2 Flashcards

1
Q

The main advantage of a ball and roller bearing is:

A

They have low starting friction

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2
Q

Deep groove ball bearings are designed for:

A

Radial loads and moderate thrust loads

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3
Q

Angular contact ball bearings are designed for:

A

Moderate combined thrust and radial loads

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4
Q

Tor F
Deep groove ball bearings can carry heavier radial loads than radial bearings with filling slots because the deep groove bearings have more balls.

A

False

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5
Q

T or F

The only difference between a heavy duty bearing and a light duty bearing is the size of the balls.

A

False

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6
Q

When handling bearings which of the following should not be done?

A

Wash out completely, all grease in which a bearing comes packed

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7
Q

T or F

Pressure should always be applied to the outer race when removing a ball bearing from a shaft.

A

False

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8
Q

What would happen if you attempted to pull a bearing on the shallow shoulder of an angular contact bearing?

A

It would disassemble the bearing

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9
Q

When a bearing must be pulled by the outer race because of a gear or shaft shoulder, what is the most important thing to remember?

A

Maintain a constant steady pull

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10
Q

Why shouldn’t galvanized pipe be used as a drift to remove bearings

A

Because the zinc can chip off into the bearing

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11
Q

T or F

Sometimes the inner bearing cap can be used to pull a bearing

A

True

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12
Q

A three way puller is particularly useful in pulling:

A

Gears through the spokes

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13
Q

T or F

It is a good idea to smooth off a shaft with emery cloth before mounting a ball bearing

A

False

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14
Q

A shaft shoulder for a bearing should be about ? the height of the inner race

A

1/2

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15
Q

What should be the maximum temp used to treat a bearing on a shaft?

A

225 deg F

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16
Q

What will happen if a ball bearing is fit loosely on a shaft?

A

Inner ring will slip and rotate on shaft

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17
Q

T or F

A ball or roller bearing should be fit onto the shaft as tightly as possible to prevent rotation of the inner race.

A

False

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18
Q

T or F

Face to face mounting of duplex bearings allows a moderate amount of alignment

A

True

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19
Q

T or F

Tandem mounting of duplex bearings is used for heavy radial loads

A

False

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20
Q

T or F
If one bearing in a duplex set is bad it is permissible to replace the bad bearing as long as it is replaced by one made by the same manufacturer

A

False

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21
Q

T or F

The wiping lip of a seal should usually be turned toward the inside of the housing

A

True

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22
Q

Oil lubrications will permit about ? the bearing speed of grease lubrication

A

Twice

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23
Q

T or F

The main advantage of oil lubrication over grease lubrication is it’s ability to circulate and cool the bearing

A

True

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24
Q

About how full should a bearing housing be filled with grease

A

1/3

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25
Q

What is the main detrimental affect of over lubrication in a grease lubricated bearing?

A

Heat

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26
Q

What is the best method of removing grease from an over lubricated bearing while it is in service?

A

Remove the drain plug and leave out for 15-20 min.

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27
Q

Ball or roller bearings which have failed because they have been pinched in the housing can be recognized by:

A

A definitely defined load track on opposite sides of the outer race diagonally across

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28
Q

T or F

A cracked inner race may mean that the shaft is oversized

A

True

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29
Q

Which one of the following should not be done in working with anti friction bearings

A

Use cotton waste to wipe bearings

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30
Q

The oil reservoir of an anti friction bearing is usually filled?

A

To cover the bottom half of the bottom ball

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31
Q

The libricating oil film in a sleeve bearing is about ? thick.

A

.001” to .003”

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32
Q

T or F
If you are looking at the end of a shaft turning counterclockwise the shaft will tends to assume a position to the left of the centerline in a journal bearing when the oil film is fully established

A

False

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33
Q

In 1839 Mr.babbit devises a material for sleeve bearing which consisted of

A

Tin, copper, and antimony

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34
Q

The two types of thrust bearings in general use on large hydroelectric units are:

A

The spring type and tilting shoe type

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35
Q

T or F

The GE type generator thrust bearing obtains its equalizing action from springs under the stationary segments.

A

True

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36
Q

T or F

The protective material on the bearing surfaces of the GE type generator thrust bearing should not be removed

A

False

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37
Q

T or F
The basic elements of a Kingsbury thrust bearing are rotating thrust collar, stationary tilting shoes, base ring, housings, lubricating system, cooling system and equalizing springs.

A

False

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38
Q

T or F

A Kingsbury thrust bearing is said to be “equalizing” if the load on the shoes is adjusted automatically

A

True

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39
Q

T or F
The principle behind the load carrying capacity of the Kingsbury type bearing is the formation of a wedge shaped oil film

A

True

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40
Q

T or F

The main advantage of calcium base grease is its water resistance

A

True

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41
Q

T or F

A trimetql bearing consists of a thin overlay of Babbitt in a leased bronze lining on a steal back

A

True

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42
Q

T or F

Turbine oil stability is its ability to resist foaming

A

False

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43
Q

T or F

Viscosity index is a measure of an oils rate of change of viscosity with temperature

A

True

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44
Q

The purpose of an oil lubricated oil bearing is to

A

Carry oil to the bearing from the reservoir

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45
Q

A machine is a device used for converting force to useful work. It can be used to:

A

All three (change size of force, direction of force, and speed or rate a force is acting)

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46
Q

Of the below statements concerning machine efficiency, which one is not a true statement?

A

Transformers are less efficient than reciprocating pumps

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47
Q

A shaft or journal re loving in an oil lubricated bearing is usually identified with?

A

Fluid friction

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48
Q

A bearing that supports or restricts the longitudinal motion of a rotating shaft is called a:

A

Thrust bearing

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49
Q

All of the below factors have an effect on the formation of the desired oil wedge. Which one must operators give the most careful attention to prevent bearing damage?

A

Shaft or journal speed

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50
Q

Lubricating oil is normally fed into a horizontal journal bearing from the?

A

Top

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51
Q

Journal and thrust bearings are more susceptible to damage during?

A

Both start up and shut down operations

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52
Q

While bearing clearances will vary because of different design and loading characteristics, it is generally est. that for each in. Of shaft diameter the clearance should be about?

A

.001”

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53
Q

T or F

The GE type generator thrust bearing obtains its equlalizing action from springs under the stationary segments.

A

True

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54
Q

Tor F

the protective material on the bearing surfaces of a GE type generator thrust bearing should not be removed.

A

False

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55
Q

Tor F
the basic elements of a Kinsbury thrust bearing are a rotating thrust collar, stationary tilting shoes, base ring, housings, lubricating system, cooling system and equalizing springs.

A

False

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56
Q

T or F

A Kingsbury thrust bearing is said to be “equalizing” if the load on the shoes is adjusted automatically

A

True

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57
Q

T or F
The principle behind the load carrying capacity of the Kingsbury type bearing is the formation of the wedge shaped oil film

A

True

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58
Q

T or F

The main advantage to calcium base grease is its water resistance

A

True

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59
Q

T or F

A trimetal bearing consists of a thin overlay of Babbitt on a leaded bronze lining on a steal back

A

True

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60
Q

T or F

Turbine oil stability is its ability to resist foaming

A

False

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61
Q

T or F

Viscosity index is a measure of an oils rate of change of viscosity with temperature.

A

True

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62
Q

The purpose of an oil ring in an oil lubricated oil bearing is to:

A

Carry oil to the bearing from the reservoir

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63
Q

A machine is a device used for converting force to useful work. It can be used to:

A

All three

change size of force, and speed or rate a force is acting

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64
Q

of the below statements concerning machine efficiency, which one is not a true statement?

A

Transformers are less efficient than reciprocating pumps.

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65
Q

A shaft or journal revolving in an oil lubricated bearing is usually identified with:

A

FLuid friction

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66
Q

a bearing that supports or restricts the longitudinal motion of a rotating shaft is called a:

A

Thrust bearing

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67
Q

all of the below factors have an effect on the formation of the desired oil wedge. Which one must the operators give the most careful attention to prevent bearing damage?

A

Shaft or journal speed

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68
Q

Lubricting oil is normally fed into a horizontal journal bearing from the:

A

top

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69
Q

journal and thrust bearings are more susceptible to damage during:

A

Both start up and shut down operations

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70
Q

while bearing clearances will vary somewhat because of different design and loading characteristics, it is generally est that for each inch of shaft diameter the clearance should be about:

A

.001”

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71
Q

all of the below statements relating to bearing load are true except:

A

Heavily loaded bearings generally require an oil low in viscosity.

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72
Q

all of the below statements concerning oil grooves in bearings are true except:

A

The oil bgroove is generally located in the high pressure area of the bearing.

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73
Q

An increase in bearing temp may indicate:

A

A combination of all three

change in surrounding air temp, insufficient oil, dirty oil

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74
Q

anti friction or roller bearings are made to carry:

A

any or all of the above

radial, thrust, or angular

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75
Q

ball bearing life may be shortened by:

A

all of the above

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76
Q

if the oil reservoir in a ring oiled bearing is carried too high the ring:

A

turns more slowly due to the increased friction in turning through the oil

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77
Q

the desired oil wedge is formed in a Kingsbury thrust bearing by:

A

tilting pivoted shoe

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78
Q

the below statements concerning a Kingsbury spherical thrust bearing are all true except:

A

The Kingsbury spherical thrust bearing combines the functions of a lower generator guide bearing and a thrust bearing.

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79
Q

Which of the following statements concerning vertical turbine guide bearings is true?

A

The lignum-vitae strips are inserted in the bearing shell.

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80
Q

Which of the below features is not normally found on a horizontal turbine thrust bearing installation?

A

Provisions for pressurized lubrication.

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81
Q

High pressure oil is injected into the bottom of a horizontal shaft turbine journal bearing help:

A

all of the above
lifting the weight of the rotating element off of the bearing Babbitt, during periods of starting and stopping, provides oil film between the surfaces at extremely low speeds.

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82
Q

Which of the following features is not normally found on a Gibbs horizontal turbine shaft thrust and journal bearing?

A

pivoted blocks and shoes

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83
Q

The revolving runner of a hydraulic turbine is said to have

A

rotating plane motion

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84
Q

the balls of the flyball governor, when the speed of rotation is increasing or decreasing, is said to have:

A

spherical motion

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85
Q

critical speed is defined as:

A

a speed that creates a centrifugal force greater than the elastic resolving force of the shaft.

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86
Q

all of the below statements concerning critical speed are true except:

A

each shaft will have only one critical speed

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87
Q

A mechanism that produces the snapping action when circuit breakers are opened or closed uses the principle of the:

A

toggle

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88
Q

which one of the below statements concerning belts and pulleys are not true?

A

the idler is to reverse direction of rotation of a belt drive

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89
Q

select one of the below statements concerning gears that is false.

A

Herringbone gears cause end thrust on the shafts.

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90
Q

most flexible couplings:

A

require some form of lubrication to reduce friction

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91
Q

hydraulic couplings are generally used with:

A

variable speed units

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92
Q

magnetic drives can be used as a:

A

all three:

clutch, slip coupling, reversible drive

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93
Q

the property which causes fluid lubricants to stick to solid bearings, or he force that attracts fluids to solids is:

A

adhesion

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94
Q

a rapid rise in total bearing friction is caused by:

A

All of the above

loss of fluid film, reduction in cohesion and an increase in adhesion qualities of the lubricant, excessive heat.

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95
Q

the ideal lubricant is one that will:

A

All of the above:
carry bearing load at max operating temp, maintain max adhesion at normal operating speeds, maintain proper degree of fluid friction.

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96
Q

which one of the below statements concerning the effect of lubrication on antifriction is not true?

A

the friction is generally lower when lubricated than when dry.

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97
Q

bearing lubricants:

A

all three:

reduce friction, carry away bearing heat, reduce wear and erosion of bearing surfaces.

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98
Q

the viscosity of an oil is generally measured by a:

A

viscosometer

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99
Q

which one of the below engine oils would have highest viscosity rating?

A

SAE 50

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100
Q

the rate of change in the viscosity of an oil for a given temp change refers to its:

A

viscosity index

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101
Q

a grease with a consistency number of 6 is:

A

harder than a number 2

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102
Q

the type of flood oil system used when the lubricated surfaces are to be always submerged in oil is:

A

bath

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103
Q

which of the below items that affect the ability of an oil to perform properly cannot be removed by a centrifuging process:

A

acid

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104
Q

grease is used in preference to oil to lubricate certain types of plain bearings because:

A

all three:

minimizes leakage, reduces throw, provides an effective seal.

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105
Q

the ideal quantity of grease for an antifriction bearing on a shaft 2 1/2 in in diameter would be:

A

1/3 to 1/2 full

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106
Q

centralized lubrication most nearly means:

A

the positive delivery of a predetermined amount of lubricant from one central point to a scattered # of lubrication points.

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107
Q

The pump that has 3 moving parts, a power rotor and two idler rotors is:

A

screw pump

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108
Q

in gear pumps the liquid is carried:

A

between the teeth and pump casing

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109
Q

the pump with no moving parts is the :

A

jet pump

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110
Q

the energy which a body or system of bodies has by virtue stresses, or the energy of position is:

A

potential energy

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111
Q

the cross section of the passage into which the water is discharged by the impeller of a volute pump gradually___ in area as the discharge opening of the pump Is approached.

A

increases

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112
Q

multistage centrifugal pumps are used where the discharge head is:

A

high

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113
Q

an impeller that has a side wall or shroud on each side of the vanes is classified as:

A

closed

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114
Q

the clearance between the rotating and stationary rings of a centrifugal pump is normally____ of an inch.

A

.012+.020

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115
Q

all centrifugal pumps are equipped with stuffing boxes or mechanical seals to prevent leakage through the clearance between the:

A

pump shaft and casing.

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116
Q

in stuffing boxes where the packing is placed on both sides of the lantern ring, the water is called:

A

seal water

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117
Q

one of the most common causes of centrifugal pump trouble is:

A

leaking stuffing boxes

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118
Q

the static force exerted by a column of water one foot high on an area of one square inch is:

A

.434 psi

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119
Q

the relation between capacity, rotative speed and head developed by an impeller is called:

A

specific speed

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120
Q

the ____ indicates the ratio, expressed in %, of useful output to the input, at different capacities and heads

A

efficiency curve

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121
Q

the frictional heat released in pumps is normally carried away by:

A

the liquid leaving the pump discharge

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122
Q

T or F

The term “specific speed” relates more to casing design and less to impeller design.

A

false

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123
Q

a 90 degree pipe bend has as much friction as ___feet of straight pipe

A

16ft

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124
Q

reciprocating pumps are:

A

positive displacement

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125
Q

the addition of energy to a liquid to move it from one point to another is called:

A

pumping

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126
Q

the faces of mechanical seals are held together by:

A

springs

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127
Q

which of the following would not be used with a pelton wheel?

A

wicket gates

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128
Q

pelton wheels:

A

may use two or more jets per wheel to obtain increased power

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129
Q

power available at the nozzle varies:

A

directly with the head and quantity of water.

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130
Q

water hammer:

A

can damage a penstock if not kept within reasonable limits

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131
Q

the purpose of an auxillary needle is to:

A

provide a means for reducing flow to an impulse wheel rapidly while reducing the flow more slowly through the penstock.

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132
Q

to deliver the same amount of power, a smaller diameter runner is required for a reaction turbine than for an impulse wheel because:

A

the entire circumference of the runner of the reaction turbine is being acted on by the water stream.

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133
Q

which of the following would not be found on a reaction turbine?

A

stripper

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134
Q

for most reaction turbines, greatest efficiency is obtained when the wicket gates are:

A

80-90% open

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135
Q

a draft tube:

A

increases the effective head of the turbine.

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136
Q

readings from a pressure gauge on the crown plate of a reaction turbine give a good indication of the :

A

seal ring effectiveness

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137
Q

a Kaplan turbine:

A

propeller blades adjust automatically to maintain best efficiency for gate position and variations in head.

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138
Q

Net head most nearly means:

A

gross or static head less the frictional losses in ft

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139
Q

which of the below factors would not generally contribute to cavitation damage?

A

little or no variation in effective head

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140
Q

how much head would not be required to develop 10,000hp from a turbine operating at 80% efficiency from a stream with a flow of 100cu/ft/sec

A

1100ft

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141
Q

what is the best speed of rotation in rpm for a pelton wheel 54in in diameter, on which the net head is 625ft?

A

360

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142
Q

commutator segments are insulated from each other by:

A

sheet mica

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143
Q

most DC generator brushes that carry the current from the commutator to the external circuit are made of:

A

carbon and graphite

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144
Q

the degree that the neutral plane of a DC generator will shift under load is:

A

proportional to the load

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145
Q

DC generators are generally classified according to the manner in which:

A

the field windings are connected to the armature circuit

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146
Q

the effects of armature reaction in a DC generator are reduced by the use of:

A

commutating or interpoles

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147
Q

a shunt wound DC generator will build up to full terminal voltage with no external load connected to it due to:

A

self excitation

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148
Q

the part of a DC generator into which the working voltage is induced is the:

A

armature

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149
Q

the field coil windings of a self excited DC generator are:

A

any of the above:

series, shunt,compound

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150
Q

the rated voltage value of a DC generator will be reached faster if the generator is:

A

self excited

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151
Q

A shunt most nearly means a:

A

parallel circuit

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152
Q

which of the following is true regarding the speed regulation of a shunt motor?

A

it has a constant speed characteristic under carrying loads

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153
Q

a DC series motor is more adaptable where a:

A

wide variation of torque is req’d and wide variation in speed are allowable

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154
Q

when the load is applied to a DC shunt motor, hich one of the following will happen?

A

speed decreases- counter EMF goes down

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155
Q

the counter EMF of a DC motor is zero when the:

A

armature is not turning

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156
Q

the horsepower developed by a motor depends mainly upon which of the following 2 factors?

A

speed and torque

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157
Q

a motor which has an output of 820 watts and an input of 960 watts has an efficiency of approx.:

A

85%

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158
Q

if the no load speed of a shunt motor is 1800 rpm and the full load speed is 1475rpm, the speed regulation is:

A

22%

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159
Q

the generated voltage (counter emf) if a motor:

A

opposes the impressed voltage

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160
Q

too much resistance inserted in the field circuit of a shunt or compound motor will:

A

allow the motor to overspeed and destroy itself

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161
Q

the main purpose of the commutator on a DC motor is to:

A

automatically reverse the armature polarity each time the brushes move from one segment to another.

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162
Q

the variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of the wound rotor AC motor is for the purpose of:

A

starting torque control

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163
Q

the more common method of starting a synchronous motor is:

A

with a squirrel cage type of winding on the outer edge of the field poles.

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164
Q

the synchronous speed of an induction motor is the:

A

speed of the revolving field

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165
Q

what factor determines the rotor speed of an induction motor?

A

any or all of the above

frequency, slip, # of poles

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166
Q

A synchronous motor differs from an induction motor in that it:

A

all of the above

not self starting, requires an AC and DC power supply, may be used for power factor correction.

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167
Q

the direction of rotation of an induction is:

A

same as direction of revolving field

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168
Q

the principle parts of an induction motor are the:

A

stator and rotor

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169
Q

the type of connection used with a 3 phase squirrel cage motor where 58% of the line voltage is impressed on the field coils for starting, and 100% full load operation is called.

A

wye-delta

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170
Q

when large induction motors are started across-the-line under loaded conditions:

A

all of the above statements are true

171
Q

under what conditions can a 3 phase synchronous motor be used to correct a lagging power factor?

A

when the counter EMF is caused to become greater than the terminal voltage

172
Q

the speed of a synchronous motor is governed by the:

A

line frequency and number of poles in the motor.

173
Q

the difference between the speed of the revolving field of the stator and the actual speed of the rotor of an induction motor is called the:

A

slip

174
Q

why does the capacitor motor have a higher starting torque than the inductively displaced split-phase motor?

A

greater displacement between its start and main winding currents.

175
Q

in a split-phase starting arrangement to allow a single-phase AC induction motor to start automatically, the starting winding may be placed in series with a capacitor. the effect of this capacitor is to:

A

produce a revolving field by shifting the phase relationship between the starting winding and running winding.

176
Q

a motor is rated at 10hp. it is drawing 10,000 watts from the line. its efficiency is therefore:

A

75%

177
Q

an armature is always the:

A

conductors into which voltage is induced

178
Q

the AC field is always the:

A

conductors through which DC exciter current flows

179
Q

the output of a revolving field type AC generator Is taken from:

A

fixed terminals

180
Q

the revolving field type AC generator is most widely used because:

A

All of the above

181
Q

the armature windings of a 3 phase AC generator are physically placed so that the induced voltages are out of phase by:

A

120 degrees

182
Q

the output frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the:

A

number of poles and rotor speed

183
Q

the field pole windings on AC generators are connected in:

A

series

184
Q

the load rating of an AC generator is determined by the:

A

internal heat it can withstand

185
Q

the voltage output of an AC generator is controlled by:

A

varying the DC exciter voltage

186
Q

All of the below statements apply to a wye-connected AC generator except

A

the phase winding voltage is equal to the phase-to-phase voltage

187
Q

Armature reaction is most nearly associated with the effects of:

A

armature flux

188
Q

the terminal voltage of an AC generator is affected by:

A

All 3 of the above factors

189
Q

the terminal voltage of an AC generator will change with a change in load characteristics. the below statements apply to this principle and are all true except for:

A

the terminal voltage will tend to drop with a leading power factor

190
Q

before connecting two or more 3 phase AC generators in parallel it is necessary that:

A

All 3 of the above

191
Q

the voltage of an AC generator rises from the 4600 volts at full load to 5350 volts at no load. The % regulation is approximately:

A

16

192
Q

which one of the following items would not cause a low lagging power factor?

A

transmission lines

193
Q

in order to maintain losses as low as possible, what would be the best location for sources of VARs?

A

Adjacent to the customers equipment

194
Q

which of the following changes in system operating conditions would tend to change a lagging power factor from .85 to .90?

A

an increase in the field excitation of a synchronous condenser

195
Q

a synchronous condenser which is in operation at the time of a system disturbance:

A

will have a stabilizing effect on the system

196
Q

during off peak periods on power system it may sometimes be necessary to operate the synchronous condenser under excited:

A

because long transmission lines cause static capacitive effect which may over balance the inductive effect of the load during that time.

197
Q

when a synchronous condenser is producing VARs:

A

an increase in DC field current will cause an increase in reactive power

198
Q

which one of the following statements concerning capacitors is not correct?

A

capacitors increase the amount of current being carried in a circuit.

199
Q

in a system using capacitors for power factor correction:

A

all three
installed in parallel, installed is sufficient # to supply desired amount of reactive power, not economically practical to correct power factor unity.

200
Q

capacitors are:

A

sometimes installed in series with the distribution circuit

201
Q

From the power triangle diagram below, what would be the power factor of the circuit if a 40kva capacitor were installed?

A

97%

202
Q

the voltage output of an AC generator is controlled by:

A

varying the DC exciter voltage

203
Q

the major difference between various voltage regulator systems is merely the method by which:

A

field circuit resistance and current are controlled

204
Q

the voltage held by the vibrating type voltage regulator can be adjusted by:

A

varying the weight (W) and adjusting the tension of DC solenoid spring

205
Q

all of the following statements concerning the rheostat type voltage regulator are true except for:

A

the primary purpose of the exciter field rheostat is to adjust the generator output voltage.

206
Q

wide range excitation control is sometimes provided for in voltage regulator arrangments for large generators using separately excited main exciters by using a:

A

wheatstone bridge rheostat

207
Q

when the regulator control switch for the amplidyne voltage regulator is in the ON the position the effect is to:

A

all 3 above
reduce exciter field current, lower exciter voltage, and decrease the field current and terminal voltage of the AC generator.

208
Q

in order to provide for proper division of reactive current between AC generators operating in parallel, their voltage regulators incorporate a scheme called:

A

cross current compensation

209
Q

of the following statements concerning synchronous condensers, which one is not true?

A

the excitation range is maintained less than that for AC generators to prevent loss of synchronism

210
Q

in the rheostat type voltage regulator, when the terminal voltage of the AC generator starts to fall the action of the torque motor:

A

short-circuits more of the high resistance plates

211
Q

system stability can be maintained and a faster time response to load changed obtained by using voltage regulators equipped with:

A

both a feedback control system and an electronically controlled separate motor

212
Q

voltage drop in a distribution system may be overcome by:

A

all three
changing from an overhead to an underground system, using load tap changing transformers, using feeder voltage regulators

213
Q

which of the following statements concerning regulated feeder voltage is not true?

A

the degree of illumination provided by incandescent lamps will not be affected by variations of voltage in the order of 1%

214
Q

the principle of operation of a feeder voltage regulator is very similar to that of a:

A

transformer

215
Q

in an induction type voltage regulator

A

only the primary winding rotates

216
Q

the purpose of the short-circuited winding in an induction type voltage regulator is to:

A

control voltage drop

217
Q

which one of the following statements most nearly describes the operating principle of a step type voltage regulator?

A

auto transfer with taps and a reversing switch.

218
Q

the total # of 5/8% voltage steps provided in most type voltage regulator is?

A

32

219
Q

the kind on insulating coolant preferred for use in the step type voltage regulator is:

A

transformer oil

220
Q

a grounded feeder system using step type voltage regulators will require:

A

three regulators wye-connected with a common neutral.

221
Q

two fully loaded 10% regulators are supplying a balanced three phase load of 600 amps at 240 volts. what is the rating of each regulator?

A

144,000va

222
Q

a program designed to improve vlv care and operating and maintenance procedures will promote:

A

all three

plant reliability, plant safety, and plant efficiency

223
Q

the metal offering the greatest resistance to cavitation is:

A

stainless steel

224
Q

chromium and nickel are both added to steel to improve its ability to:

A

resist acid corrosion and cavitation

225
Q

resistance to flow through a vlv can be caused by:

A

All three

metal roughness, proturberance inside the vlv, change in the direction of flow

226
Q

which of the following fittings would not normally be used with a gate vlv?

A

outside lever and weight

227
Q

a quick opening vlv should be closed slowly to:

A

prevent hydraulic shock caused by water hammer

228
Q

all of the below vlvs may be float operated except?

A

blowoff vlvs

229
Q

which of the below vlvs would normally be used to regulate fluid volume in a hydroelectric plant?

A

needle vlvs

230
Q

what type of gate vlv would most likely be used to reduce as much as possible the erosive action of water flowing at high velocity through high pressure gates?

A

paradox

231
Q

all of the following vlvs are normally used for crest control except:

A

paradox gate

232
Q

vlvs are rated by the ___ and temp they are designed to handle.

A

pressure

233
Q

the highest working pressure rating used for vlvs is:

A

steam

234
Q

pressure drop can be defined as a ___ in energy or a ___ in pressure, in a pipeline, due to the resistance in it.

A

loss:reduction

235
Q

what type of connections would you use on a large vlv?

A

flanged

236
Q

a ___ vlv has a “s” shaped path and is used for ___ flow.

A

globe:throttling

237
Q

stem packing is used to prevent fluid from leaking between the vlv___ and the vlv body.

A

stem

238
Q

which vlv does not require packing?

A

diaphragm vlv

239
Q

air vents include:

A

ball float vlvs, vacuum breakers, coffin vlv, safety and relief vlvs

240
Q

piston operated vlvs require ___ pressure to operate.

A

hydraulic

241
Q

needle vlvs are used for?

A

all of the above

regulating flow, a shutoff vlv, impulse wheels

242
Q

if all other factors are held constant, the volume of a dry gas decreases:

A

in direct proportion to an increase in its pressure.

243
Q

absolute pessure is equal to:

A

gauge pressure plus 14.7psi

244
Q

if 500 cubic inches of gas under a pressure of 15 psia is compressed to 20 cubic inchies, what will the new pressure be?

A

375psia

245
Q

the quantity and pressure of air discharged from a centrifugal fan depends on the:

A

all three

size of fan rotor, speed of fan rotor, and density of air

246
Q

increasing the speed of an unbalanced shaft will:

A

move the center of gravity further from the axis of rotation thereby increasing the unbalance

247
Q

which of the following conditions would not normally contribute to a reciprocating air compressor explosion?

A

excessive compressed air demands

248
Q

large reciprocating air compressors are generally unloaded while starting and stopping to:

A

reduce the starting torque and permit more gradual stopping

249
Q

the temp at which molecules of water vapor begin to condense upon the surface of objects as air is cooled is called the:

A

dew point

250
Q

high outlet compressed air temps could be caused by all of the following except?

A

low oil level

251
Q

air receivers are installed on all reciprocating air compressors to:

A

all of the above

dampen pressure waves, reduce pressure drops and remove moisture or sludge.

252
Q

the five essential parts basic to every compression refrigeration system are:

A

evaporator, compressor, condenser, receiver, and expansion vlv.

253
Q

when a receiver safety vlv blows prematurely ___ could be the problem.

A

safety vlv set below cut-out pressure.

254
Q

one lb per square inch of air pressure is equivalent to ___ inches of mercury.

A

2.036

255
Q

T or F

centrifugal compressors are positive are positive-displacement devices.

A

false

256
Q

For every ___ lower intake air temjp, the gain in efficiency of an air compressor is approx. 1%.

A

5 degrees

257
Q

T or F

air compressors are used for the operation of both oil and air blast circuit breakers.

A

true

258
Q

T or F

the most common type of modern air compressor is the rotary vane type

A

false

259
Q

T or F

keeping the reservoir oil at the prescribed level will help maintain the proper oil temp.

A

true

260
Q

T or F

kerosene is the recommended agent for cleaning air filters in an air compressor.

A

False

261
Q

T or F

eliminating dust- laden intake air can minimize the possibility of explosions in air compressors.

A

true

262
Q

what is the area in square inches of a piston 6 in in diameter?

A

28.3

263
Q

the pressure at the bottom of a column of oil 20ft high is __ psi.

A

8

264
Q

the result of pressure acting on an area is called ___.

A

force

265
Q

the pressure required to push oil through three 100psi check vlvs in series is ___psi.

A

300

266
Q

factors affecting the speed of an actuator are the flow rate of oil and the piston ___.

A

area

267
Q

the volume of oil a cylinder will hold can be determined by multiplying the piston are by the ___.

A

Stroke length

268
Q

resistance to flow creates ___.

A

pressure

269
Q

the pressure available to force liquid into a pump is usually ___.

A

atmospheric

270
Q

the rate at which work is performed is determined by the __ and ___ size (hydraulic components)

A

actuator:pump

271
Q

if a force of 950lbs is applied over a 30sq in area, the pressure developed would be ___psi.

A

31.6

272
Q

the function of a directional vlv to control the fluid___.

A

direction

273
Q

the quantity of force exerted over a distance with no time element considered is called___.

A

work

274
Q

horsepower can be calculated by multiplying the GPM by the pressure and the constant___.

A

.000583

275
Q

when fluid flow is turbulent, friction varies as the square of the ___.

A

velocity

276
Q

the design of a hydraulic circuit begins with the ___.

A

actuator

277
Q

a relief vlv limits the maximum pressure at the ___ port to the directional vlv.

A

inlet

278
Q

force per unit area is called ___.

A

pressure

279
Q

the input hydraulic component in a hydraulic system is called the __.

A

pump

280
Q

what is considered the source of power in a hydraulic circuit

A

prime mover

281
Q

inlet pressure of a pump is usually measured in __.

A

inches H.G.

282
Q

a hydraulic device which uses the impact or kinetic energy in the liquid to transmit power is called a ___ device.

A

hydrodynamic

283
Q

when a device is operated by pressure on a confined fluid, it is called a ___ device, pressure being the force per unit area (lbs/ sq. in. or psi)

A

hydrostatic

284
Q

the tendency to cause flow (or the push) may be supplied by a mechanical pump or maybe caused simply by the ___ of fluid.

A

weight

285
Q

pressure per sq in which is created by the height of the fluid is called ___. this varies with the type of fluid being considered depending upon its weight per cubic foot (density).

A

pressure head

286
Q

atmospheric pressure= ___ pounds per sq in absolute

A

14.7

287
Q

the pressure at the top of the barometer tube is ___.

A

0psi

288
Q

30 psig= ___psia

A

44.7

289
Q

the flow of a fluid can be measured by either velocity (e.g. ft per second, or ft per min) or by ___.

A

flow rate

290
Q

5GPM= ___ cubic in per min.

A

1155

291
Q

a difference in pressure at 2 different points in a horizontal hydraulic line indicates that there is ___.

A

flow

292
Q

working pressure at the pump outlet is the sum of the ___ created by fluid friction within the piping and system components and the pressure needed to perform the work req’d.

A

pressure

293
Q

when the particles of the fluid move parallel to each other and to the walls of the pipe, flow is said to be ___.

A

laminar

294
Q

abrupt changes in flow direction or too high a velocity of the fluid may cause ___ flow.

A

turbulent

295
Q

two forms of energy within the hydraulic fluid are ___ and potential.

A

kinetic

296
Q

if flow ___ at various points in a hydraulic system remains constant, the same of the pressure energy and kinetic energy are also constant (ignoring frictional loss).

A

rate

297
Q

working lines carry main system flow from the pump inlet through the system and also return flow to reservoir. ___ lines carry fluid for control and operation of other vlvs or components. drain lines return leakage oil to reservoir.

A

pilot

298
Q

a circle with an energy triangle at the circumference pointing outward for a pump or ___ in the case of a motor is called a graphical symbol.

A

inward

299
Q

how many envelopes are in the symbol for relief vlv?

A

one

300
Q

connecting lines drawn to the bottom of the reservoir symbol represent lines that terminate ___ fluid lvl.

A

below

301
Q

how many positions does the directional vlv in fig 2-18 have.

A

three

302
Q

the hydraulic fluid is the medium for power transmission, and it also serves as a sealer, coolant, and ___.

A

lubricant

303
Q

the hydraulic fluid should be compatible with materials used for ___.

A

sealing

304
Q

viscosity is the measure of a fluids resistance to ___.

A

flow

305
Q

kinematic viscosity is the most common way of measuring ___.

A

viscosity

306
Q

if viscosity is too high, pressures req’d for operation will increase due to increased fluid ___.

A

friction

307
Q

the measure of a fluids rate of change in viscosity with change in temp is called viscosity____.

A

index

308
Q

heat, pressure, water, contaminants, metal surfaces are ___.

A

catalysis

309
Q

the property of an oil which allows water to separate from its, is called oxidation ___.

A

demulsibility

310
Q

a good grade of premium quality hydraulic oil contains various:

A

additives

311
Q

fire resistant fluids may be of the water-in-oil emulsion type, water glycol, oil-in-water, and___.

A

synthetics

312
Q

the four primary purposes of hydraulic fluids are ___.

A

All of the above

313
Q

high specific gravity fluids may be more critical in causing pump ___.

A

cavitation

314
Q

the close mechanical fit and the ___ of the oil, determine leakage rate.

A

viscosity

315
Q

pour point is the lowest temperature at which a fluid will ___.

A

flow

316
Q

synthetic fluids are usually more suitable for operation at higher ___ than water based fluids,

A

temperatures

317
Q

resistance encountered when moving one layer of liquid over another is ___ ___.

A

absolute viscosity

318
Q

a chemical reaction between a metal and a chemical is called ___.

A

corrosion

319
Q

which one of the following is not a catalyst to oxidation?

A

Acid

320
Q

invert emulsions depend on ___ content for their fire-resistant properties.

A

water

321
Q

phosphate esters attack elastomers, and are not compatable with some ___ and ___.

A

paints: plastics

322
Q

pipe sizes are specified by ___ size and wall thickness.

A

nominal

323
Q

the schedule # for standard pipe is ___.

A

40

324
Q

one advantage of tubing over pipe is the ease of ___ to shape.

A

bending

325
Q

the specified sizes for tubing refer to the ___>

A

O.D.

326
Q

sealing between sections of tubing is obtained by the use of various types of ___.

A

fittings

327
Q

the four primary purposes of hydraulic fluid are ___.

A

all of the above

328
Q

lip type seals are used principally on ___ shafts.

A

rotating

329
Q

an elastic or rubber-like material that contains no natural rubber is called an ___.

A

elastometer

330
Q

nitrile (Buna-N) has a reasonably wide temp. range, which is ___ degrees Fahrenheit.

A

250 degrees F

331
Q

one of the several ways to reduce leakage is with the use of ___ mounted vlvs.

A

back

332
Q

back mounting refers to panel type installations where pipe or tubing is ___ connected to subplates.

A

permanently

333
Q

what type of seal is installed in an annular groove?

A

O-ring

334
Q

after installation a seal began to wear quickly and leak, which meant it was probably not ___ before installation

A

lubricated

335
Q

at too high a temp a seal may harden, swell or ___.

A

soften

336
Q

what type of inexpensive sealing material is widely used in modern hydraulic systems?

A

nitrile

337
Q

to prevent a return line in a reservoir from bottoming, it is often cut off at an angle of ___ degrees.

A

45

338
Q

an adequate reservoir size for a 10GPM pump would be ___ gallons

A

30

339
Q

the plate that prevents the return fluid from recirculating directly back to the inlet is called the ___.

A

baffle

340
Q

the returning fluid to the reservoir is usually ___ then the supply fluid.

A

warmer

341
Q

the filler hole in a reservoir is provided with a ___screen.

A

removable

342
Q

reservoirs are made with connections on top that are set on ___ to keep out.

A

risers

343
Q

what is NOT one of the 3 most common standard reservoir designs?

A

wedge shaped

344
Q

fluids with a ___ viscosity index must be kept warm by heaters.

A

low

345
Q

reservoir temp is controlled by ___.

A

all of the above

346
Q

for reservoir capacity of at least ____ should be provided.

A

20%

347
Q

a strainer is called a ___ filter.

A

coarse

348
Q

a particle one micron in size equals ___ inch.

A

.000039

349
Q

a filter designed to signal the operator when the element needs cleaning is called a ___ filter.

A

indicating

350
Q

three general areas for locating a filter are inlet, pressure and ___ lines.

A

return

351
Q

what type of filter element provides precise control of pore size?

A

surface

352
Q

filtering materials are classified as absorbent or ___.

A

adsorbent

353
Q

what type of filter passes the entire flow entering its inlet through the element.

A

full flow

354
Q

the smallest particle an eye can see is approximately ___ microns.

A

40

355
Q

hydraulic circuit components fail as a result of contamination and ___.

A

design

356
Q

if the fluid within the hydraulic pump clearances become heavily contaminated, ____ will probably occur,

A

seizure

357
Q

which of the following is not a mechanism of wear?

A

filtration

358
Q

contamination blockage which prevents and then allows a solenoid spool to shift is called a ___ failure.

A

transient

359
Q

an increase in the pressure differential across a filter will cause an ___ in power consumption.

A

increase

360
Q

when specifying the correct filter for a given application , which of the following would not be considered?

A

flow sampling method

361
Q

which is not a source of contamination in a hydraulic system?

A

entrained

362
Q

the preferred location for dynamic sampling is directly ___ of the return line filter.

A

upstream

363
Q

after hydraulic system assembly, tubing must not be soldered, welded or ___.

A

brazed

364
Q

when transferring clean oil, the transfer pump should be equipped with a ___ filter.

A

5 micron

365
Q

filters that can trap much smaller particles than inlet line strainers are ___ ___ filters.

A

pressure line

366
Q

the higher the sieve or mesh # the ___ the screen.

A

finer

367
Q

to test for filter material compatibility, the filter element is immersed for ___ hrs is system fluid.

A

72

368
Q

in cylindrical shaped filter elements, ___ tubes are used to support the media against pressure differential.

A

perforated

369
Q

hydraulic fiberglass filter elements tend to have a ___ filtering structure.

A

pleated

370
Q

to eliminate the possibility of filter elements collapse, a ___ vlv is used.

A

bypass

371
Q

to monitor initial and subsequent lvls of contamination ____ points must be provided.

A

sampling

372
Q

ram type cylinders are usually returned by ___.

A

gravity

373
Q

double acting cylinders are returned by ___.

A

hydraulics

374
Q

with a delivery of 3GPM to the cap end of a two inch diameter cylinder, the speed is ___ in.min

A

220.6

375
Q

the force exerted by a 3 in diameter ram at 2000 psi is ___ pounds.

A

14,137

376
Q

what pressure is developed when exerting a 14000 lb force over a piston area of seven sq in? ___psi

A

2,000

377
Q

the displacement of a hydraulic motor is the amount of fluid in cubic in to make one ____.

A

revolution

378
Q

torque ratings of hydraulic motors are usually given in pound- in. or pound-ft. per ____PSI.

A

100

379
Q

a winch req’s 50lb/ ft maximum torque to operate. what size hydraulic motor is needed if max pressure is limited to 1,500 PSI? ___ lb- inches per 100 psi

A

40

380
Q

a 20 pound- inch motor operates with a torque load of 500 pound- inches. what is the operating pressure? ___psi

A

2,500

381
Q

which of the following is not a class of hydraulic motors?

A

LMPG

382
Q

in “balanced” design motors the vanes are held out against the cam ring surface by the use of system ___.

A

pressure

383
Q

in high performance vane motors, coil springs hold the vanes against the ring. the vanes are essentially in hydraulic ___.

A

balance

384
Q

torque is developed in the in-line piston motor through the angular relationship of the pistons to the ___.

A

swash plate

385
Q

when the displacement of a variable motor is increased, the torque availability is ___.

A

increased

386
Q

the most efficient hydraulic motor is the ___ type.

A

piston

387
Q

motor displacement is varied in response to workload changes by the ___ control.

A

compensator

388
Q

devices which usually cannot rotate continuously in one direction are ____.

A

Both A & C

variable generators and torque generators

389
Q

internal gear motors fall into two categories; direct drive and ___.

A

orbiting

390
Q

a hydraulic motor which will not permit continuous rotation in either direction is a ___ motor.

A

limited rotation

391
Q

directional vlvs control the ___ of fluid flow.

A

direction

392
Q

directional vlvs that shift to definite positions are sometimes referred to as ___ positioning vlvs.

A

finite

393
Q

a simple ___ vlv permits fluid flow in one direction and blocks flow in the reverse direction

A

check

394
Q

check vlvs containing heavier springs than a nominal 5 psi are often used as a simple ___ vlvs

A

relief

395
Q

directional vlvs are used to reverse a cylinder or motor are usually ___ ___ vlvs.

A

four way

396
Q

directional control vlvs may be shifted ____.

A

all of the above

mechanically, electrically, hydraulically

397
Q

a solenoid operated spring offset vlv has ___ finite positions

A

two

398
Q

an integral part of a prefill vlv that prevents hydraulic shock is a ___ ___.

A

decompression vlv

399
Q

pilot pressure for a solenoid controlled pilot operated directional vlv may be supplied ___.

A

both A & B

internally and externally

400
Q

the device that can be added to a solenoid controlled pilot operated vlv to control the rate of main spool shift is called an ___.

A

pilot choke

401
Q

when large vlv spools are shifted hydraulically, pilot pistons are sometimes used to obtain ____ shift times.

A

faster.

402
Q

the adjustable- orifice deceleration vlv provides an external adjustment to utilize full spool travel regardless of ___ ___ through the vlv.

A

flow rate

403
Q

a simple kind of flow control that restricts the distance a spool can shift is:

A

stroke limiter

404
Q

Line mounted directional spool vlvs are more frequently found in ___ applications.

A

mobile

405
Q

T or F

is the graphic symbol a 2 position 4 way control vlv?

A

False

406
Q

at which flow rate does a tapered plunger design vlv lose control?

A

low

407
Q

the type of vlv that allows load creep is a ___ ___ vlv.

A

window orifice

408
Q

a vlv that slows a drill head from fast advance to feed speed is a ___ vlv.

A

deceleration

409
Q

vlvs that use atmospheric pressure to push large volumes of fluid through them are ___ vlvs

A

prefill

410
Q

which of the following is not an actuator category?

A

directional

411
Q

the work of pumping consists of discharging a quantity of liquid or gas against a/an:

A

resistance

412
Q

the motion exerted by pumps on the fluids pumped may be due to:

A

all of the above

reciprocating action, centrifugal action, jet action

413
Q

fluid density, height fluid must be raised, pipe friction, and static pressure all relate to:

A

total pump head

414
Q

check vlvs are sometimes installed in the suction line of pumps to:

A

prevent suction loss or shutdown

415
Q

what type of pump can be operated with the discharge vlv closed

A

centrifugal

416
Q

what type of pump operates on the velocity, restriction principle?

A

ejector

417
Q

what type of pump is best suited for the handling of dirty water

A

non positive displacement

418
Q

the purpose of the volute type of casing or diffusion vanes of centrifugal pumps is to:

A

reduce the velocity and increase the pressure of the discharging fluid

419
Q

the laws governing the temperature-pressure relations of the liquids explain why a force must be used to cause a liquid flow into a pump and relate most nearly to :

A

net positive suction head

420
Q

inter stage leakage in multistage centrifugal pumps is most usually controlled by the use of:

A

wearing rings

421
Q

the purpose of wearing rings or labrynth rings in centrifugal pumps is to:

A

all three of the above

control inter stage losses, reduce recirculation losses, and reduce maintenance costs,

422
Q

the finction of the lantern ring in the stuffing box of a centrifugal pump is to:

A

distribute sealing or lubricating water around the pump shaft

423
Q

in what part of a centrifugal pump is the kinetic energy in the fluid converted to potential or pressure energy??

A

the casing