1st trimester Flashcards

1
Q

some causes of uncertain LMP? (5)

A
  • poor menstrual history
  • amernorrhea
  • prolonged or short cycle- not every 28 days
  • DUB (dysfunctional uterine bleeding)
  • recent miscarriage
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2
Q

Before the advent of pregnancy testing and sonography, what was the most identifiable reference point for the beginning of the pregnancy?

A

LMP

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3
Q

How many days is pregnancy?

  • calendar
  • lunar months
A

280 days from the first day of the LMP

  • 9 calendar
  • 10 lunar months
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4
Q

what is Nägele’s rule also known as?

A
  • in clinical practice, the term gestational age is used interchangeably with menstrual age
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5
Q

why is the knowledge of an accurate gestational age needed?

A

to manage the pregnancy optimally

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6
Q

what are the two 1st trimester measurements? (4)

A

biometry:

  • gestational sac (mean sac diameter)
  • crown-rump length

additional measurements:

  • yolk sac
  • nuchal translucency
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7
Q

what is a normal yolk sac measurement?

A

2-6mm

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8
Q

what is the normal nuchal transluceny measurement?

A

<3.5mm between 11 and 14 weeks

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9
Q

what is the 1st sonographic evidence pf an intrauterine pregnancy?

A

gestational sac

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10
Q

gestational sac on u/s?

A
  • anachoic fluid collection surrounded by an ecogenic ring in the fundal region of the endometrial cavity
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11
Q

what is the echogenic ring in the gestational sac representitive of?

A
  • chorion and decidua capsularis
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12
Q

Absence of the echogenic ring should prompt what?

A
  • suspicion of a pseudogestational sac associated with ectopic pregnancy
  • this may warrant clinical correlation with beta-hCG levels
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13
Q

how to measure the gestational sac?

A
  • with 2 scan planes
  • measurement made in each of the 3 dimensions, of the gestational sac can be used to calculate a mean sac diameter (MSD)
  • should be made at the interface between the echogenic border and the fluid
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14
Q

With high-frequency transvaginal technique, a pregnancy dating only 4 weeks and 1 or 2 days from the LMP may be visualized as what measurement?

A
  • 2-3mm fluid collection within the uterus
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15
Q

the MSD should correlate closely with what?

A

suspected gestational age

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16
Q

Any significant variance or suspicion of pregnancy loss should be closely correlated with?

A

beta-hCG levels

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17
Q

Normal first-trimester gestational sac growth rate should be approximately?

A

1mm per day

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18
Q

what is Beta-hCG correlation?

A
  • evidence of a developing intrauterine pregnancy should be seen transvaginally with serum beta-hCG greater that 1000-2000mIU/mL using the International Reference Preparation (IRP) standa
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19
Q

Alpha fetoprotein-AFP?

  • produced by
  • found in
  • normal value
A
  • produced by fetus
  • found in amniotic fluid and maternal serum
  • normal values vary with gestational age
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20
Q

causes of high AFP?

A
Underestimated gestational age
Fetus older than expected
Multiple gestations
Open neural tube defect
Abdominal wall defect
Cystic hygroma
Renal anomalies
Fetal demise
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21
Q

causes of low AFP values?

A
Overestimated gestational age
Fetus younger than expected
Chromosomal abnormalities
Trophoblastic disease
Long-standing fetal demise
Chronic maternal hypertension
Diabetes
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22
Q

The sonographic presence of the yolk sac in an early gestational sac can be a predictor of?

A

a normally progressing pregnancy before visulization of the embryo

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23
Q

With TVS: Gestational sac measuring ____ mm should demonstrate a yolk sac?

A

<8mm

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24
Q

a <8mm yolk sac is consistent with what week gestation?

A

5- 5.5 week gestation

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25
Q

yolk sac on u/s?

A
  • a round anechoic structure with an echogenic rim
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26
Q

what does a yolk sac supply?

A
  • nutrition for developing embryo through the vitelline duct
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27
Q

what should the yolk sac and embryo be separated by?

A
  • echogenic amnion but connected by the vitelline
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28
Q

size of yolk sac in 1st trimester?

A

2-6mm

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29
Q

an abnormally small or large measurement of a yolk sac may be indicative of?

A
  • pending loss or fetal abnormality
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30
Q

how is the yolk sac diameter measured?

A
  • with placement of capilers along the inner borders of the echogenic ring (AP)
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31
Q

the yolk sac is often used to assist in locating?

A

the developing embryo an dpossible cardiac activity

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32
Q

what characteristics of a yolk sac are associated with a poor prognosis? (3)

A
  • anomalies of the size
  • shape
  • echogenicity
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33
Q

after the gestational sac has formed and the yolk sac has developed what is seen?

A

embryo

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34
Q

the embryonic period is considered to be week?

A

6-10 of the pregnancy

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35
Q

the embryo grows at a rate of?

A

1mm per day

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36
Q

initially, where is the embryo found and what does it appear as?

A
  • found adjacent to the yolk sac

- appears as a flat, disc-like structure

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37
Q

Faint flickering of this structure, which represents early cardiac activity, may be seen on real-time sonography at?

A
  • 5.5 weeks or when the CRL measures 5mm
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38
Q

With transabdominal technique, the embryo should be visualized in a gestational sac that measures?

A

25mm

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39
Q

The normal embryonic heart rate range is?

A

120-180 bpm

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40
Q

If the embryonic heart rate is 100 beats per minute or less what steps should be taken?

A
  • it should be compared with the maternal heart rate to ensure that maternal uterine vessels are not being sampled and inaccurately represented as embryonic cardiac activity
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41
Q

what does an embryo begin a C-shaped appearance?

A

8 weeks GA

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42
Q

where can the cystic rhombencephalon be seen?

A

in the posterior embryonic head

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43
Q

at 8 weeks what might be seen?

A
  • cystic rhombencephalon

- limb buds

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44
Q

If there is more than one first-trimester scan with a mean sac diameter or crown-rump length measurement, what should be used to determine the GA?

A

the earliest ultrasound with a crown rump length equivelent to at least 7 weeks (or 10mm)

45
Q

the distinction between the head and torso of the fetus is more easily recognized at around what weeks?

A

11-12 weeks

46
Q

An accurate CRL is obtained by placement of the calipers at?

A

the top of the fetal head (crown) to the bottom of the torso (rump)

47
Q

care must be taken to not include what in a CRL measurement?

A
  • yolk sac or fetal extremities

- avoid CRL measurement on an embryo or fetus that is flexed

48
Q

By 11 weeks, it is easier to distinguish the fetal head and torso; however, obtaining a CRL at this stage can be challenging because of?

A

fetal flexion

49
Q

what is nuchal translucency measurement performed?

A
  • during a sono exam at the 1st trimester as an early screening tool for possible fetal aneuploidy
50
Q

The nuchal translucency (NT) refers to?

A

the normal subcutaneous translucent space along the back of the fetal neck

51
Q

A thickened NT is associated with? (4)

A
  • fetal aneuploidy- trisomy 21
  • genetic syndromes
  • structural anomalies
  • adverse outcome
52
Q

Before the NT measurement is used what must be assessed?

A
  • GA must be assessed with the CRL
53
Q

The NT may be evaluated with a CRL of no less than?

A

45mm and no more than 84mm

54
Q

45mm and 84mm corresponds to what GA?

A
  • 11+0 and 13+6 weeks
55
Q

The NT is considered to be thickened if it measures?

A

3.5mm or more during time frame

56
Q

The risk for adverse outcome increases as what increases?

A

NT

57
Q

what plane is used for a NT measurement?

A

sagittal

58
Q

What is the cystic space visualized developing within the embryonic head at approximately 8 weeks’ gestational age?

A

Rhombencephalon

59
Q

Evidence of a developing intrauterine pregnancy should be recognized endovaginally at which of the following serum beta-hCG levels?

A

1000- 2000 mIU/mL

60
Q

The absence of the thick echogenic rim surrounding the early gestational sac within the endometrial cavity is suspicious for which of the following conditions?

A

Pseudogestational sac of ectopic pregnancy

61
Q

In the development of a normal intrauterine pregnancy, the yolk sac should be demonstrated transvaginally in a gestational sac with what minimum measurement?

A

8mm

62
Q

A secondary yolk sac measuring greater than what measurement is considered to be abnormal and suspicious for abnormal pregnancy development?

A

6mm

63
Q

A primary role of sonography in evaluating pregnancy in the first trimester is confirmation of? (4)

A
  • If the crown-rump length measures 5 mm and cardiac activity is not seen, the diagnosis of embryonic death can be made with confidence
  • Failure to meet other first-trimester sonographic milestones should be noted
  • A subchorionic hemorrhage may also lead to pregnancy loss
  • Ultrasound may be used to follow bleeding with pregnancy to monitor viability, to confirm fetal death, and to determine when dilatation and curettage (D&C) is necessary
64
Q

if CRL measures ____mm and cardiac activity is not seen, the diagnosis of embryonic death can be made with confidence?

A

5mm

65
Q

what might lead to pregnancy loss in the 1st trimester?

A

subchorionic hemorrhage

66
Q

what is a subchorionic hemorrhage?

A
  • low-pressure hemorrhages that occur most commonly in the 1st trimester of pregnancy
67
Q

what do subchorionic hemorrhages often result from?

A
  • implantation of the fertilized ovum into the uterus
68
Q

where are subchorionic hemorrhages commonly seen?

A
  • between the uterine wall and the membranes

- are not associated with the placenta

69
Q

s/s of subchorionic hemorrhage?

A
  • spotting or bleeding with or without uterine contractions
70
Q

outcome of a subchorionic hemorrhage?

A
  • may spontaneously regress or may lead to spontaneous abortion (SAB)
71
Q

A subchorionic hemorrhage prognosis is favorable when?

A
  • fetal heartbeat is identified in the presence of a small hemorrhage
72
Q

Hemorrhage in the lower uterine segment has a better prognosis than hemorrhage located at the uterine fundus T or F?

A

T

73
Q

Subchorionic Hemorrhages in 13-week gestation is located?

A

adjacent to the GS and at the margin of the placenta

74
Q

what can help differentiate hematoma from a neoplasm?

A

lack of vascularity identified with color doppler

75
Q

what are the 3 classifications of a spontaneous abortion?

A
  1. threatened abortion
  2. missed abortion
  3. complete abortion
76
Q

what is a threatened abortion?

A
  • bleeding without cervical dialation
77
Q

what is a missed abortion?

A
  • embryonic death without expulsion of the products of conception
78
Q

what is a complete abortion?

A
  • when there is expulsion of the products of conception
79
Q

what does risk of SAB decrease dramatically?

A

12 weeks

80
Q

what can be used to confirm whether or not the sonographic milestones of a first-trimester pregnancy are met?

A

Correlation between the serum β human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG) and the findings in the uterus

81
Q

en the gestational sac measures 25 mm (TAS) what should be identified?

A

embryo

82
Q

Anembryonic pregnancy should be considered when?

A

an empty gestational sac is seen when the gestational sac measures 25mm (TAS)

83
Q

when the embryo measures ____mm you should see cardiac motion

A

5mm

84
Q

Embryonic bradycardia?

A

< 85 beats per minute in a gestation less than 7 weeks’ gestational age
<100 beats per minute from 7 weeks’ gestational age forward

85
Q

TAS and TVS MSD should always see YS?

A

TAS: MSD 20 mm should always see YS
TVS: MSD 8mm should always see YS

86
Q

TAS & TVS MSD you should see embryo?

A

TAS: MSD 25mm should see Embryo
TVS: MSD 16mm should see Embryo

87
Q

what is a leading cause of maternal death in the 1st trimester?

A

ectopic pregnancy

88
Q

risk factors of ectopic pregnancy?

A
  • history of ectopic pregnancy
  • PID
  • tubal surgery
  • maternal congenital anomalies
  • later primiparity
  • defective zygote
  • fertility treatments
  • intrauterine device (IUD) usage
89
Q

Interstitial or cornual pregnancy occurs in what % of ectopic pregnancies?

A

2-5%

90
Q

Ovarian pregnancies occur in what % of ectopic pregnancies?

A
  • 2%
91
Q

heterotopic pregnancy =

A

intrauterine pregnancy + ectopic pregnancy

92
Q

S/S ectopic pregnancy (8)?

A
Intrauterine pseudosac or decidual reaction
Positive pregnancy test
Poor correlation with B-hCG
Bleeding and severe pain
Cul-de-sac fluid  
Adnexal ring sign
Complex adnexal mass with or without live pregnancy  
Significant amount of hemoperitoneum
93
Q

what is Gestational Trophoblastic Disease?

A
  • spectrum of diseases of the trophoblast that can be benign, malignant, or malignant/metastatic
94
Q

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease includes? (5)

A
  • Complete hydatidiform mole
  • hydatidiform mole with coexistent fetus
  • partial mole
  • invasive mole
  • choriocarcinoma
95
Q

risk factors of gestational trophoblastic disease? (2)

A
  • maternal age

- previous history of a molar pregnancy

96
Q

what is a sign of gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

hyperemesis

97
Q

s/s of molar pregnancy?

A
  • vaginal bleeding
  • hyperemesis
  • preeclampsia
  • thyrotoxicosis
  • respiratory distress
98
Q

B-hCG in molar pregancy?

A
  • elevated- >100 000 IU/mL
99
Q

in what molar pregnancy are maternal serum AFP levels low?

A

complete hydatidiform mole

100
Q

s/s molar pregnancy?

A
  • uterus greater in size than expected GA
  • bilateral ovarian enlargement
  • theca-lutein cysts
101
Q

what is a Complete hydatidiform mole?

A

Paternal origin and devoid of maternal chromosomes which results in a 46,XX karyotype without fetal development

102
Q

what are partial moles?

A
  • Triploidy with a 69,XXX or 69,XXY karyotype, of which 23 chromosomes are of the maternal contribution and 46 chromosomes are of the paternal contribution
  • May be accompanied by a fetus or fetal tissue
103
Q

rarely what kind of mole may also coexist with a normal fetus as the result of a twin gestation?

A

complete hydatidiform

104
Q

Invasive Hydatidiform Mole?

A

when the hydropic villi of a partial or complete mole invade the uterine myometrium and sometimes uterine wall

105
Q

Invasive Hydatidiform Mole may occur during?

A

during the development of a complete or partial mole (although rare with partial mole) or may develop after the evacuation of a mole

106
Q

clinical symptoms of Invasive Hydatidiform Mole?

A

typically become apparent after the evacuation of a molar pregnancy, when the patient presents with heavy bleeding

107
Q

what is Choriocarcinoma?

A
  • A malignant tumor that arises from the trophoblastic epithelium
  • Considered a malignant metastatic form of gestational trophoblastic disease
  • May metastasize to the lung, skin, intestines, liver, spleen, heart, and brain
  • Treatment is chemotherapy
108
Q

Choriocarcinoma s/s?

A

Vaginal bleeding + enlarged uterus and ovaries + elevated β-hCG levels

109
Q

Choriocarcinoma may develop when?

A
  • after a molar pregnancy

- can also occur after a normal pregnancy, SAB, or ectopic