officer present and observing another officer using force that is clearly beyond that which is “objectively reasonable” under the circumstances will, when in a position to do so, safely intercede to prevent the use of excessive force. Officers will promptly report these observations to________

A

a supervisor

358
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREa person contacted by an officer who acknowledges direction or lawful orders given and offersno passive, active, aggressive or aggravated aggressive resistance

A

Compliant

359
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREthe subject is not complying with an officer’s commands and is uncooperative, but istaking only minimal physical action to prevent an officer from placing the subject in custody and takingcontrol. Examples include: standing stationary and not moving upon lawful direction, falling limply andrefusing to use their power to move (becoming “dead weight”), holding onto a fixed object or locking armsto another during a protest or demonstration.

A

Passive

360
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREthe subject’s verbal or physical actions are intended to prevent an officer from placingthe subject in custody and taking control, but are not directed at harming the officer. Examples include:walking or running away, breaking the officer’s grip

A

Active

361
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREthe subject displays the intent to harm the officer, themselves or another person andprevent an officer from placing the subject in custody and taking control. The aggression may manifest itselfthrough a subject taking a fighting stance, punching, kicking, striking, attacks with weapons or other actionswhich present an imminent threat of physical harm to the officer or another.

A

Aggressive

362
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREthe subject’s actions are likely to result in death or serious bodily harmto the officer, themselves or another. These actions may include a firearm, use of a blunt or bladed weaponand extreme physical force.

A

Aggravated Aggressive

363
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREThis level of force includes:1. Officer Presence.2. Verbal Communication.3. Empty Hand Tactics (takedowns).4. Handcuffs/Other LVMPD Approved Restraint Devices.5. Baton (as escort tool).6. Canine (on leash).7. Pinching.8. Blocking.

A

Low Level Force - a level of force or control that is neither likely nor intended to cause injury. Examplesare: handcuffing a compliant arrestee for transport to a detention facility or proning a subject out on ahigh-risk vehicle stop.

364
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREThis level of force requires a Use of Force Report and includes:1. Empty Hand Tactics (takedown with injury, strikes, kicks).2. Baton/Impact Tools (jabs, strikes).3. LVNR® (all levels).4. OC Spray.5. ECD.6. Low Lethality Shotgun (fired at a distance of five (5) yards or greater).7. 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon (fired at a distance of five (5) yards or greater).8. Canine (with bites).9. PIT (speeds 40mph or below).

A

Intermediate Force - a level of force that has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain and is greaterthan Low Level Force.

365
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREBaton (striking head, neck, sternum, spine, groin or kidneys).2. LVNR® (all levels).3. Low Lethality Shotgun (fired at a distance less than five (5) yards).4. 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon (fired at a distance less than five (5) yards).5. PIT (speeds more than 40mph).6. Ramming.7. Firearm Use.

A

Deadly Force - that degree of force which is likely to produce death or serious bodily injury. Deadlyforce can also result from a force option being improperly applied. For the use of deadly force to bejustified, at least one of the parameters and all elements must be present. Examples include but are notlimited to:

366
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDURET/F: It is the policy of this department that everypotential violent confrontation can be de-escalated

A

False”Clearly, not every potential violent confrontation can be de-escalated, but officers do have the ability to impact the direction and the outcome of many situations they handle, based on their decision-making and the tactics they choose to employ”

367
Q

6/002.01 USE OF FORCE PROCEDUREOfficers should use __________________________ as alternatives to higher levels of force.

A

advisements, warnings, verbal persuasion and other tactics

368
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYMedical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury:OC Spray

A

Direct exposure to the facial area

369
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F - Medical will be called for all baton/impact weapon strikes

A

FalseOnly any strikes to the head, neck or groin area is required

370
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F - Medical will be called for all ECD applications

A

False Only probe strikes to the head, neck or groin area are required.

371
Q

6/002.00 USE OF FORCE POLICYT/F - Medical will be called for all applications of OC

A

FalseOnly applications to the facial area.

372
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSNon-uniformed commissioned personnel the rank of lieutenant and below are required to carry at least ____intermediate force option (baton, OC spray or ECD) on their person when on-duty unless the requirement is waived, via completion of an Authorized Force Tools and Equipment Exemption Waiver, LVMPD 483, by their ______commander.

A

OneDivision

373
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSb. Officers ______ only use tactics appropriate to the situation which have been taught by department Defensive Tactics instructors.

A

should

374
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSBaton strikes are deadly force if they impact what areas of the body?

A

striking subjects on the head, neck, sternum, spine, groin or kidneys.

375
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSc. The use of instruments as a tool for the purpose of striking or jabbing (i.e., flashlights, radio, etc.) other than department-authorized batons, is ____________

A

Strongly Discouraged

376
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSOfficers are _______from using their firearm as an impact tool due to the possibility of an unintentional discharge.

A

Discouraged

377
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSa. OC spray expiration date and serviceability will be checked _______

A

Annually

378
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSc. OC spray may be used on vicious or aggressive animals when those animals _______ the safety of the officers or citizens.

A

“Interfere with”

379
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSLVNR® will not be used on subjects that have been _____________ or who are __________.

A

Exposed to OC sprayHaving difficulty breathing

380
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSIs an ECD spark display (not a spark check) a reportable use of force?

A

YES

381
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual DT hours are required annually for Lt’s and below?

A

8 (IE 2 per quarter)Falls under general DT’s

382
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual handcuffing training hours are required annually for Lt’s and below?

A

8 (IE 2 per quarter)Falls under general DT’s

383
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual baton/impact tools training hours are required annually for Lt’s and below?

A

8 (IE 2 per quarter)Falls under general DT’s

384
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual OC training hours are required annually for Lt’s and below?

A

8 (IE 2 per quarter)Falls under general DT’s

385
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual LVNR training hours are required annually for all LVNR certified officers?

A

POLICY DOES NOT GIVE AN ACTUAL NUMBER”Officers certified in the LVNR® will be required to complete recertification training through quarterly defensive tactics”

386
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many annual ECD training hours are required annually for ALL ECD certified officers?

A

d. Annual Training - once certified, all officers, regardless of issuance of an ECD, must attend a two-hour (2) recertification training taught by the Advanced Officer Skills Training (AOST) staff.

387
Q

6/002.02 AUTHORIZED FORCE TOOLSHow many times per year are LL shotgun and 40MM certified officers required to qual?

A

Low Lethality Shotgun – re-qualify annually.40mm Specialty Impact Weapon - FTTU or Adjunct FTTU initial class, re-qualify annually.

388
Q

U of F:Who can pit? (Vehicles?)

A

Not trucks or SUVs!Unless a Ford Explorer in patrol. OrMV, Narcs, and Viper.

389
Q

U of F:All pinching is reportable T/F?

A

TRUE

390
Q

What will CIRT go to…that FIT doesn’t??

A

Dog/animal shootsAD during police operationSuicide attempt at CCDCOfficer killed or critically injured in an incident (NOT A VICTIM, ex 401)Suspect/citizen critically injured/killed in INCIDENT. Such as an accident….this last one is super grey

391
Q

U of FIOCP will notify who for outstanding u of f reports exceeding 30 days (1)Weekly outstanding reports (2)Bi- weekly outstanding reports (3)

A
  1. Division commander 2. Bureau commander every week3. Executive staff bi-weekly
392
Q

Vehicle Pursuits: if you were primary AT ANY POINT IN A PURSUIT you must advise communications via :

A

Radio

393
Q

Vehicle pursuit: The following modify circumstances identifiers for pursuits and are updated in CAD:What do they stand for PS - 1PC - 2PO -3

A

PS - pursuit initiated and completedPC- pursuit initiated but cancelled prior to completionP.O. - potential pursuit situation observed but did not meet criteria.NOTE: if an officer observed any of these they MUST notify communications

394
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONST/F: ANY UOF by a civilian employee will require a UOF report?

A

TRUE

395
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSThere are several instances where a firearms discharge report is required to be completed. What are the only two instances where CIRT will complete the report?

A

b. A firearm discharge resulting in death or serious bodily injury, CIRT will complete the Firearm Discharge Report.d. When shots are fired outside the firearms range, excluding off-duty situations such as hunting or participating in competitive shooting. When a firearm is discharged at a human being or an animal in self-defense or to humanely euthanize an animal (excluding resident areas), CIRT will complete the Firearm Discharge Report. (residents complete their own animal shoots for BOTH self defense and humane reasons)

396
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSWho completes the UOF report if deadly force is used?

A

CIRTIf its a LL, the CIRT Lt. has discretion on this.

397
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSDo Photographs have to be taken during all post UOF investigations, even if there are no visible injury/marks?

A

YES

398
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSIs a NHP 5 required for Blocking, Pinching or PIT?

A

NO, these are pre-planned techniques and not “accidents”

399
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSCan supervisors make their own PSS cards, even if they have the exact same PSS questions?

A

No

400
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSWhat are the seven MAIN PSS questions?

A
  1. Did you discharge your firearm?2. Is anyone injured? If so, where are they located?3. Are there any outstanding suspects?a. If so, what is their description?4. Is it possible the suspect fired rounds at you? 5. Do you know if any other officer(s) discharged their firearms?6. Are there any weapons or evidence that needs to be secured/protected? If so, where are they located?7. Are you aware of any witnesses? If so, what is their location?
401
Q

UOFSCENARIO:an officer uses deadly force on a suspect and the officer is the only witness to the incident, the officer has decided to NOT speak to FIT detectives and the suspect is still alive.Who makes the decision to arrest the suspect?

A

The officer does.But if he does, he has to complete a TCR/DOA… the sergeant will arrange for transport and the officer is responsible for an arrest report prior to the end of shift

402
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSWho has the responsibility for monitoring a post DF briefing to ensure only essential personnel are in attendance?

A

FIT LT

403
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSAre the following officers allowed to have a rep/attorney present with them for a post deadly UOF walkthrough?Witness:Involved:

A

Both - YES

404
Q

6/002.03 POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONSFIT interviews with involved officers shall take place no earlier than ____ after the incident?

A

48 hoursUnless the officer waives.

405
Q

Vehicle tactics: environmental factors specific to use of any force:

A

1.areas with pedestrians 2. Other vehicle traffic3. Parked vehicles4. Telephone/utility poles5. Bridges/overpass6. Adjacent to areas with large elevation change

406
Q

Vehicle Tactics: subject factor specific to use of force:

A
  1. Seriousness of crime2. Number of subjects3. Subjects known or have access to firearms4. Potential to use vehicle as weapon5. Potential disadvantage due to proximity to subjects6. Potential of creating crossfire situation7. Size/weight of subjects vehicle. Impaired to police vehicle.
407
Q

A subject is injured by a K9 and they are not the subject of the search. This is documented in an:

A

Officers report

408
Q

When do you make the notification a ramming technique has occurred?

A

Immediately after

409
Q

Take downs, lowest level of resistance:

A

Passive

410
Q

Blocking and pinching, lowest level of resistance:

A

Active

411
Q

Baton escort, lowest level of resistance:

A

Passive

412
Q

If there is a loss of communication units return to the area command, if already on a call, the sergeant should?

A

ATL or attempt to communicate by other means.

413
Q

You are the NEAC sgt, what do you advise over the radio when leaving the rally point?

A

“NEAC strike team leaving area”

414
Q

Squads that leave their rally point are considered what?

A

MACTAC squads

415
Q

Sitreps can be given using what?

A

SALUTE SizeActivityLocationUniformTimeEquipment

416
Q

In convoys, the convoy will always What?Where does the sgt or team leader ride?

A

Stay together!In the front with a designated driver for command and control.

417
Q

What does the SGT, or team leader in their absence AM dispatch when leaving the area?

A

Which units are ACTUALLY leaving the area.

418
Q

What are the 4 C’s?

A

ContainControlCommunicateCoordinate

419
Q

Who establishes incident command on a MACTAC incident (and starts the 4C’s)?

A

The Area LT, or Sergeant in their absence

420
Q

CCAC, DT, Airport and resident do what for NOTIFICATION, ALERT or ACTIVATION anywhere in the valley? (4)

A

Don’t leave!Uniformed immediately go to rally point.Non-uniformed get gear and “police” attire”LT or senior SGT assigns strike teams to tactical locations.

421
Q

What is the current sop for hazard identification?

A

Red chemical light. Known or unknownGreen, chalk, marker -FOR LOCATIONS CHECKED!

422
Q

Who initiates call screening?

A

The WC.

423
Q

Who gives in the box supervisors/leaders incident information?

A

Communications supervisor.

424
Q

Upon arrival at the staging area, the sergeant/leader contacts who? For what?

A

Staging manager, operations chief, or IC for team assignment.

425
Q

What four areas are 100% in the box?

A

CCACDTACAirportResident

426
Q

When arriving at the rally point, the first unit should what?

A

Perform site security for other units.

427
Q

Who should call dispatch supervisor for the brief?

A

SGT or second arriving unit.

428
Q

What are the five team missions?

A

Assault, rescue, containment, force protection, reconnaissance

429
Q

First arriving officer: What are the four A’s?

A

AssessAnnounceAssembleAct

430
Q

For MACTAC alerts or activations, regular area commands will (3)?

A

Clear non-life threatening calls ASAP.In the box WILL respond to the rally pointStay at home will protect critical infrastructure. ALERT -monitorACTIVATION- go

431
Q

Who advises Sergeants of self dispatching?

A

Channel dispatchers

432
Q

What are the four MACTAC phases?

A

MACTAC incident, MACTAC activation, control phase, investigative phase

433
Q

At the airport for notifications-activations, what uniformed officers will not go to the rally points?

A

Those assigned to a post.

434
Q

Each squad has one BLANK and two or more BLANKS

A

Squad leaderTeam leader

435
Q

Communications advises who of MACTAC alerts and activations?

A

Area commands affected

436
Q

What are the stay at home squad priorities?

A

Respond to critical calls at their area command (or otherwise directed by comms/Supervisor)Protect critical infrastructure.Supervisors ensure units don’t self dispatch to the incident unless authorised!

437
Q

Who approves the “in the box” assignments?

A

Area command captains

438
Q

Specialised units assigned report to Who?What will they have?

A

Staging area manager, or IC of no manager is assigned. They will have “police” identifier equipment.

439
Q

Officers that do not arrive at the rally point prior to the squad leaving will do what?

A

Not attempt to catch up, they will be reassigned to the stay at home squad

440
Q

For MACTAC NOTIFICATIONS, regular area commands will (3)?

A

Clear from non-life threatening calls ASAP.Consider heading to the rally points.Stay at home supervisors should send units to Critical infrastructure protection.

441
Q

What are strike team call signs? (2)

A

Sgt call sign 690A, B….until staging manager or IC assigns assault team 1, rescue task force 1 etc…

442
Q

Who gives a valley wide notification of a MACTAC incident?

A

Communications

443
Q

Who assessed and determines the need to request a MACTAC notification, alert, or activation?

A

The WC/ Area LT or higher.Request minimal amount of resources and use adjoining area commands first.

444
Q

phase: mactac incident-

A

Onset of the incident

445
Q

Phase: mactac activation

A

As Cs deployment, planning, intelligence ** critical to outcome!**

446
Q

Phase: control phase

A

ICS Medical triageForce proNeutralise devicesRescueSecurity

447
Q

Phase: investigative phase

A

Investigation Evidence gatheringDebriefDeactivationGrief counselingLitigation

448
Q

Area of mactac incident, all blank and blank personnel will respond and (ACE)

A

Uniformed and non uniformed.Assess contain end

449
Q

What are examples of a MACTAC incident?

A

Active ShooterHostage SiegeTerrorist Attack

450
Q

What are the “Basic” tactics?

A

Active ShooterOfficer RescueForce Protection

451
Q

What are the “Field” tactics?

A

Tactical movement formations and techniques (Individual, Team, Squad)

452
Q

MACTAC: Conduct BLANK inspections of your officers, equipment etc.

A

Weekly.

453
Q

What are the MACTAC basic tactics?

A

Active shooterOfficer rescueRescue task force

454
Q

What are the MACTAC objectives?

A
  1. Immediately switch from community policing/patrol to a rapid response in minutes, not hours.2. Effectively deal with simultaneous incidents3. Provide seamless coordination between all responding agencies4. Facilitate casualty treatment and evacuation5. TO SAVE LIVES
455
Q

What are the 4 phases of a MACTAC incident?

A

MACTAC incident, MACTAC activationControl phaseinvestigative phase

456
Q

According to the MACTAC manual, which phase is the most critical?

A

MACTAC activation

457
Q

According to the MACTAC manual, when arriving on a MACTAC incident, WHO conducts the 4 A’s?

A

The first arriving officer

458
Q

According to the MACTAC manual, who conducts the 4 C’s

A

As soon as possible, the area lieutenant or in their absence, the area sergeant

459
Q

What are the duties relating to a radio broadcast of a MACTAC notification/alert/activation?

A

NOTIFICATION - a MACTAC incident occurs or is occurring. WC/area Lt or higher initiates MACTAC protocols a valley wide notification is given for the MACTAC incident by communicationsALERT - “in the box” squads respond to their rally points and await orders/info.ACTIVATION - “in the box” squads respond to their rally points, receives orders and respond as a team

460
Q

Upon arrival at a MACTAC staging area, who should call dispatch to get the brief?

A

It is recommended that either the sergeant or the second arriving person at the rally point makes the call to communications

461
Q

How often does MACTAC testing and evaluation normally occur for patrol squads assigned to “in the box” missions?

A

Yearly

462
Q

MACTAC mission:

A

Save livesDomestic police force that can quickly adapt to small team leadership and embraces decentralized command and control -Moody

463
Q

MACTAC concept:

A

MACTAC is and acronym used when deadly force incidents occur simultaneously or concurrently or a terrorist attack involving improvised explosive device, high-powered weapons, hostage siege where the armed subjects have used deadly force or are preparing to use deadly force on others and is an ongoing dynamic incidentMACTAC INCIDENT - an extraordinary incident by law enforcement standard, unusual occurrences that exceed conventional law enforcement tactics and resources (active assailant, hostage siege, terrorist attack)

464
Q

If violation by LE is long term or covert who is notified directly?

A

The criminal investigations section supervisor

465
Q

Conduct Handbook: What is the purpose of a contact report?

A

A tool to articulate a positive/negative conversation to clearly identify what was ultimately discussed.

466
Q

Are LVMPD members Who witness alleged criminal acts entitled to 48 hours notice or a representative?

A

No

467
Q

Conduct Handbook: if an employee refuses to sign a contact, what should be done?

A

Have a 3rd party witness and write “refused to sign”.

468
Q

An employee has an ADA accommodation request, who should the supervisor contact?

A

The Health and Safety Manager.

469
Q

A customer service dispute is not an allegation that involves:

A

A violation of department policy or violation of law

470
Q

Impairment testing process does not apply when?

A

Criminal investigations

471
Q

Except for Veteran Status, how many days from the last discrimination/harassment claim be reported?

A

300 days.

472
Q

Conduct Handbook: If an employee refuses to sign the performance appraisal what should you do?

A

Call another supervisor to witness and mark the appraisal refused.

473
Q

2 types of sexual harassment.

A

Quid pro quo and hostile work environment.

474
Q

What are the protected classes? I

A

Federal: Race, Color, Religion, Sex, National Origin. Age and Disability individually. Veteran status.NRS: Sexual Orientation.Policy: Poltical affiliation. Sexual identification, genetic information, FMLA, Workers Comp.

475
Q

Offensive verbal or physical conduct due to RACE, COLOR, RELIGION, N. ORIGIN, SEX, AGE, or SEXUAL ORIENTATION frequent and or repetitively

A

Harassment

476
Q

Conduct Handbook: if an employee wants to actually change the appraisal and marks it so, what needs to be done?

A

The employee MUST complete a request for review form.With in 15 days the 2nd chain will meet, if not resolved a written explaination will be given within 15 days. An additional meeting may be held in 10 Callander days.

477
Q

IAB Is immediately notified of what complaints?

A

Major Violations, alcohol or drug abuse, or criminal acts (sgt notifies WC for criminal acts).

478
Q

For supervisor Testing supervisors may have representation but who conducts the investigation?

A

CIRT, CIRT will advise IAB of verifies positives

479
Q

A person who meets skill, experience, education, and other requirements and can perform with or with reasonable accommodations the essential functions of a job.

A

Qualified Individual

480
Q

What are the nine steps of supervisory intervention

A
  1. Review SOC2. Coordinate with IA and OLR to determine formal or informal.3. Contact complainant to ensure investigation is complete.4. Get approved by IS, OLR, and Captain.5. Meet with employee to verify allegations are true.6. Use Bureau Investigation Supervisory Intervention form.7. A) document on form B) counsel C)document session on contact.8) Complete form with summary and outcome.9) Forward form and contact to IA for review.
481
Q

If a subject employee waived their 48 hour right for investigation, who do they speak to and who must be present?

A

Supervisor of IAB, with an association rep or attorney. The waiver is either on tape or written.

482
Q

What will a supervisor do regarding complaint which violates policy or law?

A
  1. Open an SOC documenting the nature, witness allegations and the person making the complaint. When in doubt, do this! (Estimation)2. Explain the process to the complainant.
483
Q

Sexual Harassment must be: (2 Prong)

A

Sexual in nature and unwelcome.

484
Q

Conduct Handbook: What does the narrative of the performance appraisal address?

A

Objective assessment of the assignments knowledge skills and abilities and is based on Contact Reports from the time period.

485
Q

EIIP Reports will not be documented how?

A

On contact Reports.

486
Q

Diversity, to prevent harassment and discrimination, supervisors should do this: MRCSLR

A

Monitor the environmentRefrain from participationCounsel employees on prohibited behaviour Stop actions regardless of who they areLimit contact between complainantsReport all complaints.

487
Q

An employee wants to file for a religious accommodation, a supervisor:

A

Notifies the director of EDS to begin the formal interactive process in a timely manner.

488
Q

Minor allegation investigation

A

Discipline ranging from a written reprimand to a suspension of less than 40 hours or disciplinary transfer

Sergeant Test (3 decks)

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