Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Test > 2 > Flashcards

2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of medicines that are identified as high risk, and so useful for MURs

A

NSAIDs –> Adherance to gastric protection?
Anticoagulants (including LMWHs) –> APTT
Antiplatelets –> Possible GI Bleed (No aspirin!)
Diuretics –> Non-adherence is bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name some things that determine whether we monitor certain patients?

A

The drug they’re on –> Warfarin needed more than in paracetamol

Disease state –> Drugs like paracetamol are more important when being used in somebody with liver dysfunction, than in those with a healthy liver

Acute Disease –> More intensive than chronic diseases

Certain Patient Factors –> Eg, when pregnant, immunocompromised and the elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Whats the DOTS classification? In terms of adverse drug reactions

A

Dose Relatedness –> They can occur at 3 different levels…
Supra-therapeutic = Toxic levels
Therapeutic levels = Collateral (unintentional) effects
Sub-therapeutic = Hyper-susceptibility reactions

Time –> Can occur at anytime, but often due to changes in patient factors (such as renal function)

Susceptibility –> Varies due to patient factors (eg, age/gender/pregnancy/co-morbidities/drug interactions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is duty of candour?

A

A legal duty that tells us that we have to own up to our mistakes and be held responsible for them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 4 guiding principles of Medicines Optimisation?

A

Aim to understand the patients experience
Evidence based choice of medicine
Ensure medicines use is as safe as possible
Make medicines optimisation a part of routine practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What’s the difference between an adverse drug reaction, and an adverse drug event?

A

Drug Reaction –> A reaction that is reasonably attributable to the drug

Drug Event –> An event that occurs whilst a patient is taking a drug (but the drug isn’t necessarily the cause of the event)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of monitoring parameter does recording INR fall under?

A

Haemotological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many of the 400 MURs a year must be done on targeted groups?

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 4 Patient Orientated Outcomes (POOs)?

A

Reduction in side effect and medication errors
Better access to a large range of services
More effective use of medicines
Greater involvement in my own care with support when needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Medicines Optimisation?

A

An approach to the quality use of medicines that aims to produce the best possible outcomes for patients and maximise the value from medicines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 4 largest groups of drugs that cause ADRs?

A

Diuretics
NSAIDs
Warfarin
Antiplatelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long does it normally take an IV drug to reach the steady state?

A

4 half lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 4 Clinical Laboratory Services?

A

Clinical Biochemistry
Haematology/Immunology
Histopathology
Microbiology/Virology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 2 types of contraindications?

A

Relative –> Caution should be used, but the drugs can be used if the benefits outweigh the benefits

Absolute –> The interaction could cause a life-threatening situation. This should always be avoided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What treatments should be given for somebody undergoing an anaphalactic shock?And why?

A

Adrenaline –> Reduces swelling, wheezing and increases BP

Steroids –> Reduction of inflammation and swelling

Antihistamines –> Reduces swelling and inflammation

IV Fluids –> Replaces fluids that are lost through leaky capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which group of drugs has caused the most ADRs?

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 4 target areas for an NMS?

A

Hypertension
Anti-platelet/Anticoagulant
Type 2 diabetes
Asthma/COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

<p>What is clinical governance?</p>

A 
Audits
Risk management
Education and Training
Openness
R&amp;D
Clinical effectiveness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the conditions for a respiratory MUR?

A

Must be on 2 medications, with at least one being for asthma or COPD and on the list for an NMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Medicines optimisation will offer a step change in how issues are addressed through….

A

Patient Engagement
A Focus on Outcomes
Pharmaceutical Leadership
A holistic view across the medicines pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When should a Post Discharge MUR be done?

A

4 weeks after discharge ideally…..but can be 8 weeks in certain circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the main risk factors of the drug to patients, in reference to allergies?

A

Nature of the Drug –> Aspirin/Penicillins/anticonvulsants/antipsychotics

Degree of Exposure –> Occurs more for intermediate courses than of moderate doses

Route of Administration –> Oral safer than IV, but topical is more sensitising

Cross-Reactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the conditions for a cardiovascular MUR?

A

Patients with, or at risk of, CVD and on at least 4 medications

One of these medications must be for CVD, Diabetes or thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What characteristics of a drug means we need to monitor drug levels in the serum?

A

When there is a large degree of inter-patient variability
Narrow therapeutic-index
Odd/unpredictable PKs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

State the ABCDE classifications of adverse drug reactions

A 
A = Augmented
B = Bizarre
C = Chronic --> Continuous exposure
D = Delayed --> occurs a long time after exposure
E = End of use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In medicines optimisation, what does QIPP stand for?

A

Quality
Innervation
Productivity
Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

To be competent, or have capacity to consent, a patient must be able to do what 4 things?

A

Understand the information that has been given
Believe the information
Be able to retain and weigh up the information to make a decision
Be free from any kind of duress (against their will) to make the decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who can report ADRs to the MHRA? (yellow card scheme)

A

Anyone!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What’s the difference between Allergy and Intolerance?

A

Allergy –> When an immune system react to substances in the environment that are harmless to most people

A type B (Bizarre) hypersensitivityIntolerance –> When somebody has a lower threshold to the normal pharmacological action of a drug

A type A (Augmented) hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which is the most frequent type of prescribing error?

A

Dosage errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What was found to have the greatest impact on dispensing errors?

A

Workload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Part XVIIIA?

A

The black listThese items cannot be prescribed/dispensed on the NHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 3 different categories for drugs in Part VIIIA?

A

Cat A –> Drugs that are readily avaliable
BB is allowed for smallest pack size of over £50

Cat C –> Priced on basis of drugs that are not readily available as generics
BB is allowed

Cat M –> Readily available drugs which the department of health determines the reimbursement price
BB is allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the 4 criteria that a pharmacy must adhere to, to qualify for the quality payment scheme?

A

Offering MUR/NMS
NHS Choices entry for pharmacy must be up-to-date
Pharmacy staff must be able to send/receive NHS emails
EPS2 must be being used ongoing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A script for 105ml of amoxicillin oral suspension comes into your pharmacy. If you only have bottles of 100ml avaliable….what quantity do you supply?

A

200mlThis is because you have to fully supply the script, and the NHS BSA will pay you for the full 200ml, not just the 105ml on the Rx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When would a script be endorsed as NCSO?

A

When a drug (in part VIII) cannot be obtained for a reason, and so a more expensive version needs to be bought instead….like a branded version (above the price stated in the drug tariff)NCSO = No cheaper stock avaliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which part of the Drug Tariff states the ‘Basic Prices of Drugs’?

A

Part VIIIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the Selected List Scheme (SLS)?

A

When certain drugs can be given on an FP10, when normally blacklisted, under specific circumstancesEg, Clobazam for epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Part IX?

A

AppliancesAll are out unless stated…. so specific dimensions are needed for things like dressings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the 2 lists included in Part XV Borderline substances?

A

List A –> Products and conditions for what each product can be used for (alphabetical index of products)

List B –> Conditions and what products can be used (alphabetical index of conditions)The script should have been endorsed with ACBS by the prescriber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Give a couple of examples of drugs that dont have their discount (from the manufacturer) deducted via the NHS

A 
Immunoglobulins
Insulins for injections
Vaccines
Cold Chain storage items
Sch 1/2/3/ CDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When would a script be endorsed with BB?

A

BB = Broken BulkThis would be done when the quantity on the Rx is less than the minimum amount that can be ordered from the supplier. This is usually for an unusual product that you won’t supply again.So you still get paid for the stock that is left over, that otherwise wouldnt be used. You cannot claim this for another 6 months on the same product (as it is assumed you’ve used the left over quantitiy to supply any more scripts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When would a script be endorsed with XP or OOP?

A

XP/OOP = Out of pocket
This would be done in exceptional circumstances when there has been a high cost to get a product in that is not often dispensed (eg, delivery charges for specials)The cost must exceed 50p

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What do you need to keep CDs in a non-regulation storage container (eg, a safe or gun locker)?

A

An exemption certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How many months worth of CDs are you allowed to take abroad without a licence?

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the 3 drugs that can be prescribed for addiction that require the Dr to have a specific licence?

A

Diamorphine, Cocaine and Dipipanone (and salts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What class of CD do you need to obtain an extra licence (from the home office) for to supply/possess?

A

Class 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What class of CDs do you need to add to the CD register?

A

Class 1 and 2Also Savitex (Sch4 part 1) due to cannaboid nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the maximum duration of a drug that can be prescribed on FP10MDA?

A

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the name of the script/form that is legally needed for requisitions of Sch 2/3 drugs in the community?

A

FP10CDF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which schedule drugs have limited restriction on import/export?

A

Sch 4(II) dont need a licence for patients to import/exportSch5 have zero restrictions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Who is the only person that is allowed to grant a licence for somebody to possess, supply, manufacture, import or export control drugs?

A

The secretary of state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What common requirment for a prescription is not needed for a CD requisition?

A

No date required!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When are the 2 exceptions that a pharmacist can possess a class 1 drug without a licence from the home office?

A

For destructionFor handing over to the police

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why would you add a fixed weight to studies in a meta analysis?

A

So thay bigger studies have a greater influence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is an non-inferiority design?

A

When a RCT is done to see if a drug is ‘not inferior’ to the standard treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When would you add ‘random effects’ to a meta analysis?

A

When there is significant heterogeneityThis accounts for inter-study variability

58
Q

What do opportunity costs refer to?

A

Benefits that could have been received but that were given up in order to take another course of action

59
Q

Define health economics

A

The study of attempts to allocate limited health care resources among unlimited wants and needs to achieve the maximum benefit for society

60
Q

Should you document an answer for a questions that has been asked?And why?

A

YesTo demonstrate that you have used reliable sourcesIn case of a complaint (over your own back)In case the same question is asked againSo others can see

61
Q

What is a PICO question?

A

Patient and problem
Intervention
Comparison
Outcome

62
Q

What is the Crossover type of RCT?

A

A person will try out both treatments to see which is most effective

Can’t use a drug that could cure a disease….as then they wouldn’t need the other drug!

63
Q

In economics, what is the other word given for satisfaction?

A

Utility

64
Q

What is diminishing marginal utility?

A

This is the theory that there comes a point where a products cost no longer provides enough satisfaction (utility) to the person specifically

65
Q

What is an Incident Rate Ratio?

A

Where the incidence in the exposed group is divided by the incidence in the group that isn’t exposed to the treatment (placebo)The ratio is compared to 1

66
Q

What is a confidence interval?

A

A range of values in which we can be confident includes the true valueSE = Standard error

67
Q

What is a meta-analysis?

A

A statistical method for combining the results of a number of studies

68
Q

What is the ‘Willing to pay approach’?

A

A type of cost-benefit analysis that’s used to compare the outcomes of medical interventions in monetary terms

So how much would somebody pay to extend their lives by 2 years….If their expectancy was 54……or 95……

The persons who’s 54 is more likely to pay

69
Q

How do you test for heterogeneity for meta-analysis?

A

Cochran’s Q testFinds if there is a significant difference between each study’s odds ratio and the fixed effects odds ratio

70
Q

What’s difference between Intention to Treat and Per-Protocol analysis?

A

Intention to Treat –> The analysis includes everybody in the trial, including those who didn’t comply properly (eg, drop out)

Per-Protocol –> Only includes those who fully complied with the drug/rules

71
Q

Which type of meta analysis will give smaller studies a greater relative weight?

A

Random Effects Model

72
Q

What are the two types of blinding that can occur in RCTs?

A

Double blind –> Neither the Dr or patient knows which group has what

Single Blind –> Either the patient or Dr doesn’t know what they’ve got
A good example is for surgery….as the surgeon needs to know whats going on!!

73
Q

What is ICER?

A

Incremental Cost-Effectiveness RatioUsed when comparing 2 different treatments

74
Q

What are the key points in the 3 stages of clinical trials?

A

Stage 1 –> Generates PK/PD data
Stage 2 –> Patients given the drug. small study of efficacy
Stage 3 –> Evaluate toxicity and efficacy

75
Q

What is a QALY?

A

Quality-Adjusted Life YearsThe number of years lived * utility

76
Q

What does a p-value under 0.05 mean?

A

The null hypothesis is rejected
With the null hypothesis being that any difference is caused by sampling/experimental errors…….So a low p-value means that theres a high probability that the result (in the study) is significant

77
Q

What is the main reason for randomised controlled trials?

A

To eliminate confounding (bias) and to test for efficacy

78
Q

What is cost-effectiveness?

A

The most cost-effective intervention is the one with the greatest effectiveness for the lowest cost

Only NHS costs are consideredBelow the line is best!! (see image)

79
Q

What’s the difference between surrogate endpoints and clinical endpoints?

A

Clinical –> Reflects the survival or symptomatic status of a patient (eg, has the treatment fully worked?)

Surrogate –> Certain biomarkers, like BP/tumour size, are decreased (or start changing for the good). This isn’t always correlated with clinical endpoints, but can often show that the drug is on its way to achieving the clinical endpoint

80
Q

What assumption should be made when undergoing cost-minimisation analysis?

A

That the effectivness of the treatments are equal

81
Q

What are the 4 stages of answering a medicines information enquiry?

A

Understand the questions
Carry out your research
Prepare your answer
Feedback your answer

82
Q

What are the weaknesses of FMEA?

A

Different teams won’t always have the same analysis
Very time consuming
Little guidance on interventions

83
Q

Name 5 different Proactive Risk Managment Techniques

A

Data Collection
Task Description
Task Simulation –> Eg, SIM Man
Human Error Identification and Analysis –> FMEA
Human Error Quantification –> Probability of an error

84
Q

What are the 6 stages in ‘Faliure Modes and Effects Analysis’ (FEMA)?

A

1 –> Graphically describe the process
2 –> Identify failure modes
3 –> Assign each failure modes to the causation model (eg, lapses/slips/violations/mistakes)
4 –> Design Interventions for failure modes (eg, what to do to prevent slips/lapses etc)
5 –> Identify outcome measures for interventions (eg, near miss sheet)
6 –> Implement and monitor interventions

85
Q

What type of ‘Unsafe Acts’ can occur?

A

Unintended Action –> Slip/lapse/mistake

Intended Action –> Mistake/violation

86
Q

What is FMEA?

A

Failure Modes and Effects Analysis

A systematic method, carried out by teams, to identify and prevent process errors and product problems before they occur

87
Q

What is Root Causes Analysis?And what are the 6 stages?

A

A structured investigation that aims to identify the true cause of a problem and the actions necessary to eliminate them

1 –> Gathering information about the incident
2 –> Mapping the information
3 –> Identifying problems
4 –> Analysing contributory factors (eg, why? questions)
5 –> Determining the root causes
6 –> Developing recommendations and implementing solutions

88
Q

What’s the difference between Proactive and Reactive risk management?

A

Proactive –> Before the mistake has occurred (eg, FMEA)

Reactive –> After the mistake has occurred (eg, root cause analysis)

89
Q

Describe Reasons’ Swiss Cheese Model

A

Every organisation will have a set of ‘barriers’ to prevent mistakes, however if a specific set of things all happen at once then mistakes (organisational losses) can still happen (eg, fit through the holes in the cheese)

Resident Pathogens (latent conditions) –> Decisions made by management that can cause mistakes more common

Unsafe Acts/Failures –> Things done by people carrying out the task

90
Q

What are the 2 types of ‘Resident Pathogens’ within a system?And what are the 5 different factors?

A

Error provoking conditions & Long lasting weaknesses

Work Environment –> Eg, high workload/stress

Team –> Eg, poor communication

Individual/Staff –> Eg, lack of knowledge

Task –> Eg, test results not being available

Patients –> Eg, a distressed patient/language problems

91
Q

What do the following stand for?MRCP MRCS FRCGP DRCOG BMA

A

MRCP –> Member of the Royal Collage of Physicians

MRCS –> Member of the Royal Collage of Surgeons

FRCGP –> Fellow of the Royal Collage of General Practitioners

DRCOG –> Diploma of the Royal Collage of Gynaecologists

BMA –> British Medical Association

92
Q

What POMs can a optometrist supply?

A

Eye drops with the API of chloramphenicol under 0.5%

Eye ointments with under 1% of Chloramphenicol, Cyclopentolate hydrochloride, Fusidic acid or Tropicamide

93
Q

What is the purpose of Health Education England (HEE)?

A

To help improve the quality of care by ensuring our workforce has the right numbers, skills, values and behaviours to meet the needs of patients

94
Q

What is a VMP?

A 
Veterinary Medicinal Product
Any substance (or combination of products) that have properties that can treat or prevent disease in animals
95
Q

List the veterinary cascade

A

An Authorised Veterinary Medicine for the condition in the species

The same condition in another species or a different condition in the same species

A product licensed for use in humans or a veterinary medicine from the EU (with an special import certificate)

Extemporaneous preparation

96
Q

What are the nine domains of the RPS Pharmacy Leadership Framework?

A 
Inspiring shared purpose
Leading with care
Evaluating information
Connecting our service
Sharing the vision
Engaging the team
Holding to account
Developing capability
Influencing for results
97
Q

What do the following stand for?POM-VPOM-VPSNFA-VPSAVM-GSL

A

POM-V –> Veterinarian
Clinical assessment needed before supply can occur

POM-VPS –> Vet, Pharmacist and Suitably Qualified Person

NFA-VPS –> for Non-Food producing Animals
Don’t always need a prescription

AVM-GSL –> Authorised Veterinary Medicine

98
Q

What did The Francis Report look into?

A

Widespread failings across mid-staffs
Found a culture of secrecy and defensiveness
Emphasised that patient focus was key

99
Q

What drugs may a midwife possess for use?

A

Diamorphine, morphine, pethidine and pentazocine

Only supplied against a signed order by a doctor

100
Q

What did The 5 Year Forward View talk about?

A

A new shared vision of care for the NHS based around models of care
What the NHS needs to do to close the widening gaps in the health of the population

101
Q

What kind of advertising can be done for vetinary products?

A

None to the public!!POM-V/VPS can be as long as they are aimed at professionals

102
Q

What did The Berwick Report relate to?

A

Improving patient safety in the NHS

103
Q

What can dentists prescribe?

A

Only under the formulary on FP10D

On private scripts they can prescribe anything, but down to the discretion of the pharmacist

104
Q

How long should veterinary documents be kept for?

A

5 years

105
Q

What class of control drugs can’t doctors/dentists prescribe in the EEA/Switzerland for dispensing in the UK?

A

Sch 1/2/3

106
Q

What can Nurse/Pharmacist independent prescribers, prescribe?

A

Any medicines, for any condition, as long as within their competence

Including any Sch2-5 drugNOT diamorphine, cocaine or dipipanone for the treatment of addiction

107
Q

What kind of POMs can optomitrists obtain for use in their practice…..but NOT sell/supply

A

Amethocaine hydrochloride
Lignocaine hydrochloride
Oxybuprocaine hydrochloride
Proxymetacaine hydrochloride

So basically things with a suffix of -caine

108
Q

Can Independent Optomitrist Prescribers prescribe a CD?Can they request emergency supplies?

A

No

Yes….but obviously not for anything

109
Q

What is the Health and Care Proffessions Council?

A

The council responsible for 16 different professions, such as physios/paramedics/radiographers

110
Q

Define Adherence, Concordance and Compliance

A

Adherence –> The extent to which the patient takes their medication as prescribed

Initiation –> Implementation –> Persistance –> Discontinuation

Concordance –> Process of shared decision making about treatment

Compliance –> Old fashioned term that implies that the patient should just do what the Dr tells them!

111
Q

How could the social learning theory be used to explain why people start smoking?

A

Modelling/observing others smoking

Reinforcement –> Eg, social opportunitiesVicarious

Reinforcement –> Eg, people thinking that they look cool by smoking (seeing others being rewarded for smoking)

112
Q

What’s the difference between Sensation and Perception?

A

Sensation –> The process by which stimuli affect sensory organs

Perception –> How we make meaning of sensation

113
Q

What are the 4 key components of self-management?

A

Support for patients health behaviours

Reducing distress and increasing coping

Helping patients to manage their healthcare team

Education about their condition and how to find more information

114
Q

What are some of the positive aspects of a diagnosis?

A

Access to treatment/social support

Relief after periods of uncertainty

Practical benefits –> eg, benefits/mitigating circumstances/sick leave

115
Q

What can chronic stress do to the body?

A

General Alarm Stage –> Reduction in fat tissue, liver/lymph size, fall in body temp

Resistance stage (48 hours+)–> Homeostasis returns, with the adrenal glands enlarging…causing a reduction in pituitary secreted hormones

Exhaustion –> When stress is repeated

116
Q

What is Kubler-Ross’s 5 stage model of grief?

A

Denial –> shock
Anger –> why me?
Bargaining –> if I do this maybe i’ll get more time?Depression
Acceptance –> my time has come

117
Q

What are SMART goals?

A 
Specific
Measurable
Achievable
Results focused
Time bound
118
Q

What is cognitive dissonance?

A

When peoples behaviour is inconsistant with their beliefs and attitudes

119
Q

What are some of the barriers to using contraception (eg, condoms)?

A

Religious/cultural values –> eg, catholics
Unrealistic optimism on contracting an STI
Beliefs that it reduces sexual pleasure

120
Q

What’s the difference between Distal (distant) influences and Proximal influences?

A

Distal –> Demographic influences, which cant be changed easily

Proximal –> Somebodies attitudes and/or beliefs that can cause certain behaviours…..these can be changed more easily

121
Q

What are the 2 types of change talk?

A

DARN CATS

Preparatory –> Desire, Ability, Reasons and Need

Mobilising –> Commitment, Activation and Taking Steps

122
Q

What are the 4 factors that contribute to unrealistic optimism?

A

Lack of personal experience of the problem
Belief that the behaviour is controllable
Belief that the problem has not yet occurred, and so it never will!
Belief that the problem is infrequent

123
Q

What are monitors and blunters?

A

Monitors –> Direct more attention to themselves, so feel more sympathy

Blunters –> Direct less attention to their body, avoids and minimises threats etc

124
Q

What’s the difference between a Health Risk Behaviour and Health Enhancing Behaviour?

A

Health Risk Behaviour –> Any activity undertaken by people with a frequency or intensity that increases risk of disease or injury

Health Enhancing Behaviour –> Activity that may help prevent disease, detect disease and disability at an early stage, promote and enhance health or protect from risk of injury

125
Q

What is Exploring Decisional Balance?

A

The motivational interviewing technique used when somebody is ambivalent, so they can see both the pros and cons of the behaviour

126
Q

What are some of the ways of identifiying non-adherance?

A

Checking the PMR for when medication was last collected

Patients can take questionnaires

Technologies that allow electronic records of when medication is taken

127
Q

In reflective listening, what does OARS stand for?

A

Open ended questions
Affirmations
Reflections
Summarising

128
Q

What are some of the techniques used to address non-adherance?

A

Dossette box/compliance aids
Electronics –> Remind you when to take (eg, texts)
Visual Aids (see picture)

129
Q

What is the Biopsychological Model? (in reference to pain)

A

A combination of Biological, Psychological and Social Factors that lead to seeking of treatment

In the case of pain, the pain feeling is gated by other sensory inputs and psychological factors

130
Q

What are the 4 processes used in motivational interviewing?

A

Engaging –> Focussing –> Evoking –> Planning

131
Q

Explain the model of unitentional and intentional nonadherance?

A

Unintentional –> Practical barriers that prevent patients from being compliant

Intentional –> A conscious decision not to take the treatment

Middle Bit –> When there is a conscious decision not to make treatment a priority…so they let certain barriers be the priority

132
Q

What are the 2 different types of accountability?

A

Personal –> Internal and personal (eg, our conscience/duty to ourselves)

Professional –> Members of a profession claim particular knowledge and expertise that had to be proven to get on the register (so you are accountable for those qualities)

133
Q

What’s the difference between an ad hominem argument, and a tu quoque argument?

A

Ad hominem –> An attack against the particular person that is intended to discredit what they say

Tu quoque –> A method used to reflect or deflect from the argument that the person is trying to make (you too argument)

134
Q

What is Beneficence/Non-maleficience?

A

Acting in ways that benefit a patient –> their cares and interests”Do good if you possibly can, but above all do no harm”

135
Q

What is the 4 stage approach? (in terms of decision making)

A

Gather relevant facts
Prioritise and ascribe values
Generate Options
Choose an option

136
Q

What are the 3 stages of Kohlbergs stages of moral reasoning?

A

Pre-conventional –> Based on self interest (eg, obeys rules to avoid punishment)

Conventional –> Being a ‘good boy’ and conforms to social norms to gain appraisal and prevent being disliked

Post-conventional –> Conforms to democratic law and concepts of individual rights

137
Q

What are the 3 types of ethics?

A

Deontological Ethics –> Duty based, so you stick to the law and don’t think of the consequences.
Duty is more important than the outcome

Consequentialist Ethics –> Main consideration is favouring the action that will lead to the best consequence or result
“The needs of the many outweigh the needs of the few”

Virtue Ethics –> Always do what is best for the patient

138
Q

What are the 3 different types of Morality?

A

Duty Based –> As pharmacists you are expected to morally act in the 9 ways that the GPhC lays out

Goal Based –> Internal motivations to use one’s knowledge and skills to better the lives of as many people as possible

Virtue Based –> Ones own personal values (eg, Honour/Integrity/Confidentiality/Empathy/Compassion)

139
Q

What is the Georgetown Mantra? (Key moral concepts of healthcare)

A

Beneficence –> Act in ways to benefit the patient
Non-Maleficence

Respect for Autonomy –> The right for the patient to make their own decisions/pursure their own actions

Justice –> In healthcare this means the distribution of resources correctly

140
Q

What are the 3 main types of terms used in professional accountability?

A

Responsibility –> Your job is to do a specific task (nothing more)

Accountability –> Your job is to achieve a specific outcome, and you can be blamed for failure of this

Liability –> Can be called to account in law and possibly punishment if the failure lead to harm

Test (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions