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Iron Cuts > 2 > Flashcards

2 Flashcards

1
Q

Max daily dose for NSAIDs?h

a. 3200mgs
b. 4000mgs
c. 40mgs

A

3200mgs

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2
Q 
NO use during pregnancy is contraindicated in
a. 1
st
trimester
b. 2
nd
trimester
c. 3
rd
trimester
d. no contraindications for use
A

1
st
trimester

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3
Q

Patient on renal dialysis should be seen for routine surgical extraction

a. Day of dialysis
b. One hour after dialysis
c. One day after dialysis
d. One week after dialysis

A

One day after dialysis

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4
Q

Cardiac dose of epinephrine is how many mg/30 minutes?

a. 4 mg
b. .4 mg
c. .04 mg
d. 40 mg
e. 1.8 mg

A

.04 mg

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5
Q

All of the following are indications for anticoagulant use except

a. MI
b. COPD
c. Venous thrombosis
d. Pulmonary embolism

A

COPD

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6
Q

Tx for ecchymosis

A

No tx necessary

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7
Q

Pt experiences trismus after multiple local anesthetic injections. Most
common muscle affected is

A

Medial pterygoid muscle

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8
Q

Short incisions heal faster than long incisions

a. True
b. False

A

False – incisions heal edge to edge, not end to end

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9
Q

Most common reason for prolonged post-op bleeding OR delayed healing is
failure to achieve primary closure
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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10
Q

For extraction of a mandibular molar the chair should be positioned so that the mandibular occlusal plane is

A

Parallel to the floor when the mouth is open

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11
Q

Picture of an elevator placed vertically along root tip and asked what
instrument and action was being shown

A

Woodson #1 and wedge/shoehorn

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12
Q

Picture of a triangular elevator and question asking what action was being shown

A

Wheel and axle

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13
Q

When using forceps which of the following should be considered

A

Continually reseat the beaks apically

Use controlled and deliberate forces when luxating and hold each
for a few seconds

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14
Q

When removing max canine which of the following is not true

a. Use strong palatal force because of thick palatal bone
b. They can be difficult to remove b/c of long roots
c. When isolated they can be grasped M-D
d. Labial plate easily fractured b/c it is very thin

A

Use strong palatal force because of thick palatal bone

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15
Q

Ibuprophen is most effective when given

A

1 hour pre-op

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16
Q

Which instrument is versatile and can be used to test for anesthesia, elevate a flap, and widen the pdl space for insertion of the #301?

A

Woodson No. 1

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17
Q

Picture of a 3 cornered flap and question of where the first suture would be
placed

A

Attached gingiva along relaxing incision

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18
Q

If a piece of bone is removed with the tooth it should be replaced in the socket and sutured.

a. True
b. False

A

False

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19
Q

All of the following are used of the surgeon’s free hand EXCEPT

a. Reflects cheeks
b. Stabilize TMJ
c. Protect other teeth
d. Use for extra force on the forceps

A

Use for extra force on the forceps

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20
Q

Mandibular 3rd molars can be displaced into which of the following

a. Max sinus
b. Infratemporal fossa
c. Submental space
d. Submandibular space
e. Mandibular canal

A

Submandibular space

Mandibular canal

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21
Q

The most common tooth to experience root fracture is

A

max 1st PM

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22
Q

The one tooth that can be frequently removed with elevators only is

A

Max 3rd molars

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23
Q

Picture of a flap design for removing tooth #13 and asked which would be a properly designed envelope flap

A

2 ant and 1 post w/o releasing incisions

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24
Q

Which flap has one relaxing incision?

a. Three corner
b. Two corner
c. Four corner

A

Three corner

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25
Q

Which suture has only one tie and the ability to hold medicaments in the
socket?

A

Figure 8

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26
Q

After plan A (closed extraction with elevators and forceps) has failed plan B would entail

A

Reflect a small envelope flap, access and visualization of bone,
etc.

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27
Q

Roots of mandibular molar has been M-D sectioned, flap created, bone
removed, etc. and are still unable to be removed. Sectioning the root B-L will not aid in their removal.

A

b. False

28
Q

When removing max molar when crown is missing, after sectioning, which root should be removed first

A

Whichever of the two buccal roots is easiest to remove

29
Q

Of the following patients which is most qualified for an open, surgical
extraction
a. Women w/ RCT
b. 30 y-o male with dense buccal bone normal roots
c. male w/ super-erupted tooth and roots into pneumatized max
sinus

A

male w/ super-erupted tooth and roots into pneumatized max

sinus

30
Q

Man received 7500 rads of irradiation therapy 7 years ago for squamous cell
carcinoma. Needs three post teeth removed. This is okay b/c he is no longer
at risk for osteoradionecrosis of the jaw?
a. True
b. False

A

False (must be <5000)

31
Q

Female has chronic periapical infection around tooth. You extract tooth and
small 2mm portion of root fractures and remains. It is okay to leave this
behind because of the small size.
a. True
b. False

A

False – not ok with periapical infection

32
Q

Which of the following are true of alveolitis?

A

All of the above

33
Q

When performing multiple extractions all of the following are true EXCEPT

A

Always perform alveoloplasty/ectomy?

34
Q

Girl has surgical extractions and which of the following would be reasons to
see her post-op
a. Bright red bleeding >24 hrs after extraction
b. Little swelling at first then increased rapidly after 5 days
c. Little pain at first then unbearable after 3 days
d. Slight swelling 72 hours after extraction

e. Bruised 24 hours after extraction

A

a. Bright red bleeding >24 hrs after extraction
b. Little swelling at first then increased rapidly after 5 days
c. Little pain at first then unbearable after 3 days

35
Q

When comparing aspirin and acetaminophen which is true

A

Aspirin tags all circulating platelets while acetaminophen has no
effect on platelets.

36
Q

Demerol and tramadol are suitable substitutes for pts allergic to codeine.

a. True
b. False

A

True

37
Q

Percocet is a schedule II narcotic and contains hydrocodone and
acetaminophen.
a. True
b. False

A

False

38
Q

2 Tabs of Tylenol #2 contain:

A

30 mg codeine

600 mg Tylenol

39
Q

When extracting a max molar a large part of max tuberosity is fractured.
What should you do?

A

Stop extraction, splint tooth for 6-8 weeks, sx extraction at that
time

40
Q

Patient is sent to you for ortho extractions of four PMs. You realize you have extracted wrong tooth. What do you do?

A

Rinse in saline, reimplant, call orthodontist to see about changing
tx plan

41
Q

While extracting a tooth you inadvertently luxate the adjacent tooth and it is very loose. What should you do?

A

Stop procedure, stabilize tooth that was inadvertently luxated,
relieve occlusion, splint

42
Q

A 5mm oral antral opening is created when removing a max molar. You close
with a figure 8 stitch, instruct patient to take “sinus precautions” and
prescribe which of the following?

A

Antibiotic (penicillin)

Nasal spray

Possible nasal decongestant

43
Q

Patient complains of prolonged numbness x number of weeks after you performed a block and extraction. You should wait one year before referral to oral surgeon because that is how long it takes to heal.

a. True
b. False

A

False

44
Q

Peterson’s 5 A’s are

A

a. Aspirin
b. Anticoagulants
c. Antibiotics
d. Alcohol
e. Anticancer Meds

45
Q

Lab coagulation profile includes

A

a. PT
b. PTT
c. Platelet count
d. BT

46
Q

What is true of Surgicel

a. Can be packed with pressure
b. Has antibacterial properties
c. Is used with Thrombin

A

Can be packed with pressure

Has antibacterial properties

47
Q

Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin and is used on gelfoam.

a. True
b. False

A

True

48
Q

Tx of alveolitis

A

Irrigate with warm water and pack with sedative dressing

49
Q

Incision lines can often collapse into the defect and cause dehiscence after
surgical extraction, in order to prevent this how far should incisions be
placed from the bony defect?

A

6-8 mm

50
Q

Incisions are not commonly placed near the canines because of which of the
following?
a. Bony eminence so gingiva extremely thin
b. Frena/muscle attachments
c. ….
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

51
Q 
The part of the health questionnaire concerned with major diseases,
medications and allergies is called the
a. Review of systems
b. History of present illness
c. Chief complaint
d. Past medical history
A

Past medical history

52
Q

An oral antral fistula is an opening between the oral mucosa and the sinus
membrane
a. True
b. False

A

True

53
Q

The main substance holding the wound together in the inflammatory stage is

a. Plasma
b. Fibrin
c. Collagen

A

Fibrin

54
Q

Which of the following is not present in a scar forming wound

a. Collagen
b. Plasma
c. Fibronectin
d. Elastin

A

Elastin

55
Q

Dolor (pain) and Rubor (redness) are two cardinal signs of inflammation that
are caused by vasodilation
a. True
b. False

A

False

56
Q

Which is an example of primary intention

a. Healing by electrocautery
b. Avulsion wounds
c. Healing by tissue grafts
d. Anatomic re-approximation of severed nerves

A

Anatomic re-approximation of severed nerves

57
Q

In order to receive radiology treatment, you must wait until epithelial

closure. For molars, this usually takes place within 21 days
a. True
b. False

A

True

58
Q

The most important factors in bone healing are due to

a. Adequate vascularity
b. Immobility
c. A and B are true

A

A and B are true

Adequate vascularity

Immobility

59
Q

A nerve damage that disrupts the nerve sheath with the axon intact and can
cause moderate paresthesia is termed neurotemesis

a. True
b. False

A

False

60
Q

A patient has a large wound that continues to decrease in size. They will
regain 100% of the strength from before the wound occurred
a. True
b. False

A

False

61
Q

After a surgical extraction, the gingival tissues must be freed up and sutured
in a way to prevent secondary intention
a. True
b. False

A

False

62
Q

The main purpose of a flap is to

a. Provide adequate access
b. Retract the tissues so they will not become damaged by instruments

A

Provide adequate access

63
Q

Smallest to largest suture size

a. 2-0 to 10-0
b. 6-0 to 3-0
c. 10-0 to 1-0***
d. 3-0 to 6-0

A

10-0 to 1-0***

64
Q

which is the least reactive suture available to us?

A

Polygalactin 910 (Vicryl)

65
Q

What is the most commonly used suture in oral surgery?

a. Silk
b. Vicryl
c. Dexcryl
d. Chromic gut***

A

Chromic gut***

Iron Cuts (6 decks)

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