2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a retrovirus

A

virus that carries its genetic blue print in form of RNA, revers transcriptase converts RNA to DNA

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2
Q

what are the 6 Ps

A

pain, pallor, paraesthesia, pulseless, paralysis, perisingly cold

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3
Q

inability to get above scrotal mass suggests?

A

inguinal hernia

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4
Q

complete scrotal exam

A

full abdominal exam, US scan of testes

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5
Q

causes of pneumoperitoneum

A

perforated viscus, DU/GU, appendix, diverticulum, penetrating trauam, cancer (perforated), NEC, IBD perf, brekadown of surgical anastomosis, recent laparotomy/laparoscopy, post endoscopy

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6
Q

DDx of LIF pain

A

diverticulitis
renal colic
epididymitis
cancer
inflammatory bowel disease
in females, ovarian torsion/large ovarian cyst, ectopic pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease

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7
Q

what is charcots triangle

A

fever, RUQ pain and jaundice

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8
Q

what to see in US in cholecystitis

A

sonographic +ve Murphy’s sign
thickening of gallbladder wall
gallstones in gallbaldder
pericholesystatic fluid
CBD dilatation

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9
Q

what is a hydrocele

A

accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis

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10
Q

outline PANCREAS criteria

A

pao2 <8, age >55, neutrophils >15, calcium <2, urea >15, LDH >600, albumin <32, sugar >10

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11
Q

why decrease in calcium in pancreatitis

A

fatty acid saponification-free fatty acids mix with calcium in blood making calcium salts that dont dissolve and stress response holding

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12
Q

why increase in blood glucose in pancreatitis

A

destruction of pancreatic B islet cells that produce insulin, stress response, increased cortisol, gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

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13
Q

how is vitamin D metabolised

A

vitamin D3 is formed in the skin by conversion of 7 dehydrocholesterol under UV light
Vitamin D2 is derived from plant sterol ergosterol
vitamin D is metabolised first to 25 dyhydroxyvitamin D in liver then to hormonal form 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D in kidney

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14
Q

what is dry gangrene

A

coagulation necrosis without liquefaction ie mummification of tissue without infection

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15
Q

what is wet gangrene

A

coagulation necrosis complicated by infective heterolysis and consequent liquefaction necrosis

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16
Q

what is a perianal abscess

A

cryptoglandular in origin or secondary to anorectal pathology and often communicate with ano rectum

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17
Q

wht is a pilonidal sinus

A

trapping of hair in midline pits located at natal cleft, no communication with ano rectum

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18
Q

how is bile released

A

after eating CCK is released from duodenum which stimulates gallbladder contraction and relaxes sphincter of oddi

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19
Q

does culture of abscess have any bearing on likley cause

A

yes coliforms are increased chance of fistula being present

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20
Q

how and where does bilirubin conjugate c

A

conjugates in the liver with glucuronic acid by the enzyme glucouronultransferase

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21
Q

complications of acute pancreatits

A

local: pseudocyst, peripancreatic collection, splenic vein thrombosis, necrotising pancreatitis, bleeding-gastroduodenal artery, portal vein thrombosis, jaundice
ileus, GI bleed
resp: ARDS
DIC
metabolic: hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglycaemia
CVS: shock arrythmia

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22
Q

components of pseudocyst

A

collection of amylase fluid, necrotic tissue, blood enclosed in fibrous wall of granulation tissue, location lesser sac

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23
Q

what is CEA like in pseudocyst vs tumour

A

high in tumour low in pseudocyst

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24
Q

what can persistently high amylase be suggestive of

A

pancreatic pseudocyst

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25
Q

what does smooth endoplasmic reticulum do

A

lipid production and detoxification

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26
Q

what does rough endoplasmic reticulum do

A

protein production

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27
Q

what does golgi apparatus do

A

protein modification and export

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28
Q

what type of joint are sutures of skull

A

fibrous joint

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29
Q

what age do sutures of skull fuse and become immovable

A

around 20-25

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30
Q

what is early fusion of skull sutures called

A

craniosynostosis

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31
Q

what is contained within the foramen spinosum

A

middle meningeal artery and vein, meningeal branch of mandibular nerve

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32
Q

which parts of duodenum are retroperitoneal

A

2nd, 3rd and 4th parts are retroperitoneal

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33
Q

what are the relations of the 3rd part of duodenum

A

it is located inferiorly to pancreas
SMV and SMA are located anteriorly

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34
Q

where in relation to peritoneum is first part of duodenum

A

intraperitoneal

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35
Q

where is the CBD in relation to the pancreas

A

descends behind the head of the pancreas before opeing into 2nd part of duodenum

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36
Q

where does SMA lie in relation to pancreas

A

SMA lies behind neck of pancreas and anterior to uncinate process

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37
Q

what lies posterior to neck of pancreas

A

splenic and SMV unite to form hepatic portal vein

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38
Q

what are the boundaries of the popliteal fossa

A

superior medially: semimembranosus
superiorlaterally: biceps femoris
inferior medially: medial head of gastrocnemius
inferiorlaterally: lateral head of gastrocnemius

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39
Q

what are the contents of the popliteal fossa

A

popliteal artery, popliteal vein, tibial nerve, common fibular nerve

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40
Q

what are the innervation of the hamstring muscles

A

posterior thigh is innervated by tibial nerve apart from short head of biceps which is innervated by common fibular nerve

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41
Q

what innervates posterior leg

A

tibial nerve

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42
Q

which nerve innervates anterior leg

A

deep fibular nerve

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43
Q

what is transmitted in foramen spinosum

A

middle meningeal artery and nerve and meningeal branch of mandibular nerve

44
Q

borders of anatomical snuffbox

A

medial (ulnar)-tendon of extensor pollicis longus
radial (lateral)-tendon of extensor pollicis brevis
proximal border-styloid porcess of radius
floor: carpal bones, scaphoid and trapezium

45
Q

what are the potential side effects of lcoal anaesthetic

A

tremors, restlessness, headaches, blurred vision
vasodilatation can lead to severe hypotension and CV collapse

46
Q

1% lidocain contains 10mg lidocaine per ml

47
Q

carotid canal and IAM are located in which part of temporal bone

A

petrous part

48
Q

where do roots exit

A

inbetween scalenius anterior and mediah

49
Q

where do trunks exit

A

base of posterior triangle in behind 3rd part of subclavian artery

50
Q

where do divisions come off

A

behind middle 1/3 of clavicle

51
Q

where are cords

A

related to 2nd part of axillary artery

52
Q

causes of thyroid swelling

A

single multinodular goitre
toxic multinodular goitre
thyroid neoplasm

53
Q

advantage of radioiodine

A

no surgery
however may aggrevate eye sings, avoid pregnancy and close physical contact and depends on availability of isotope facilities

54
Q

how could common peroneal nerve be damaged

A

radiofrequency ablation
fracture head/neck of fibula
prolonged tight plaster case
#/dislocation of knee

55
Q

clinical picture of common peroneal injury

A

weakness of foot dorsiflexion(TA muscle), weakness in toe extension (EDL and EHL), weakness in foot eversion (PL and PB), sensory loss in dorsum of foot
sensory loss of anterolateral aspect of lower leg

56
Q

how could injury to sciatic nerve result in common peroneal injury

A

dislocation of hip
#femur
hip surgery

57
Q

treatment of foot drop

A

ankle/foot orthosis to support foot while walking
physiotherapy
surgical treatment for exploration, decompression, repair, tendon transfer

58
Q

differential diagnoses of L4-L5 impingement

A

disc herniation
spinal tumour-primary or secondary
DM
vitamin B12 deficiency
drug therapy
spinal canal stenosis
syphilis myelopathy

59
Q

what type of joint is ankle

A

synovial hinge joint

60
Q

what type of joint is subtalar joiint

A

synovial plane joint

61
Q

what do quadriceps dp

A

knee extension

62
Q

what is sequestrum

A

piece of dead bone/tissue formed within a diseased or injured bone, typically in chronic osteomyelitis

63
Q

what is an involucrum

A

complication of osteomyelitis and represents a thick sheath of periosteal new bone surrounding a sequestrum

64
Q

why may pus break through the bone

A

increased pressure due to increased osmolality which causes tissue breakdown
or due to a large cloacal opening in the involucrum so pus will escape through a sinus tract

65
Q

at what age is osteomyelitis associated with kingella infection

A

4 months to 4 years

66
Q

what is most common cause of osteomyelitis

A

staph aureus

67
Q

what is the staging of osteomyelitis

A

Cierny-Mader staging

68
Q

what is the pathogenesis of osteomyelitis

A

invasion and inflammation, suppuration, necrosis (sequestration), new bone formation and resolution

69
Q

what are the fate of abscess

A

resolution, rupture, spread, chronic abscess formation

70
Q

how can ulnar nerve get damaged

A

medial epiconylitis-golfers elbow, cubital tunnel syndrome due to synovial inflammation or ganglia
OA-osteophytes
neuropathy secondary to alcohol or DM, hypothyroidism
brachial plexus abnormalities

71
Q

what are the potential problems of local anaesthetic

A

tremors, restlessness, headaches, blurred vision, nausea, vomiting
vasodilatation can lead to severe hypotension and CV collapse

72
Q

where does medullary thyroid cancer arise from

A

parafollicular C cells

73
Q

differential diagnosis of carpal tunnel

A

cervical disc disease
diabetic neuropathy

74
Q

what investigations could you do for carpal tunnel

A

electromyography and nerve conduction studies, could consider MRI and blood tests for thyroid and glucose

75
Q

where do trunks exit

A

base of posterior triangle
behind third part of subclavian artery

76
Q

where do roots exit

A

between scalenius anterior and medius

77
Q

where do divisiions happen

A

behind middle 1/3 of clavicle

78
Q

where are cords

A

related to 2nd part of axillary arter

79
Q

where does ACL attach

A

anterior tibia to lateral intercondylar notch

80
Q

bones that make up the lateral arch of foot

A

cuboid, calcaneus, lateral two metatarsals

81
Q

bones that make up medial arch of foot

A

calcaneus, talus, navicular, 3 cuneiforms and first three metatarsal bones

82
Q

what are the branches of the sciatic nerve

83
Q

describe the course of sciatic nerve

A

exits through greater sciatic foramen passing inferiorly to lower border of piriformis, 1/2 way between greater trochanter and ischial tuberosity

84
Q

what cutaneous function does sciatic nerve have

A

no direct cutaneous functions
tibial supplies skin of posterolateral leg, lateral foot and sole of foot
common fibular supplies skin of lateral leg and dorsum of foot

85
Q

what is sural nerve a branch of

A

common fibular and tibial

86
Q

what is piriformis syndrome

A

compression of sicatic nerve by piriformis muscle

87
Q

what is the venous drainage of the heart

A

great, middle and small cardiac vein
posterior vein
oblique vein-all drain into coronary sinus
anterior cardiac vein and thesbian veins open into right atrium and ventricle

88
Q

how is a thrombus formed

A

atheromatous plaque is disrupted by intra-plaque haemorrhage or mechanical forces,exposing sub-endothelial collagen and necrotic plaque contents to blood
platelets adhere and are activated releasing thromboxane A2, ADP, serotonin causing furhter platelet aggregation and vasospasm

89
Q

what is contained within the spermatic cord

A

3 layers of fascia
3 arteries-artery to vas deferens, testicular artery, cremasteric artery
3 nerves-genital branch of genitofemoral, ilioinguinal (outside of cord), sympathetic
3 other-vas/round ligament, pampiniform plexus of veins, lymph nodes

90
Q

what overlies the cords of brachial plexus

A

pectoralis minor

91
Q

what mediates type III reaction

A

antigen-antibody eg SLE

92
Q

what mediates type II reaction

A

IgG or IgM antibody mediated cytotoxic reaction
includes haemolytic disease of newborn, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, goodpastures syndrome

93
Q

types of hypovolaemic shock

A

plasma loss through burns, haemorrhage, GI loss through vomiting/diarrhoea, decreased intake or diuresis

94
Q

causes of hypothyroidism

A
  1. drugs eg lithium or amiodarone
  2. surgery-iatrogenic
  3. autoimmune eg hashimotos
  4. iodine deficiency
  5. transient thyroiditis
  6. congenital
95
Q

what are the three zones of burns

A

central zone of coagulation-likely unsaveable due to maximal heat damage
then surrounding zone of stasis-decreased tissue perfusion potentially salvageable
then zone of hyperaemia-will invariably recover unless prolonged sepsis/hypoperfusion

: central coagulation, then surrounding stasis, then surrounding hyperaemia

96
Q

give three indications of platelet transfusion

A

haemorrhage in thrombocytopaenia
DIC
known thrombocytopaenia prior to a procedure

97
Q

how does bile help digestions

A

bile is released when CCK is released from duodenum after a meal, this relaxes sphincter of oddi allowing bile into duodenum
it breaks down fatty substances into smaller droplets which increased surface area for pancreatic lipase
form structures called micelles whic transport into enterocytes where they are reassembled into triglycerides and packed with protien into chylomicrons

98
Q

risk factors for fistula formation

A

bowel anastomosis
cancer
crohns disease
radiation to skin
immunosuppression
diabetes
infection

99
Q

pathophysiology of duputrens

A

increase in type III collagen compared to type I collagen
cytokine mediated transformation of fibroblasts into myofibroblasts whose contractile properties are exaggerated and abnormal

100
Q

treatment of duputrens

A

conservative, splinting, steroid injections, or collagenase injections
operative-fasciectomy or percutaneous cord release under LA

101
Q

what is psoas sign

A

increase of pain with patient in left lateral position, extension of right hip increases pain

102
Q

describe obturator sign

A

if inflammed appendix is incontact with obturator internus-increased pain on passive internal rotation of flexed thigh

103
Q

where are pectinate muscles

A

in atria of heart

104
Q

where are trebeculae carna

A

rounded irregular muscles columns which project from right and left ventricle