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2 Flashcards

1
Q

Default shape of bacteria

A

Coccus

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2
Q

Default shape of bacteria is coccus because it doesn’t have

A

Mreb cytoskeleton

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3
Q

Elongation of your cell is dependent on your

A

Mreb cytoskeleton

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4
Q

Curving of bacterial cell is dependent on the

A

cresentin cytoskeleton

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5
Q

Spore forming genera in gram positive bacilli

A

Genus bacillus
Genus clostridum

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6
Q

Branching genus appears like a fungi in microscope

A

Genus nocardia
Genus actinomyces

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7
Q

NON-SPORE-FORMING, NON-BRANCHING, CATALASE POSITIVE:

A

Corynebacterium
Rothia
Listeria

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8
Q

SPORE-FORMING, NON-BRANCHING, CATALASE POSITIVE:

A

Bacillus

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9
Q

NON-SPORE-FORMING, NON-BRANCHING, CATALASE NEGATIVE:

A

Erysiphelotrix
Gardnerella

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10
Q

NON-SPORE-FORMING, BRANCHING:

A

Nocardia and other actinomyces

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11
Q

Clubbed or irregularly shaped, non-motile, non-capsulated, non-spore- forming, highly pleomorphic

A

Genus corynebacterium

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12
Q

Why is Corynebacterium highly pleomorphic?

A

Because it has an incomplete binary fission

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13
Q

Lipophilic (fastidious, slow growers):

A

C. jeikeium
C. urealyticum

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14
Q

Non-Lipophilic (fermentative/oxidative):

A

C. ulcerans
C. pseudotuberculosis
C. amycolatum
C. striatum
C. xerosis
C. minutissimum

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15
Q

Non-fermentative:

A

C.pseudodiphtheriticum
C.auris
C.glucuronolyticum

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16
Q

Inhabits the nasopharynx causes multi organ failure

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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17
Q

Heat-labile polypeptide; alkaline & iron loving, Carried by TOX gene from β-phage

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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18
Q

Respiratory Diphtheria (toxigenic)
* Pharyngitis characterized by the development of an ______ that covers tonsils, uvula, palate & pharyngeal wall.

A

exudative membrane (pseudomembrane)

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19
Q

Color of pseudomembrane

A

Greyish black-leathery

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20
Q

-edema in the neck area (cervical &
submandibular lymphadenopathy)
-common in children, due to lymphadenopathy
(swelling of lymph nodes)

A

Bull’s Neck Appearance

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21
Q

Difficulty swallowing

A

Respiratory Diphtheria

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22
Q

Veldt sore or Barcoo root

A

Cutaneous diphtheria

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23
Q

It is characterized by slow healing ulcers with dirty gray membrane may or may not develop immunity

A

Cutaneous diphtheria

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24
Q

is disease of the children (6-8 yrs old)

A

Diphtheria

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25
Q

Most effective treatment from diphtheria

A

Diphtheria antitoxin (DAT)

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26
Q

inhibits bacterial growth (also
eliminates streptococcal infection)

A

Penicillin and erythromycin

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27
Q
  • Frequently isolated and most clinical significant
  • Urinary pathogen
    o Marked by rapid urease production
A

C. urealyticum

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28
Q
  • Indigenous microbiota of inguinal, axillary and rectal areas
  • Multi-drug resistant (β-Lactams)
  • Common cause to infect:
    o prosthetic valve o catheters
    o CSF shunts
  • Common nosocomial pathogen
A

C. jeikeium

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29
Q
  • Zoonotic source of infection
    o Unpasteurized milk
  • Diphtheria-like symptoms
  • Diphtheroid group
A

C. ulcerans

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30
Q
  • Zoonotic source of infection mostly seen in cows
  • It produces dermonecrotic toxin
  • Diphtheroid group
A

C. pseudotubercolosis

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31
Q

C. pseudotubercolosis
* Common manifestation in man

A

Suppurative granulomatous lymphadenitis

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32
Q
  • Multiple antibiotic resistance pattern
  • Prosthetic joint infection; neonatal sepsis
  • Nosocomial infection
A

C. amycolatum

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33
Q
  • Erythasma:
    o Superficial
    o Pruritic infection
A

C. minutissimum

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34
Q
  • Can be confused with C. amycolatum; * Infection immunocompromised patients
A

C. xerosis

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35
Q
  • Hospital-acquired pneumonia and lung abscess
    (immunocompromised patients)
A

C. striatum

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36
Q
  • Associated with otitis media in children
A

C. auris

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37
Q
  • Indigenous microbiota of human pharynx
  • Can cause respiratory infection, UTI and cutaneous
    infection in HIV patients
A

C. pseudodiphtheriticum

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38
Q
  • Prostatitis and non-gonococcal urethritis
  • Pathogen of male genitourinary tract
A

C. glucoronolyticum

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39
Q

urine present as pure culture as predominant organism at greater than

A

10,000 CFU/L

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40
Q

sole isolate at colony count of greater than

A

100,000 CFU/mL

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41
Q
A
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42
Q

What are the culture medium used for isolation in Corynebacterium

A

5% SBA, 1% TWEEN 80, Rabbit Serum
Cysteine Tellurite Blood Agar (CTBA)
Tinsdale Medium
Lamb Loeffler’s/ PAI coagulated egg/ LSS

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43
Q

non-hemolytic; large, flat, dark-grayish colonies, “daisy-head” (corrugations sa side)

A

Biotype Gravis
5% SBA
(1% TWEEN 80) (Rabbit Serum)

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44
Q

non-hemolytic; pinpoint, flat, grayish-black, “frog’s egg”

A

Biotype Intermedius
5% SBA
(1% TWEEN 80) (Rabbit Serum)

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45
Q

hemolytic; small, convex, black colonies, “fried-egg”

A

Biotype Mitis
5% SBA
(1% TWEEN 80) (Rabbit Serum)

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46
Q

CTBA
1. (+) result:
2. Intermedius:
3. Mitis:
4. (+) brown halo for:

A
  1. Black to brown colonies after 48 hours
  2. Black colonies with gray borders
  3. Mitis: bleach-like odor
  4. (+) brown halo for: Diphtheroid group
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47
Q

Tinsdale Medium (+) result

A

Brown to black with gray to brown halos (C. diphtheriae group)

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48
Q

Enhances pleomorphism and metachromatic granule formation

A

Loeffler’s Medium/ Pai coagulated egg/ LSS

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49
Q

Gray-white translucent colonies after 12-18 hrs (poached –egg appearance)

A

Loeffler’s Medium/ Pai coagulated egg/ LSS

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50
Q

preferred medium for isolation of Corynebacterium diphtheria

A

CTBA

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51
Q
  • club-shaped, highly pleomorphic cells arranged in X, V, Y, L, picket fence, Chinese letters, palisade, parallel rows
A

C. diphtheriae

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52
Q

Why does C. diphtheriae has swollen tip?

A

Because of excessive production of polyphosphate/ metachromatic granules can also be called as babes-ernst, volutin

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53
Q

is used for metachromatic
granule/Babe’s – Ernst granule observation

A

Albert & Neisser Staining Method

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54
Q
  • used to observe urease production of C. urealyticum
A

Christensen’s Urea Slant

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55
Q

Reverse CAMP:

A

C. pseudodipthericum
C. ulcerans

56
Q

Positive for halo production is only for those who belong in

A

diphtheroid group

56
Q

Esculin hydrolysis all are

A

Negative

57
Q

Gelatinase is unique to your

A

ulcerans

58
Q

is nitrate producer while the rest are negative
or variable

A

Diphtheriae

59
Q

are urease producer
while the rest are negative

A

Ulcerans and pseudotubercolosis

60
Q

is a rapid producer of urease in your
Christensen’s urea agar

A

Urealyticum

61
Q

are positive for black type hemolysis or reverse cap hemolysis.

A

Pseudodiphthericum and ulcerans

62
Q

Positive result for ELEK test (immunodiffusion test)

A

4-mm to 5-mm fine precipitin lines at a 45 degree angle to the streaks; arch of identity

63
Q

Positive for Shick test

A

Reddening

64
Q

used to detect and ascertain the neutralization
effect of diphtheria antitoxin on a cell-free suspension of suspected organism

A

Guinea Pig Lethality Assay

65
Q

Detection of 300 fatty acids and related
compounds such as aldehydes and dimethyl-acetals via Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC).

A

Whole Cell Fatty Acid Analysis

66
Q

Detection of meso-diaminopimelic acid (meso-DAP), L-Lysine, DD or LL-DAP, β- OHDAP,DorLornithineandDorL Diamino butyric (DAB) via High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC).

A

Cell Wall Diamino Acid Analysis

67
Q

Used to reliably identify toxigenic strains of Corynebacterium

A

Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption Ionization Time-Of-Flight Mass Spectroscopy (Malditof- Ms)

68
Q

Detection of Diphteria toxin gene (tox gene) via

A

16 s rRNA

69
Q

MOE: Ingestion of contaminated food (primary), vertical transmission, cross-infection

A

Listeria monocytogenes

70
Q

is uncommon but is able to cause serious infections primarily in neonates, pregnant women, elderly & immunocompromised patients

A

Listeriosis

71
Q

PATHOGENESIS/VIRULENCE FACTOR ( Listeria monocytogenes)

A

Adhesins
Surface protein p60 / Internalin A and B
Act A
Listeriolysin O
Catalase: Superoxide dismutase; Phospholipase A, B, C
Sidephores

72
Q

Facilitates bacterial binding to the host cell

A

Adhesins

73
Q

targets your non-specific host
receptors

A

Autolysin Amidase (Ami)

74
Q

binds to intestinal
epithelium

A

FbpA (Fibronectin-binding Protein A)

75
Q

adhesion to mammalian cells

A

CtaP (Cystiene transport associated Protein)

76
Q

promotes binding in intestinal origin

A

LapB (Listeria adhesion protein B)

77
Q

Increases adhesion and penetration into mammalian cells

A

Surface Protein (p60)/Internalin A & B

78
Q

Actin polymerization within the host cells enabling a cell-to- cell spreading

A

Act A

79
Q
  • Destroys the phagosome membrane by pore-formation that reduces T-cell responsiveness
  • Plasmid-borne virulence
A

Listeriolysin O (hemolysin)

80
Q

Enables the bacteria escape the bacterial killing

A

Catalase; Superoxide Dismutase; Phospholipase A, B &C

81
Q

Competes with transferrin for iron

A

Siderophores

82
Q

Which among the following gram positive bacilli has the ability to cause spontaneous abortion? within 3-7 days

A

Listeria monocytogenes

83
Q

Intra-uterine origin of neonatal systemic septic infection with lesions and granuloma in fetus’s organs; high mortality rate (50%)

A

Early Onset Infection (granulomatosis infantiseptica)

84
Q

occurs 6-48 hrs after ingestion of contaminated food (Listeria)

A

Meningoencephalitis and Bacteremia

85
Q

causes foodborne outbreak

A

Febrile Gastroenteritis

86
Q

Are used as medication combination; is the drug of choice in Listeria

A

Ampicillin and Gentamicin

87
Q

Is the drug of choice for CNS infection on patients allergic to penicillin

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

88
Q

Are not effective against listeria infection

A

Cephalosporins and Flouroquinolones

89
Q

Medium for Listeria

A

McBride Medium

90
Q

Wet Motility examination

A

Tumbling Motility

91
Q

Listeria growth in SIM

A

Inverted Christmas tree or umbrella growth

92
Q

CAMP reaction in Listeria

A

Block type hemolysis

93
Q

Biochemical Test is positive for

A

Catalase, Hippurate Hydrolysis, Bile Esculin Test, Vogues-Proskauer, Methyl Red & growth in 6.5% NaCl, acid fermentation from glucose

94
Q

Biochemical Test is negative for

A

H2S, nitrate reduction and urease

95
Q

an enzyme that is produced only by L. monocytogenes and L.
ivanovii and activity of this enzyme is
measured using chromogenic media. (MANIFESTATION IS BLUE GREEN COLONIES)

A

Phosphatidylinositol specific phospholipase C (PIPL-C)

96
Q

L. monocytogenes is known to have ____ serovars based on _____ and ______antigens.

A

13
O somatic
H flagellar

97
Q

Serotype ____ causes most foodborne infection

A

4b

98
Q

The presence of a target sequence is detected using an oligonucleotide probe of complementary sequence to the target DNA sequence which contains a label for detection

A

DNA Hybridization

99
Q

Ano mostly dinedetect sa L. monocytogenes?

A

Specific virulence factor

100
Q

A reliable and reproducible technique for identification and differentiation of L. monocytogenes from other Listeria species using primers targeting genes of virulence factors of RNA sub-unit genes

A

PCR based detection

101
Q

C. diptheriae, ano dinedetect sa diagnosis?

A

Immunoserological reactions

102
Q

gram-positive cocci that can appear rod-like that belongs to the family Micrococcaceae

A

Rothia spp.

103
Q

linked to endocarditis, bacteremia & pneumonia

A

Rothia mucilaginosa

104
Q

normal human oropharyngeal microbiota found in saliva & supragingival plaque: assosciated with
endocarditis

A

Rothia dentacariosa

105
Q

Which bacillus is crystal forming?

A

B. thuringiensis

106
Q

Which bacillus is heat tolerant?

A

B. cytotoxicus

107
Q

Which bacillus is Probiotic?

A

B. toyonensis

108
Q

Which bacillus is cold tolerant?

A

B. weihenstephanensis

109
Q

B. anthracis VIRULENCE FACTORS
Produced during environmental stress;
evades phagocytosis

A

Endospores

110
Q

B. anthracis VIRULENCE FACTORS
Resistant to hydrolysis of host proteolytic
enzymes

A

D-glutamic acid capsule

111
Q

(plasmid-borne virulence)

A

Exotoxins (Anthrax Toxin)

112
Q

Binding molecule of EF & LF for them to attach to specific receptors in the host cell
Pinaka carrier ng active toxins

A

Protective Antigen (PA)

113
Q

An adenylate cyclase that increases
the concentration of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) in host cells
Effect ng CAMP ay fluid release.

A

Edema Factor (EF)

114
Q

A protease that kills the host cell by disrupting the transduction of extracellular regulatory signals

A

Lethal Factor

115
Q

Common disease of livestock when vaccine is not used

A

Anthrax bacillus

116
Q

Develops if spores are introduced in skin abrasions, cuts or insect bites

A

Cutaneous Anthrax

117
Q

Also known as:
o Wool-sorter’s disease
o Rag-picker’s disease
o Pulmonary anthrax (previous name)
* Acquired by inhalation of spores in to
pulmonary parenchyma

A

lnhaltion anthrax

118
Q

MAC activation causing Colloid Osmotic Lysis

A

Hemolysis BL

118
Q

Food poisoning is a common manifestation of infection especially in rice dishes.

A

B. cereus

119
Q
A
120
Q

Heat-stable, proteolysis and acid-
resistant toxin that causes emetic
symptoms

A

Cerulide

120
Q

pore-forming toxins (PFTs) disrupt the
membrane of epithelial cells lining the
gastrointestinal tract

A

Cytotoxin K/ Hemolysin IV

121
Q

Cerulide Enterotoxin:
Parasporal crystalline inclusions (Cry and Cyt
proteins):
Vegetative insecticidal proteins (Vips) & Secreted insecticidal protein (Sips)

A

Bacillus thuringiensis

122
Q

Common laboratory contaminant

A

Bacillus subtilis

123
Q
A
124
Q

Active Disinfectants:

A

Formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde, hydrogen peroxide, peracetic acid

125
Q

Heat (70C for 30 mins or 80C for 10 mins) and alcohol shock treatment (to kill non-spore formers in a sample)

A

Enrichment Method

126
Q

> 1 μm; no swelling of endospore:

A

B. anthracis, B. cereus, B. mycoides, B. thuringensis, B. megaterium

127
Q

< 1 μm; no swelling of endospore:

A

B. subtilis, B. pumulis, B. licheniformis

128
Q

< 1 μm; swelling of endospore:

A

B. circulans, B. coagulans, B. sphericus, B. brevis, P. spp.

129
Q

Non hemolytic “Medusa head or comet tail”

A

Bacillus anthracis

130
Q

B-hemolytic “beta hemolysis”

A

Bacillus cereus

131
Q

Used for contaminated cultures that appears creamy-white, domed, circular colonies

A

PLET

132
Q
A
133
Q
A

Bacte (1 decks)

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