1st Volume - HVAC/R General Subjects Flashcards
1
Q
What Outlines the basis of CE Organizations
A
Joint Publication 3-34, Engineer Doctrine for Joint Operations
2
Q
What breaks the CE organization into two basic units?
A
Joint Publication 3-34, Engineer Doctrine for Joint Operations
3
Q
What are the two basic units of CE organizations?
A
base civil engineer (BCE) units and RED HORSE units.
4
Q
What is the basic organizational unit for civil engineer operations?
A
The BCE unit
5
Q
How do BCE units operate?
A
As a combat support force, providing direct support to an operational mission.
6
Q
What is the BCE unit’s primary mission?
A
To establish, sustain, and restore the base infrastructure.
7
Q
What does infrastructure include?
A
Buildings, utilities (water, gas, electricity), and roads.
8
Q
What are CE’s two core missions?
A
Wartime and peacetime
9
Q
What is the BCE unit’s secondary mission?
A
Provide critical operational support such as fire protection, crash rescue, disaster preparedness, EOD, environmental, housing, and technical engineer services.
10
Q
How is the CE organization structured?
A
As an objective squadron.
11
Q
Why is CE structured as an objective squadron?
A
To implement the Air Force’s goal to streamline functions and responsibilities.
12
Q
What enables us to do our job more effectively using fewer people?
A
The objective squadron concept.
13
Q
What does the Housing Flight provide?
A
All permanent party personnel with adequate government housing when It is available or assists them with locating adequate off-base housing through referral services. It provides and manages furnishings where authorized and manages all aspects of the housing program
14
Q
Who provides cradle-to-grave technical design and construction surveillance of operations and maintenance projects by contract?
A
The Engineering Flight
15
Q
What empowers decision-making and work activities at the lowest level in the Air Force?
A
Objective squadron concept
16
Q
What does RED HORSE stand for?
A
Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineer
17
Q
What RED HORSE units are structured for?
A
wartime operations to provide heavy engineer capability
18
Q
Who provides air component commanders with a dedicated and flexible unit capable of airfield and base heavy construction and repair?
A
RED HORSE
19
Q
What unit has 400 squadron personnel and over 1,800 tons of heavy construction and support equipment and vehicles?
A
RED HORSE
20
Q
Where are requirements for the Prime BEEF program located?
A
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–210, Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) Program
21
Q
What five-character, alphanumeric code uniquely identifies each type unit of the Armed Forces?
A
Unit Type Codes (UTC)
22
Q
Who establishes Unit Type Codes (UTC)?
A
MAJCOMs
23
Q
What code establish the size, composition and equipment that make up Prime BEEF teams?
A
Unit Type Codes (UTC)
24
Q
Who writes a designed operational capability (DOC) statement for each unit assigned to them?
A
MAJCOMs
25
What are DOC statements are based on?
the number and type of authorized personnel in each unit
26
The basic CE contingency mission includes what?
Force beddown of Air Force units and weapons systems; Operation and maintenance of Air Force facilities, infrastructure, and installations; Aircraft rescue and facility fire suppression; Command and control staff augmentation; Emergency repair of air bases; Construction management of emergency repair and force beddown activities; Rendering safe and disposal of explosive ordnance; Monitoring and protecting resources subject to conventional, nuclear, biological, and chemical attack.
27
What response time do MAJCOMs use for Prime BEEF forces?
24 hours for active units and 28 hours after activation for ANG and AFRES units
28
What do Prime BEEF UTC core positions represent?
minimally acceptable skills and proficiency levels necessary to organize and lead the most demanding contingency tasks required of the UTC; they serve as the core of experts for the UTC.
29
What are Prime BEEF UTC non-core positions?
those that have the same specialty but a lower skill level or those where substitution by other CE Air Force Specialties (AFSs) is permitted
30
Which positions combine to deliver the total manpower necessary for the UTC to conduct successful operations?
Core and non-core positions
31
What is the basis for all Prime BEEF training?
AFI 10–210, Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) Program
32
Who must attend Silver Flag training?
All personnel filling critical UTC positions
33
What establishes a systematic framework for decision-making with regard to the development of Air Force installations?
AF Comprehensive planning
34
What incorporates Air Force programs such as operational, environmental, and urban planning to identify and assess development alternatives and ensure compliance with applicable federal, state, and local laws, regulations, and policies?
AF Comprehensive planning
35
What allows commanders to thoroughly analyze a variety of factors before making a decision that affects the installation or the surrounding community?
AF Comprehensive planning
36
What keeps everyone on the same page to make sure we meet mission requirements?
AF Comprehensive planning
37
What incorporates many documents and graphics that provide relevant information used in the planning and decision-making process?
AF Comprehensive plan
38
What are the four basic parts of the comprehensive plan?
general plan, component plans, special plans and studies, and maps
39
Which plan is a decision-maker’s summary document that contains text, maps, graphics, photographs, and other information, in a condensed format?
General plan
40
Which plan generally synopsizes information from the component plans as well as other planning documents?
General plan
41
Which plan allows easy updates and provides flexibility in responding to changes in the mission?
General plan
42
Which plans provide DETAILED information in the form of graphics, textual data, narrative, and maps that focus on specific functional areas?
Component Plans
43
Which plans provide an EXTENDED level of information and detail as needed to support execution of Air Force Civil Engineer programs
Component Plans
44
What are the four component plans under the comprehensive plan structure?
Composite Constraints and Opportunities; Infrastructure; Land Use and Transportation; and, Capital Improvements Program
45
What helps visually explain the narrative contained in the general plan, component plans, and special plans and studies?
Maps
46
What informs military planners of what the capabilities of an installation are and how they fit into the overall battle plans?
The USAF GeoBase Program
47
What is the vision of the USAF GeoBase?
One installation, one map
48
What is the high-resolution base map for an installation and includes facilities that all functional communities typically view for reference?
The Common Installation Picture (CIP)
49
What map includes an overhead satellite image or aerial photograph?
The Common Installation Picture (CIP)
50
What should serve as the foundation for the USAF Comprehensive Planning C-1 Installation Layout Map?
The Common Installation Picture (CIP)
51
Who maintains the Common Installation Picture (CIP) at each installation?
Civil Engineers
52
GeoBase is comprised of four unique decision support environments. What are they?
Garrison GeoBase, Strategic GeoBase, GeoReach Process, and Expeditionary GeoBase
53
What GeoBase environment enhances the many overlapping mapping efforts across major and minor installations with a single, coherent approach?
Garrison GeoBase
54
What GeoBase environment provides the structure for base operational support (BOS)?
Garrison GeoBase
55
What GeoBase environment provides the foundation for the Strategic GeoBase program environment?
Garrison GeoBase
56
What GeoBase environment is also a key training device for ground support mapping of forward operating locations (FOLs) during expeditionary operations?
Garrison GeoBase
57
What GeoBase environment offers the Air Force, DoD, and other government leadership the means to visualize Air Force installations through generalized views of detailed imagery and map data maintained as part of Garrison GeoBase?
Strategic GeoBase
58
What process provides senior planners and airmen with new intelligence enabling improved FOL selection, Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data planning, and accelerated bed-down of deployed personnel?
The GeoReach Process
59
What provides support to the Air Force Global Mobility Concept of Operations and the Expeditionary Site Survey Process?
The GeoReach Process
60
What is a lean, forward deployed version of Garrison GeoBase capabilities?
Expeditionary GeoBase
61
What provides provisional commanders and airmen enhanced situational awareness of the expeditionary base?
Expeditionary GeoBase
62
What enables Expeditionary GeoBase and sustains capabilities acquired at home stations through training?
The GeoReach Process
63
What is a template-based site designed to provide a standard for presenting information in support of the The Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) Program?
The Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) Portal
64
What makes the distribution of site mapping information and map visualization content to DoD users easy?
The Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) Portal
65
What portal aligns leadership’s vision for the Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) program with current and future site mapping capabilities and development initiatives?
The Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) Portal
66
What provides a common view of the Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) program throughout the Air Force?
The Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) Portal
67
What are geospatial data layers supporting one or more functional communities’ specific missions or processes?
Mission Data Sets (MDS)
68
What Air Force document outlines the basis of the Civil Engineer organizations?
Joint Publication 3–34, Engineer Doctrine for Joint Operations
69
What is the difference between an Air and Space Expeditionary Wing and an Air and Space Expeditionary Force?
The AEW must deploy quickly anywhere in the world while the AEF always knows when it is going to deploy and for how long
70
The Civil Engineer Operations Flight includes the elements of Material Acquisition, Facility
Maintenance, Heavy Repair, and
Infrastructure Support.
71
A RED HORSE unit will deploy with virtually all support necessary to support what function(s)?
Force beddown and expedient construction.
72
Who schedules and coordinates Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve training
deployments?
HQ AFCESA.
73
MAJCOMs ensure that Prime BEEF operational and training activities comply with
environmental laws and standards described in
AFPD 32–70, Environmental Quality.
74
A Prime BEEF unit’s response time
is always 24 hours after the mission begins
75
What Air Force instructional guidance is the basis for all Prime BEEF training?
AFI 10–210, Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) Program.
76
When a Prime BEEF member relocates to another duty station, what happens to his or her training record?
A printout of the training record or AF Form 1098 is placed in the member’s AF Form 623,
Individual Training Record.
77
After receiving initial nuclear, biological, and chemical defense and explosive ordnance
reconnaissance training, how often will you get refresher training for proper wear of chemical gear?
Annually.
78
What is your primary weapon when assigned to a Prime BEEF position?
M–16 rifle.
79
The Air Force comprehensive planning process
establishes a systematic framework for making decisions about AF installations.
80
In a comprehensive plan, what helps to visually explain the narrative contained in the
general plan, component plans, and special plans and studies?
Maps.
81
What is a key training device for ground support mapping of forward operating locations during expeditionary operations?
Garrison GeoBase.
82
The generalized installation views created by Strategic GeoBase are located on a server at
the Pentagon.
83
What enables the Expeditionary GeoBase?
GeoReach process.
84
What are Mission Data Sets?
Geospatial data layers supporting a functional community’s mission or processes.
85
Which system identifies duties and tasks for every position needed to accomplish the Air
Force mission?
Military personnel classification.
86
Each Air Force Specialty is combined into a broad and more general functional category
called
a career field
87
An apprentice learning a trade is at the
3-skill level
88
What is the Chief Enlisted Manager code that identifies a CMSgt or CMSgt-select as the top enlisted manager for Civil Engineers?`
3E000.
89
Which skill level must you obtain before promotion to staff sergeant?
5-skill level.
90
Who is responsible for obtaining the highest possible score on your end-of-course exam for CDCs?
You.
91
What is the forum to change the Career Field Education and Training Plan?
Utilization and Training Workshop.
92
Which proficiency codes identify subject knowledge?
A, B, C, and D.
93
If you can recall the methods, procedures, tools, and equipment associated with a task, you
have task knowledge.
94
As a minimum, what must trainees complete for skill level upgrade?
All core and critical tasks in the STS.
95
For a diamond task, what must the trainee do for upgrade?
Complete the task’s Air Force Quality Training Package and pass CerTest.
96
What electronic training program consolidates all of your training forms into a single database?
Air Force Training Records
97
Who must sign entries electronically on the 623a screen in Air Force Training Records?
You and your supervisor.
98
Which Air Force Training Records screen allows your section to document training for one of a kind systems?
797.
99
Which Air Force Training Records screen allows your trainer to document recurring training such as lockout tagout, HAZCOM, CPR, and the law of armed conflict?
1098.
100
You supervisor will sign you off on which screen in Air Force Training Records as you complete the required Air Force Qualification Training Packages?
AFQTP.
101
When you start a new assignment, within how many days will your supervisor conduct an
initial training needs review?
90 days.
102
What are the two parts of a task that you must train?
Knowledge and performance.
103
A Qualification Training Package is used to train
core tasks.
104
The CerTest pre-tests are used to
evaluate a student’s current knowledge and identify weak areas that need training
105
What happens if you fail a CerTest post-test twice?
You must complete remedial training for that subject area.
106
What annual audit program was developed to ensure that the Air Force’s environmental
program is operating efficiently?
Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program.
107
What skill level is a worker who has served an apprenticeship and is qualified to work at a specified trade?
A journeyman (5-level)
108
How long must an Apprentice (3-level) perform satisfactorily in 5-skill level upgrade on-the-job training (OJT)?
Minimum of 15 Months
109
What did Air Force establish to ensure an integrated multi-disciplinary approach for identifying environmental impacts, minimizing these impacts, and developing policies to maintain environmental compliance?
Environmental Protection Committees (EPCs)
110
What was developed to ensure the Air Force’s environmental program was functioning efficiently?
An annual audit program was developed, known as the Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP)
111
What are a vital part of the Air Force’s Environmental Management System?
Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP)
112
What aids in assessing the status of an installation’s environmental management system as well as identify deficiencies, best management practices, and provide a mechanism for tracking solutions to identified environmental problems?
environmental audits [Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP)]
113
How often are major installations required to conduct internal environmental compliance assessments?
At least annually
114
Major installations are required to have external compliance assessments at least how often?
once every three years
115
What provides you with an explanation of the physical data of the chemicals you work with?
The material safety data sheet (MSDS)
116
What Air Force Instruction (AFI) describes the Air Force’s hazardous waste management responsibilities?
AFI 32–7042, Solid and Hazardous Waste Compliance
117
Hazardous waste generators must keep training records of former employees for how long?
Three years from the last day the person worked.
118
What is a waste stream?
The movement of a hazardous waste from the generator to disposal with all of the stops on the way
119
Hazardous waste streams characterization consists of what three activities?
identifying (waste analysis plan), quantifying (HW stream inventory), and describing (HW profile sheet).
120
The possible findings for an Environmental Compliance and Assessment Management Plan inspection include Carryover, Major, Minor, Positive, Repeat, and
Significant.
121
An Environmental Compliance and Assessment Management Plan final report must be completed within how many days of an internal assessment?
120.
122
What requires federal agencies to incorporate environmental considerations in their planning and decision-making process?
National Environmental Policy Act.
123
In an environmental impact analysis, a categorical exclusion is an action
that has been shown to have no significant impact and requires no further analysis.
124
What is the public document that explains which alternative was selected in the Environmental Impact Statement process?
Record of Decision.
125
What form covers releases and transfers of toxic chemicals to various facilities and
environmental media?
Form R.
126
Who appoints the administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency?
President of the United States.
127
What agency leads the nation’s environmental science, research, education, and assessment efforts?
Environmental Protection Agency.
128
For how many years must hazardous waste generators keep training records of former
employees?
Three.
129
How long can hazardous waste be stored in an accumulation point before disposal?
Up to 90 days.
130
What two inspections does the hazardous waste program require for hazardous waste
activities?
Scheduled and unscheduled.
131
Who signs environmental permits and manifests tracking off-base hazardous waste
shipment?
Installation commander.
132
When you create a new waste stream, what is the first thing you must do before you can
dispose of the waste?
Create a hazardous waste profile.
133
Where will you find instructions and requirements for labeling hazardous waste containers?
Installation hazardous waste management plan.
134
When must an employee receive employer-sponsored training on hazardous chemicals?
At the time of initial assignment and when a new hazard is introduced into the work area
135
What are the most common colors of floor tiles containing asbestos?
Dark green, brown, and red.
136
Having WHAT with a customer means having a relationship based on mutual trust?
Rapport
137
What influences your customer’s level of satisfaction?
Your attitude, quality of work, and timeliness
138
What often leads to misunderstandings and dissatisfied customers even if the
quality of your work is high?
Failing to discuss your work with the customer
139
What is a fast way to accomplish simple work that can be completed by a
single work section?
Direct scheduled work (DSW)
140
What is work that generally doesn’t require detailed planning?
Direct scheduled work (DSW)
141
These job orders are small and require less than 50 hours of labor to accomplish.
Direct scheduled work (DSW)
142
What is for immediate and routine facility work including maintenance, repair, and minor construction work that does not require special funding?
Direct scheduled work (DSW)
143
What are the three types of Direct scheduled work (DSW)?
Emergency, Urgent, and Routine
144
What type of Direct scheduled work (DSW) is needed if a condition is detrimental to the mission or reduces operational effectiveness?
emergency
145
Emergency work must be completed within
24 hours of notification
146
Urgent must be completed within
seven calendar days after receiving materials
147
Routine work should be completed within
30 calendar days or during the next scheduled cycle visit to the facility
148
What is "reactive" work?
Direct scheduled work (DSW)
149
What is "proactive" work?
Recurring work program (RWP)
150
What accomplishes maintenance to prevent the system from breaking down?
Recurring work program (RWP)
151
What includes all work to prevent breakdown of critical facilities, equipment, or utilities?
Recurring work program (RWP)
152
What forms identify work that you schedule at regular intervals?
AF Form 1841, Maintenance Action Sheet (MAS)
153
What are task intervals referred as?
frequencies
154
What refers to how often a task is accomplished?
task intervals or frequencies
155
How often will your supervisor will produce an RWP schedule?
weekly
156
When will you complete RWP?
after any emergency or urgent Direct scheduled work (DSW) and before any routine Direct scheduled work (DSW)
157
What is matching labor, materials, and equipment resources to work requirements?
Scheduling
158
Assignment of work requirements are based on what?
manpower availability, materials availability, and priority of the jobs
159
What are the two scheduling phases?
weekly work schedules and the daily work schedules.
160
When does the scheduling process begin?
with the weekly scheduling meeting
161
What is used to track labor spent each month?
Labor utilization codes (LUC)
162
What accounting tool allows management
| to assign labor to requirements?
Labor utilization codes (LUC)
163
What are the two different Labor utilization codes (LUC)?
direct and indirect Labor utilization codes (LUC)
164
What is the weekly schedule based on?
direct and indirect labor
165
What identifies productive labor hours?
direct Labor utilization codes (LUC)
166
What work is that accomplishes an assigned task?
Productive labor
167
What are examples of direct labor?
DSW, Work orders, RWP, or Utility operations
168
What identifies non-productive labor hours?
indirect LUC
169
What is work that does not accomplish a task?
Non-productive labor
170
What work is done in support of a project, but not directly related to accomplishing a task
Non-productive labor
171
What are examples of Non-productive labor?
Supervision, Appointments, Prime BEEF, Leave, Shop clean-up.
172
Which LUC is only used by operations personnel and assures all labor data is correctly reported?
LUC 10, Labor Summary
173
Which LUC is used to report labor under the recurring work program.
LUC 11, Recurring Work
174
Use this code to report labor for emergency maintenance and repair DSW orders by both shop and DIN personnel.
LUC 12 Emergency DSW Orders
175
Use this code to report projects that require design by Engineering or monitoring of contracts utilize this LUC.
LUC 13 Engineering Design and
| Monitoring Contracts
176
Use this code to report labor for urgent maintenance and repair DSW orders by both shop and DIN personnel.
LUC 14 Urgent DSW Orders
177
Use this code to report all MC work authorized by AF Form 327 (work orders) or AF Form 1879 (job orders).
LUC 15 Minor Construction Work
178
Use this code to report labor expended for routine maintenance and repair DSW orders.
LUC 16 Routine DSW Orders
179
Use this code to report work hours for work orders other than minor construction work orders.
LUC 18 Work Orders (Other)
180
Use this code to report all labor expended in support of plant or utility operations.
LUC 19 Utility Operations
181
Use this code to report Prime BEEF practice exercises, recalls, M–16 firing.
LUC 20 Readiness Training
182
Use this code to report the work supervisors do.
LUC 31 Supervision
183
Use this code to report all training conducted in a classroom-type environment
LUC 32 Training
184
Use this code to report all types of leave for military and civilian personnel.
LUC 33 Leave
185
This code identifies working leaders’ supervision and all other indirect labor that is not included in LUC 31 through LUC 33.
LUC 34 All Other
186
Use this code to report all overtime (military and civilian) for ATA personnel.
LUC 38 Overtime
187
Use this code to report personnel loaned to other BCE cost centers.
LUC 39 Loaned Labor
188
Each LUC can be subdivided into a maximum of how many additional areas for management analysis?
nine
189
What allows supervisors to get the most production from his or her section, and also provides a means to recoup reimbursable expenses
Time accounting
190
What is used to match labor, materials, and equipment resources to work requirements?
scheduling
191
What allows us to complete as many prioritized requirements as the number of labor hours allows?
scheduling
192
What is a process that allows you to get everything you will need to complete a job before you start the work?
Planning, or estimating
193
How does acquire the necessary resources?
By using the Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS)
194
What do you use to obtain most items you need to complete both RWP and DSW jobs?
By using the Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS)
195
What is a computerized system used for identifying, acquiring, and controlling material requirements for CE?
Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS)
196
What system uses both the national stock number (NSN) and the power of local purchase to obtain the material you need to complete your work?
Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS)
197
Who monitors and controls the flow of material to the CE shops?
Material Control
198
Who provides logistics support and manages the holding area and residue holding areas?
Material Control
199
Who monitors all CE material support?
Logistics
200
What are high volume supplies used on a routine basis that includes screws, nuts, bolts, and lumber?
Bench Stock
201
Where are excess materials left over from jobs stored?
Residue Holding Area
202
What is a material list required to complete a job?
Bill of Materials (BOM)
203
What consists of deciding what you need to do and what materials are needed to do it?
Planning
204
What is CE's own supply numbering system called?
Consolidated Supply Listing (CSL)
205
A report of survey (ROS) must be performed if the loss or damage of government property exceeds
$500
206
What term means having a relationship based on mutual trust?
Rapport
207
For Civil Engineer personnel, who is our customer?
Everyone on base
208
You have a small job that doesn’t require detailed planning or special funding. What work process should you use?
Direct Scheduled Work (DSW)
209
When must you complete an emergency work order?
Within 24 hours of notification
210
Unless there is a delay in receiving materials, routine work orders must be completed within
30 calendar days
211
Which work process includes all work to prevent breakdown of critical facilities, equipment, or utilities?
Recurring work program
212
How often will your supervisor produce a recurring work program schedule using Interim Work Information Management System or Automated Civil Engineer System?
Weekly
213
What happens to a recurring work program item that does not have a complete indicator?
It remains on the next week's schedule as a working item
214
What is used to track how labor is spent each month?
Labor utilization codes (LUC)
215
What do we call the process your supervisor uses to account for all your time throughout the day?
Scheduling
216
What is a process that allows you to get everything you will need to complete the work?
Planning
217
Once you have updated an engineering or as built drawing, who must you deliver the updates to so they can update the master files?
Maintenance Engineering drafting section
218
What refers to a method where a group of individuals simultaneously contribute ideas to solve a problem?
Brainstorming
219
What includes all of the planning documentation needed to complete a job?
Work packages
220
What is the system that uses both the national stock number and the power of local purchase to obtain the material you need to complete your work?
Civil Engineer Material Aquisition System (CEMAS)
221
What section in Civil Engineer monitors and controls the flow of material to the CE shops?
Material Control
222
Where does material control store materials left over after a job is complete?
Residue holding area
223
What is a bill of materials?
A list of materials required to complete a job
224
What is CE’s own internal numbering system for materials?
Consolidated Supply Listing
225
What is shop stock?
Left-over material stored in your shop for future use.
226
Who is responsible for government property, including property issued, found, and used?
Everyone
227
If you receive government property on a short-term basis, what is used to track accountability of that item?
Temporary issue or hand receipt
228
A report of survey must be used to investigate the cause of damage to government property
when
exceeds $500
229
If a MAJCOM needs to add material to a publication issued by higher headquarters, the MAJCOM will issue
A supplement
230
What publications are concise reference books on the technical aspects of a particular
subject or a compilation of factual data?
AF Handbooks
231
What series of publications cover policy on all aspects of civilian and military staffing,
including procuring, promoting, training, and funding?
36 Series
232
On the Air Force’s e-Publishing home page, what does the short title search use to find the
publication you are looking for?
Publication number
233
On the Air Force’s e-Publishing home page, what does the long title search use to find the
publication you are looking for?
Key words of the publication title
234
Which publication should you follow when the guidance issued by a field unit conflicts with
the guidance issued by a higher-level unit?
the higher level publication
235
Which commercial publications provide the "how to" aspect of a job?
Technical
236
What manuals does the Air Force develop or pay a contractor to develop for all equipment
built to military specifications?
Technical Orders
237
What military service develops technical manuals for equipment they use?
Army and Marines
238
A manufacturer’s manual that supports equipment designed for commercial use is a
Commercial off the shelf manual
239
Which section of a dash 1 contains the step-by-step procedures for operating the equipment?
4
240
Which manuals provide instruction for designated field maintenance units in support of the using organization?
Field Maintenance Instruction
241
Which manuals are used for major repairs of a particular piece of equipment?
Overhaul Instructions
242
Which type of time compliance technical order can be identified by a border of red Xs around the page?
Immediate action
243
If a page in a technical order is the original (i.e., no modifications have been made to that
page), what will the a-page show for that page?
0
244
What do you do if you cannot find a listing of the specific component you are looking for in a dash 4 (Illustrated Parts Breakdown)?
Look in the numerical index
245
How can you identify the specific changes made to a TO?
Put a heavy black line next to the text in the outer margin of the page.
246
Engineering technical letters
provide directive guidance on construction processes unique to the military mission.
247
Once published, how long does an engineering technical letter remain in effect?
Until it is canceled, rescinded, or superseded by a later ETL.
248
What series of publications govern policy and procedures on operations?
10 Series
249
What series of publications govern policy and procedures on operations and describe how bases operate day-to-day and during contingency missions?
10 Series
250
What series publications guide policy and procedures on all aspects of Air Force civil engineering, including management of real property assets?
32 Series
251
What series publications covers policy on all aspects of civilian and military staffing, including procuring, promoting, training, and funding?
36 Series
252
What provides you with technical information about a specific piece of equipment?
Technical Publications
