2 Flashcards
Which is the main limitation of standard PCR that is not a limitation of real-time PCR?
• Requirement of a large initial sample
• The procedure requires endpoint measurement that may not be in direct proportion to the initial sample.
• Ability to detect PCR product during the plateau stage
Slow turnaround time compared to culture methods
• The procedure requires endpoint measurement that may not be in direct proportion to the initial sample.
The gel electrophoresis pattern for hemoglobin S (HbS) shows which of the following migration patterns?
• Hbs migrates alone in alkaline and with HbD in acid electrophoresis.
• HbS migrates with HbD in alkaline and with HbA in acid electrophoresis.
• HbS migrates with HbD in alkaline and alone in acid electrophoresis.
Hbs migrates with HbA in alkaline and HbD in acid electrophoresis.
• HbS migrates with HbD in alkaline and alone in acid electrophoresis.
Alkaline
A. S. F. A
C. D
E. G
O
Acidic
F. A. S. O. C
D
E
G
Pericarditis may occur as a complication from endocarditis caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Virulence mechanisms attributed to the spread of this organism include all of the following EXCEPT:
•Hyaluronidase
• Protein A
• Coagulase
•M protein
M protein
M protein is a virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes, which increases resistance to phagocytosis and facilitates attachment to mucosal cells.
Pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus is due to several virulence factors, including hyaluronidase, protein A, and coagulase; causing damage to cells and tissues and enhancing the spread of the bacteria.
After irradiating a unit of packed red blood cells, how is the expiration date affected?
• The expiration date is changed to 28 days from the date of irradiation regardless of the original expiration date.
•The expiration date shortens to 28 days from the date of irradiation or the original expiration date, whichever is first.
• The expiration date is shortened to 24 hours from time of irradiation.
• The expiration date is not affected.
•The expiration date shortens to 28 days from the date of irradiation or the original expiration date, whichever is first.
A cerebrospinal fluid sample from a possible meningitis patient demonstrated a round, budding yeast of variable size on Gram stain. The specimen was cultured to routine fungal media without cycloheximide. The organism rapidly produced urease and demonstrated brown pigmented colonies on niger seed agar. The organism identification is:
• Cryptococcus neoformans
• Candida albicans
• Malassezia furfur
• Trichosporan species
• Cryptococcus neoformans
Cryptococcus neoformans is a significant human pathogen that has been associated with meningitis, pulmonary infections, and fungemia, especially in immunocompromised patients. Some of these isolates have the ability to produce a polysaccharide capsule that is visible with capsular stains or an India ink prep. The capsule may cause the colonies to be mucoid except on inhibitory mold agar. A presumptive identification may be made with a rapid positive urease test. Brown pigment colonies on niger seed agar have been sufficient for final identification.
Candida albicans is a significant human pathogen as a cause of thrush, vulvovaginitis, respiratory infection, meningitis, and more. This organism produces small budding yeast with pseudohyphae and smooth, creamy, white colonies on fungal media. It produces urease but it is not rapid and it does not produce a pigment on niger seed agar.
Malassezia furfur is more commonly known to cause skin infections but other infections may occur. Diagnosis is typically based on direct microscopic examination of skin scrapings. If the sample is cultured, the organism requires an overlay with olive oil for growth. Colonies are smooth, creamy, and white but smaller than Candida albicans colonies. It does not produce brown colonies on niger seed agar.
Trichosporon species cause skin infections and fungemia, especially in immunocompromised individuals. Direct examination demonstrates the presence of arthroconidia. The colonies have been described as dry, heaped, and powdery. It is also known to produce urease but it is not rapid. It does not produce brown-pigmented colonies on niger seed agar.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is produced by:
• Adrenal cortex
• Adrenal medulla
•Pituitary
•Thyroid
•Pituitary
The pituitary gland produces FSH. The adrenal cortex produces corticosteroid hormones, androgens, aldosterone, etc. The adrenal medulla produces catecholamines such as epinephrine and norepinephrine. The thyroid gland produces thyroid hormones such as T3 and T4.
Which one of the following statements concerning phagocytosis is FALSE?
• Cells are only capable of phagocytizing bacteria.
• Membrane “reaches” out and surrounds the material to be internalized.
• Once internalized the material is contained in a phagosome.
• Only specialized cells are capable of phagocytosis.
• Cells are only capable of phagocytizing bacteria.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute chest pain, but which of the following cardiac markers will be elevated FIRST if the patient had a myocardial infarction (MI)?
•LD
• ск
• Myoglobin
•Troponin
• Myoglobin
Myoglobin rises typically within 2-4 hours after myocardial infarction and stays elevated for days, with a peak at the 6-9-hour mark post-MI. After myoglobin, troponin is the next fastest to rise following myocardial infarction and can rise within
3-12 hours with a peak around 12-24 hours post-MI. LD (8-12 hours, 24-48 hour peak) and CK (4-6 hours with a peak at 24-36 hours) will also rise after MI, but are not as fast to rise as myoglobin and troponin.
Which of the following markers would you expect to find in the serum of a patient who has recently recovered from Hepatitis B infection?
•Anti-HBs
•HBsAg
•HBeAg
•HCVAb
•Anti-HBs
The anti-HBs antibody is produced in response to the hepatitis B surface antigen and indicates immunity to the Hepatitis B virus. Anti-HBs levels rise during recovery from hepatitis B infection and can remain elevated for years thereafter. Thus, anti-HBs can be used to detect previous exposure to HBV or to detect a successful response to the hepatitis B vaccine. HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) and HBeAg (Hepatitis Be antigen) are components of the hepatitis B virus that circulate in the blood during the infection. HCVAb is the antibody produced in response to hepatitis C infection, not hepatitis B.
What do the two and/or three reagent cells used for antibody screening detect?
• Antibodies to most white cell antigens
• Antibodies to red cell A and B antigens
• Antibodies to common alloantigens
• Antibodies to most private (low incidence) red cell antigens
• Antibodies to common alloantigens
Which of the following factors require Vitamin K for their synthesis in the liver?
• Factor XIII
• Factor VII
• Factor VIII
• Factor I
• Factor VII
Factor VIl is a member of the Prothrombin group, which includes Factors II, VII, IX, X, Protein C & Protein S. This group requires vitamin K for synthesis.
Factors XIll, Vill & I are members of the Fibrinogen group, which also includes Factor V. These factors are consumed in clotting, absent from serum and do not require Vitamin K for synthesis.
What is the total magnification produced when using a 10X ocular lens and a 40X objective lens on a Bright Field light microscope?
• 4,000×
• 800x
• 400x
•Cannot be determined without additional information
• 400x
You have access to the results of your friend’s laboratory test results. She asks you to look up the results for her.
What should you do?
• Give the friend the laboratory results.
• Ask the friend to contact her doctor to obtain the results.
•Leave the laboratory results on her voicemail.
•Fax the laboratory results to her office.
• Ask the friend to contact her doctor to obtain the results.
Define catheterization:
• The surgical removal of the breast.
• The loss of consciousness resulting from insufficient blood flow to the brain.
• The insertion of a tube into a patient’s bladder via the urethra to aid in urination.
• The accumulation of interstitial fluid under the skin causing swelling.
The insertion of a tube into a patient’s bladder via the urethra to aid in urination.
What is the common name for Hymenolepis diminuta?
• Pork tapeworm
• Rat tapeworm
• Dog tapeworm
• Hydatid tapeworm
• Rat tapeworm
All of the following would be included in a hemolytic transfusion reaction investigation, EXCEPT:
• ABO/Rh check of post-transfusion sample
• Leukocyte antigen studies
• Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on post-transfusion sample
• Clerical check
• Leukocyte antigen studies
A drug that is administered through which of the following routes will reach peak level the quickest?
• Oral
• Intravenous (IV)
• Intramuscular (IM)
• Subcutaneous (SC)
• Intravenous (IV)
Nephelometry and turbidimetry measure different properties of:
• Fluorescence in turbid solutions
• Free ions in solution
• UV light at 360 nm
•Light transmission and scatter by particles in suspension
• Light transmission and scatter by particles in suspension
All of the following are considered a potentially infectious body fluid or a route of transmission for
HIV, EXCEPT?
• Blood
• Cerebrospinal fluid
• Pleural fluid
• Airborne transmission
• Airborne transmission
Two CSF specimens were sent to the Lab with the following results:
Tube #1 = 11,200 rbc/ML
Tube #2 = 300 rbc/ML
The results on these CSF specimens are indicative of:
• An infection
• A recent subarachnoid hemorrhage
• A traumatic tap
• An old intracranial bleeding episode
• A traumatic tap
When evaluating a 2-hour glucose tolerance test report performed on a pregnant woman, which of the following results is considered NORMAL (within range for this test)?
• A 2-hour glucose level is less than 140 mg/dL.
• A 2-hour glucose level is less than 10 mg/dL.
• A 2-hour glucose level greater than 153 mg/dL.
• No change in glucose values during the 2-hour glucose tolerance test.
• A 2-hour glucose level is less than 140 mg/dL.
Which of the following is associated with an increased susceptibility to infection in AIDS patients?
• Decreased CD4+ cells
• Decreased CD8+ cells
• Decreased HIV antigens
• Decreased HIV antibodies
• Decreased CD4+ cells
Based on the following results obtained against a patient’s red cells, what will the genotype look like in this example?
Anti-C= 4+
Anti-c = 4+
Anti-E = 0
Anti-e = 4+
Anti-D = 0
•RoRo
•rr
•r’r
•RyR2
•r’r
What is the term used to describe inadequate blood supply that decreases availability of oxygen to the myocardium?
• Acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
• Angina
• Congestive heart failure (CHF)
• Myocardial ischemia
• Myocardial ischemia
What does the red cell distribution width (RDW) indicate on the peripheral blood smear?
• Variability of RBC volume
• Poikilocytosis
• Macrocytosis
• Microcytosis
• Variability of RBC volume
A physician suspected that a young, sexually active woman had bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following specimen sources is the correct specimen of choice to support a bacterial vaginosis infection?
• Urethral
• Endocervical
• Vaginal
• Cervical
• Vaginal
Units of A-negative, B-negative, and O-negative red blood cells are shipped to your transfusion service. What testing MUST be performed by your facility before placing these units into your inventory?
• АВО
•ABO and Rh
• ABO, Rh and antibody screen
• ABO, Rh and Weak D to confirm negative status
•ABO and Rh
Which of the following statements are true regarding the storage and handling of urinalysis chemical reagent strips?
• Variations in temperature during storage will not affect the effectiveness of the chemicals on the reagent pads.
• Touching the reagent areas of the strip will not interfere with test results.
• Remove only enough strips for immediate use.
• The bottle of reagent strips can remain uncovered once it has been opened.
• Remove only enough strips for immediate use.
You are performing a manual antibody titer in a clinical laboratory. You have made serial dilutions of a patient’s plasma sample and you are looking for anti-streptolysin O antibodies. The first tube contains pure patient plasma. The second tube contains a 1:2 dilution of the first tube. The third tube contains a 1:2 dilution of the second tube and so on. The patient’s antibodies no longer give visible reaction in tube 5, indicating their titer is tube 4 (or the last tube where there is a positive result). What is the concentration of antibodies in tube 4 compared to the concentration in tube 1?
• The concentration of antibodies in tube 4 is the same as the concentration of antibodies in tube 1.
• The concentration of antibodies in tube 4 is about 1,4 the concentration of antibodies in tube 1.
• The concentration of antibodies in tube 4 is 1/8 the concentration of antibodies in tube 1.
• The concentration of antibodies in tube 4 is 4 times the concentration of antibodies in tube 1.
• The concentration of antibodies in tube 4 is 1/8 the concentration of antibodies in tube 1.
When performing a transfusion reaction investigation, what is the clerical check used to detect?
• The type of reaction that occurred
• The patient’s hemoglobin and hematocrit
• Errors that may cause an ABO-incompatibility due to patient or donor unit mix up
• Medication errors
• Errors that may cause an ABO-incompatibility due to patient or donor unit mix up
The erythrocyte inclusions, which are thin, red-purple staining strands, usually found in figure-eight shapes, are called:
• Basophilic stippling
• Cabot rings
• Pappenheimer bodies
•Heinz bodies
• Cabot rings
The microscopic examination of a fecal preparation for Ova and Parasites revealed the presence of an egg that was tentatively identified as Taenia saginata. The microbiology supervisor who also examined the specimen noted that a genus identification of Taenia was correct based on the morphology of the egg, but a definitive species identification could not be determined. What other parasite’s eggs are indistinguishable from those of
T. saginata?
• Dipyllidium caninum
• Echinococcus granulosus
• Hymenolepis diminuta
• Taenia solium
• Taenia solium
Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) percent can be used as an assay to diagnose which of the following conditions?
• Diabetes
• Cirrhosis
• Myocardial infarction
•Leukemia
• Diabetes
