2-4. Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 ways to loose oxygen carrying capacity?

A
  1. bleeding
  2. hemolysis (RBC destruction)
  3. Diminished erythropoiesis (production)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which disorder is pictured in the histo slide?

A

Hypochromic microcytic anemia;

(a type of iron deficiency anemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is dietary folate and vitamin B12 involved in?

A

Both involved in DNA synthesis (purine) and their effect on erythropoiesis is similar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how are megaloblasts formed in megaloblastic anemia?

A

Deficiency in dietary Folate or Vitamin B12 –> delay in DNA synthesis causes a delay in nuclear maturation and cell division –>

cytoplasmic components mature normally and continue to accumulate during delay, resulting in enlarged RBC precursors (megaloblasts) and enlarged RBCs, other cells in body as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what disorder is in the histo image?

A

blue stain indicates immature red blood cells (megalobasts)

part of megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which disorder is this pathognomonic for?

A

hypersegmented nuclei of neutrophils –>

indicative of MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what vitamin deficiency and subsequent anemia is associated with DEMYELINATING DISEASE

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency –> megaloblastic anemia and demyelinating disease of peripheral nerves and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pernicious anemia: define

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency due to INADEQUATE synthesis or defective funciton of intrinsic factor

  • autoantibodies to parietal cells, or intrinsic factor itself
  • gastric atrophy or gastrectomy (limits synthesis of IF), resection of distal ileum, malabsorption disease, Crohn’s disease (which dec absorption absorption of vitamin bound to IF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which symptoms are most associated with:

  • anemia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • neutropenia
A
  • anemia - petechiae
  • thrombocytopenia - ecchymosis
  • neutropenia - persistent infxns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what lymphoid disorder is pictured below?

A

neutrophilic leukocytosis;

neutrophil concentration is increased; more specific than leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what condition is pathognomonic for DOHLE BODIES

A

(intra-cytoplasmic structures composed of agglutinated ribosomes; they will increase in number with inflammation and increased granulocytopoiesis);

indicate IMMATURE NEUTROPHILS –>

LEUKOCYTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the morphological abnormalities of WBCs in:

  • cytoplasm
  • nucleus
A
  • cytoplasm
    • May-Hegglin anomaly
    • Chediak-Higashi syndrome
    • Toxic changes (acute inflammation)
  • nucleus
    • Pelger-Huet anomaly
    • Hypersegmentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a May-Hegglin Anomaly caused by?

A
  • rare genetic disorder assoc w/ defect in MYH 9 gene
  • triad:
    • thromobcytopenia
    • giant platelets
    • dohle-like bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is a Pelger-Huet Anomaly?

A
  • hyposegmentation (bilobed) of nucleus
    • (round, oval, or bilobed nuclei w/ pinched appearance)
    • overly mature clumped chromatin
  • similar appearance of most cells
  • clinically insignificant; common AD inherited nuclear aberration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a Pseudo-Pelger-Huet anomaly?

A
  • acquired phenomenon w/ nuclei that are less dense than true PH cells;
  • may have hypogranular cytoplasm
    • may be clinically significant
    • found in high stress situations: (burns, drug rxns, infxns, myelodysplastic syndromes, chronic granulocytic leukemia, acute leukemia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the causes of hypersegmentation of neutrophils?

A
  • hereditary cause is autosomal dominant and clinically significant
  • acquired form vitamin B12 and folate deficiency or POINT MUTATIONS affect DNA replication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why does it not make sense to “define a margin” when treating lymphoid hyperplasia?

A
  • When treating cancer, we usually need a margin that clears a tumor;
  • but the margin “doesn’t make sense” because the lymphocytes are everywhere and move around – so margins are not as relevant in hematopoietic disease (because they are systemic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what disorder is pictured in the histo slide?

A

REACTIVE LYMPHOID HYPERPLASIA;

HETEROGENOUS –> appears more reactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are lymphoid neoplasms that arise in bone marrow and circulate in blood?

A

leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which lymphoid neoplasms appear at tumor masses in lymph nodes or lymphoid aggregates in organs?

A

lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how do tumors of plasma cells (e.g. multiple myeloma) present?

A

as masses in bone w/ systemic symptoms related to production of large amounts of Ig chains

22
Q

where do lymphoid neoplasms tend to spread?

A

to lymph nodes and other tissues (spleen, liber, bone marrow)

lymphomas, myelomas can spill over into blood giving a leukemic picture, and leukemias can form masses

23
Q

which common lymphomas in adults are what cell origin?

A

B cell origin

  • Derived from follicle where cells usually undergo regulated somatic hypermutation that places cells at risk of mutations
  • common chromosomal translocations involve the ig gene loci

T cells are more genetically stable, fewer lymphomas

24
Q

which antigen marker is associated w/ progenitor or stem cells

A

CD34+ (can be myeloid or lymphoid)

25
Q

which antigen marker is associated w/ T CELLS

A

CD3

CD3-T Cells

26
Q

which antigen marker is associated w/ B CELL

A

CD19

19 are still Babies

27
Q

what is the disorder in the histo image?

A

SMALL LYMPHOCYTIC LYMPHOMA –> CHRONIC LYMPHOBLASTIC LEUKEMIA;

• Image is of a lymph node
• NO Architecture - indicative of clonal process –> homogeneous (monomorphic)
Effaced lymph node architecture

28
Q

what disorder is in the histo image?

A

CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA;

• CLL –> small round lymphocytes (chromatin is mature) – “SMUDGE CELL” on peripheral blood is indicative of CLL or SLL

29
Q

what is the disorder in the histo image?

A

FOLLICULAR LYMPHOMA;

• germinal center proliferations (of follicle - an abnormal follicle)

Germinal cell has taken over

30
Q

what disorder is on the histo image?

what genetic markers should you look for?

A

DIFFUSE LARGE B CELL LYMPHOMA (DLBCL);

  • HISTO: Sheets of large cells
  • Marker: CD19 or CD20
31
Q

what disorder is in the histo image?

A

BURKITT LYMPHOMA;

Histo: light color are the macrophages entering and clearing up (appear like “STARRY SKY” on histo –> due to MYC translocation)

32
Q

which cell type of lymphomas tend to be worse?

A

T CELL LYMPHOMAS TEND TO BE WORSE THAN B CELL LYMPHOMAS

33
Q

what disorder is in the histo image?

A

MULTIPLE MYELOMA;

• Binucleate w/ immunoglobulins that are forming
• Secreting more proteins which may be detected

34
Q

what disorder is images?

A

MULTIPLE MYELOMA;

  • if marrow is involved –> you need:
    • more than 10% plasma cells in the marrow w/ lytic/ lucent lesions, hypercalcemia, anemia
    • and less 60% plasma cells – considered myeloma event
  • There is a spectrum
35
Q

these histo images are of what disorder?

A

MULTIPLE MYELOMA;

  • When has lambda light chain –> make deposits such as amyloidosis
  • (RIGHT) Brown glass appearance; indicates amyloid around the vessels
    • Apple-green birefringence w/ congo red stainin –> STAINS FOR AMYLOID
36
Q

describe the staging of Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A
  • Stage I: single lymph node chain
  • stage II: more than 1 chain on same side of diagram
  • stage III: both sides of diaphragm
  • stage IV: widely disseminated disease
37
Q

what disorder is in the histo image?

A

HODGKIN LYMPHOMA;

  • Heterogeneity (still indicating clonal) – these are reacting to neoplastic cells –> secreting diff’t cytokines attracting mixed infiltrate in the backgroud
  • (usually can’t excluse based on FNA-fine needle aspirate or biopsy)
38
Q

how do these 2 histo images of myeloid neoplasms differ?

A
  • LEFT - younger individual, MORE cellular
  • RIGHT - older patients, DECREASED cellularity
39
Q

what features classify the MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROMES?

A
  • NUMBER of lineages displaying dysplasia
  • % blasts in peripheral blood/ bone marrow
  • cytogenetic aberrations identified
40
Q

what defines ACUTE LEUKEMIA?

A

20% blasts in peripheral blood/bone marrow

41
Q

what disorder is pictured in the histo image?

A

Myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS);

abnormal cells in the marrow; more neutrophils w/ granulocytes

42
Q

what is the myeloproliferative neoplasm that has INCREASE IN RED CELLS IN THE BLOOD

A

Polycythemia vera

43
Q

what is the myeloproliferative neoplasm that has INCREASE IN PLATELETS

A

Essential thrombocytopenia

44
Q

which two disorders that require evidence of translocation to diagnose?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma: t(8;14) MYC –> IGH

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia: t(9;22) philadelphia

45
Q

what disorder is in the histo slide?

A

CHRONIC MYELOID LEUKEMIA;

46
Q

what disorder is in the histo image?

what is the defining characteristic?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukemia;

Auer Rods - slender, long inclusions (indicate myeloid lineage) –> these patients may die due to coagulative failure (DIC)

47
Q

what disorder is in the histo image?

A

LANGERHANS CELLS HISTIOCYTOSIS;

  • birbeck granules: “zipper - tennis racket shape cells”
48
Q

hemorrhagic diseases are disorders characterized by abnormal bleeding,

either spontaneous or following trauma or surgery.

What are the 3 factors that control bleeding and can be defective?

A
  • integrity of blood vessel wall
  • platelet function
  • clotting cascade to produce fibrin mesh
49
Q

which lab test is an obsolete test?

A

bleeding time: time (in minutes) for a standardized skin puncture to stop bleeding; clinical measure of platelet function

50
Q

which lab test measures extrinsic and common pathways?

which lab test measures intrinsic and common pathways?

A
  • Extrinsic pathway: prothrombin time (PT) –> tissue thromboplastin and calcium added to blood
  • Intrinsic pathway: partial thromboplastin time (PTT) –> kaolin, phospholipid and Ca added to blood
51
Q

what is the normal function of Von Willebrand factor in clotting cascade?

A
  • primary function is binding to other proteins, in particular factor VIII, and it is important in platelet adhesion to wound sites
  • It is not an enzyme and, thus, has no catalytic activity.
52
Q

what disorder is in the histo image?

A

MICROANGIOPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA (MAHA)

defined by schistocytes