1st Half Flashcards
1
Q
KUB means what?
A
Kidney
Ureters
Bladder
2
Q
For KUB what are the settings
A
Distance= 40.0
Line up Bucky
Detent
14 x 17
Central ray lined up with iliac crest & sternum
Need symphosis pubis in shot- have patient move leg in and out or touch their pelvic bone
3
Q
Chest x ray settings
A
Distance= 40.0
Field=
4
Q
Which term describes the sole of the foot?
A
Plantar
5
Q
What is the annual whole body effective dose (ED) for a technologist?
A
50 mSv (5000 mrem)
6
Q
Which radiation unit of measurement is used to describe absorbed dose?
A
Gray
7
Q
What does a gray mean?
A
One gray is equivalent to the absorption of one joule of energy per kilogram of matter. The absorbed dose is a measure of the energy that is actually absorbed by a substance, whereas the exposure dose is a measure of the energy that is deposited by ionizing radiation in the air.
8
Q
What device can be used rather than applying the anode heel effect to compensate for anatomic part thickness differences?
A
Compensating filters
9
Q
A recumbent position in which the patient is lying on the right anterior surface with the body rotated toward the image receptor is termed:
A
right posterior oblique (RPO)
10
Q
How many bones are found in the adult human body?
A
206 bones
11
Q
T/F
Exposure indicator is a numeric value that is representative of the level of exposure the image receptor has acquired
A
True
12
Q
Which traditional unit of radiation measurement describes patient dose?
A
Rad
13
Q
Highly complex mathematical formulas applied during digital processing of the image are termed:
A
Algorithms
14
Q
Each digital image is two dimensional and is formed by a matrix of:
A
Pixels
15
Q
The unsharp edge of the projected image is termed:
A
Penumbra
16
Q
What is the most effective method to reduce the production of scatter radiation?
A
collimate(and use a grid)
17
Q
Which of the following devices can be used rather than applying the anode heel effect to compensate for anatomic part thickness differences?
A
Compensating filters
18
Q
What is the general term for a position in which the long axis of the body is angled in relationship to the image receptor rather than the central ray (e.g., special chest projection)?
A
Lordotic
19
Q
A patient is lying on her back facing the x-ray tube. The right side of her body is turned 20 degrees toward the image receptor. What is this radiographic position?
A
RPO (right posterior oblique)
20
Q
The position in which the head is lower than the feet:
A
Trendelenberg
21
Q
An upright position with the arms abducted, palms forward, and head forward describes the _____ position.
A
Anatomic
22
Q
The structural term for a freely movable joint is:
A
Diarthrosis or synovial
23
Q
Which of the following is NOT a functional classification of joints?
Synarthrosis
Amphiarthrosis
Cartilaginous
Diarthrosis
A
Cartilaginous
24
Q
What is the name of the small oval-shaped bone found in tendons?
A
Sesamoid
25
What type of tissue binds together and supports the various structures of the body?
Sesamoid
26
T/F
The ACE® initiative is a reminder to maintain professional communication between technologists and their patients.
True
27
LABEL THEM
4) Stomach
5) small intestine
Duodenal bulb
A) duodenum
B) Jejunum
C) Ilium
28
1) oral cavity
2) pharynx
3) esophagus
4) stomach
5) small intestine
6) large intestine
7) liver
8) spleen
9) pancreas
29
Digestive tract accessory organ
Liver
Gallbladder
Pancreas
Spleen
30
A) liver
B) right colic (hepatic) flexure
C) transverse colon
D) ascending colon
E) ileocecal valve
F) cecum
G) appendix (vermiform)
H) spleen
I) left colic (splenic) flexure C
J) descending colon
K) sigmoid colon
L) rectum
M) anus
31
What is the protective framework of the chest anatomy called?
Bony thorax
## Footnote
The bony thorax provides structural support and protection for the thoracic organs.
32
What are the primary components of the respiratory system?
Lungs and airways
## Footnote
The respiratory system is essential for gas exchange in the body.
33
What is the mediastinum?
Space between lungs
## Footnote
The mediastinum contains vital structures such as the heart, trachea, and esophagus.
34
What are the parts of the sternum?
* Manubrium
* Body
* Xiphoid process
## Footnote
The sternum plays a crucial role in protecting the heart and lungs.
35
What bones make up the bony thorax?
* Sternum
* Clavicles
* Scapulae
* 12 pairs of ribs
* 12 thoracic vertebrae
## Footnote
These bones collectively form the structure of the chest.
36
How many pairs of ribs are present in the human body?
12 pairs
## Footnote
Ribs are essential for protecting thoracic organs and aiding in respiration.
37
Fill in the blank: The _______ is also known as the breastbone.
Sternum
## Footnote
The sternum connects to the ribs via cartilage.
38
True or False: The clavicles are also known as collarbones.
True
## Footnote
The clavicles play a key role in connecting the arm to the body.
39
What is the function of the scapulae in the bony thorax?
Shoulder blades support arm movement
## Footnote
The scapulae provide attachment points for muscles that facilitate shoulder motion.
40
What are the 12 thoracic vertebrae associated with?
Support for the rib cage
## Footnote
Thoracic vertebrae are critical in maintaining the structure of the spine and protecting the spinal cord.
41
The two most common landmarks for chest positioning are the:
jugular notch and vertebra prominens
42
What is the name of the structure that serves as a common passageway for both food and air?
Pharynx
43
What is the correct anatomic name for the Adam’s apple?
Laryngeal prominence
44
The internal prominence or ridge in which the trachea bifurcates into the right and left bronchi is termed the:
carina
45
A patient is in the intensive care unit with multiple injuries. The attending physician is concerned about a pleural effusion in the left lung. The patient cannot stand or sit erect due to age. Which position/projection would be best to rule out the pleural effusion?
Left lateral decubitus
46
The xiphoid process is at the vertebral level of:
T9-T10
47
espiration should be employed prior to exposure for the anteroposterior (AP) kidneys, ureter, and bladder (KUB) abdomen projection?
Expiration
48
The iliac crest corresponds with the ____ vertebral level.
L4-L5
49
At what level should the central ray (CR) be placed for a left lateral decubitus projection of the abdomen?
2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest
50
The pancreas is located posterior to the stomach.
True
51
52
Which additional projection can be undertaken to help confirm the diagnosis of a possible umbilical hernia?
AP erect abdomen
## Footnote
This projection helps visualize any potential herniation more clearly.
53
Which projection best demonstrates pneumoperitoneum in a standing patient?
AP erect abdomen
## Footnote
This position allows air to rise, making it easier to detect free air.
54
Which projection best demonstrates ascites in a patient who is unable to stand or sit erect?
Left lateral decubitus
## Footnote
This position allows fluid levels to be visualized more effectively.
55
What imaging modality provides the quickest method for confirming the presence of gallstones?
Sonography
## Footnote
This method is non-invasive and quick, ideal for acute pain situations.
56
What is the reason for ordering an acute abdomen series in a patient with a history of Crohn disease?
Identify current status of intestinal inflammation
## Footnote
This series helps assess any acute changes in the intestines.
57
Which alternative imaging modality is most effectively used to evaluate GI motility and reflux?
Nuclear medicine
## Footnote
This modality allows for dynamic imaging of GI function.
58
Which technical factor is essential when using computed radiography to ensure a high-quality image is produced?
Close collimation
## Footnote
Proper collimation minimizes exposure and improves image quality.
59
Fill in the blank: The best projection for a patient with a clinical history of pneumoperitoneum who is able to stand is _______.
AP erect abdomen
60
True or False: The dorsal decubitus position is the best for demonstrating ascites in a patient who cannot stand.
False
## Footnote
The left lateral decubitus position is preferred for such cases.
61
Fill in the blank: The quickest modality to confirm gallstones in a patient with severe pain is _______.
Sonography
62
What is the primary use of an acute abdomen series in patients with Crohn disease?
To assess for complications such as obstruction or perforation.
63
A. How many bones make up the phalanges of the hand?
A. 14
B. 8
C. 5
D. 16
A
64
How many bones make up the carpal region?
A. 14
B. 8
C. 5
D. 7
B
65
What is the total number of bones that make up the hand and wrist?
A. 21
B. 27
C. 26
D. 32
B
66
Name the joint:
Between the two phalanges of the first digit (humb)
interphalangeal joint — or IP joint for short.
67
Joint Between the first metacarpal and the proximal phalanx of the thumb
metacarpophalangeal joint, or MCP joint
68
Joint Between the middle and distal phalanges of the fourth digit
distal interphalangeal joint, or DIP joint
69
Joint Between the carpals and the first metacarpal
first carpometacarpal joint, or first CMC joint
70
Joint Between the forearm and the carpals
radiocarpal joint — also known as the wrist joint
71
Joint Between the distal radius and ulna
distal radioulnar joint
72
Hilum
the hilum is where the bronchi, arteries, veins, and lymph vessels enter and leave — kind of like a busy airport terminal for your lung
73
PA (Posteroanterior)
Patient stands facing image receptor, chest against it, shoulders rolled forward
74
Lateral
Patient stands sideways to image receptor, arms raised
75
AP (Anteroposterior)
Patient lies or sits facing the x-ray tube, back against image receptor
76
AP Lordotic
Patient leans backward or tube angled cephalad to project clavicles above lungs
77
Decubitus
Patient lies on side with horizontal beam to detect air-fluid levels
78
Oblique
Patient rotated 45° from PA or AP position
79
Which routine projection of the elbow best demonstrates the radial head and tuberosity free of superimposition?
AP
Lateral
AP oblique with internal rotation
AP oblique with external rotation
AP oblique with external rotation
The AP oblique projection with external (lateral) rotation best demonstrates the radial head and tuberosity free of superimposition from the ulna. This view opens up the lateral aspect of the elbow joint and clearly shows the capitulum and radial head.
80
What is the purpose of performing the AP partially flexed projections of the elbow?
To provide a view of the radial head and capitulum
To separate the radial head from the ulna
To provide an AP perspective if the patient cannot fully extend the elbow
To demonstrate any possible elevated fat pads
To provide an AP perspective if the patient cannot fully extend the elbow
81
How much CR angulation to the long axis of the hand is required for the tangential, inferosuperior projection to demonstrate the carpal sulcus (canal)?
10 to 15 degrees
25 to 30 degrees
35 to 45 degrees
5 to 10 degrees
25 to 30 degrees
For the tangential, inferosuperior projection (also known as the Gaynor-Hart method) to visualize the carpal sulcus (carpal tunnel), the central ray (CR) is angled 25 to 30 degrees to the long axis of the hand, directed toward the palm. This projection clearly shows the pisiform, hamate, and trapezium, and the median nerve path through the carpal tunnel.
82
How much rotation of the humeral epicondyles is required for the AP medial oblique projection of the elbow?
30 degrees
90 degrees
45 degrees
20 degrees
45 degrees
For an AP medial oblique projection of the elbow, the arm is rotated 45 degrees internally (medially), which positions the humeral epicondyles at a 45-degree angle to the image receptor. This projection best demonstrates the coronoid process of the ulna and the trochlea.
83
Where is the CR centered for a PA projection of the hand?
At the third proximal interphalangeal joint
At the third metacarpophalangeal joint
At the base of the third metacarpal
At the third distal interphalangeal joint
At the third metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP)
84
What type of tissue binds together and supports the various structures of the body?
Connective
85
The lowest level of structural organization in the human body is the _____ level.
Chemical
86
What type of tissue covers internal and external surfaces of the body?
Epithelial
87
How many individual body systems comprise the human body?
10
88
How many separate bones are found in the adult human body?
206
89
Which system of the human body is responsible for the elimination of solid waste?
Digestive
90
Which of the following systems includes all ductless glands of the body?
Endocrine
91
Which body system helps to regulate body temperature?
Circulatory
92
Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
Sternum
93
How many bones are there in the adult axial skeleton?
80
94
95
What type of tissue binds together and supports the various structures of the body?
Connective
96
The lowest level of structural organization in the human body is the _____ level.
Chemical
97
What type of tissue covers internal and external surfaces of the body?
Epithelial
98
How many individual body systems comprise the human body?
10
99
How many separate bones are found in the adult human body?
206
100
Which system of the human body is responsible for the elimination of solid waste?
Digestive
101
Which system of the body includes all ductless glands?
Endocrine
102
Which body system helps regulate body temperature?
Circulatory
103
Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
Sternum
104
How many bones are in the adult axial skeleton?
80
105
What is the name of the small oval-shaped bone found in tendons?
Sesamoid
106
Which of the following bones is classified as a long bone?
Humerus
107
What is the dense fibrous membrane that covers bone?
Periosteum
108
Which of the following bones is classified as a short bone?
Carpal
109
Which is a secondary growth center for endochondral ossification?
Epiphyses
110
Which aspect of long bones produces red blood cells?
Spongy or cancellous bone
111
Examples of flat bones include:
calvaria, ribs, scapulae, and sternum
112
What is the primary center for bone growth termed?
Diaphysis
113
Which of the following is NOT a functional classification of joints?
Cartilaginous
114
What is the structural term for a freely movable joint?
Synovial
115
Which joint type displays flexion and extension primarily?
Ginglymus
116
Which of the following is NOT a synovial joint?
Skull sutures
117
Which joint is classified as a saddle (sellar) joint?
Ankle joint
118
Which joint is classified as bicondylar?
Temporomandibular joint
119
An upright position with arms abducted and palms forward is called:
Anatomic position
120
What is the definition of a radiographic image?
Representation of anatomy obtained, viewed, and stored digitally
121
What plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?
Midsagittal (median)
122
What plane divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts?
Midcoronal
123
Which term describes the sole of the foot?
Plantar
124
Which term describes the back of the hand?
Dorsum manus
125
Which position has the head lower than the feet?
Trendelenburg
126
Which term describes lying down in any position?
Recumbent
127
What is the position when lying on the right anterior surface angled toward the IR?
Right anterior oblique
128
What is the position: erect, back facing x-ray tube, right side rotated 20° toward IR?
Right posterior oblique (RPO)
129
Erect, left side against IR, CR enters right side of body. What position is this?
Left lateral
130
Supine, CR enters right and exits left, what is this position?
Dorsal decubitus
131
Erect, facing IR, body rotated 45° left, CR enters posterior and exits anterior.
Left anterior oblique (LAO)
132
Projection with CR parallel to long axis of a part is called:
Axial
133
Projection where CR skims body part to show profile view:
Tangential
134
What is the general term when the body is angled (not CR)?
Lordotic
135
What is the opposite of supination?
Pronation
136
Which position is used for inserting a rectal enema tip?
Modified Sims’
137
Dorsoplantar projection refers to what body part?
Foot
138
Moving foot and toes downward is called:
Plantar flexion
139
Movement in a circle is called:
Circumduction
140
Opposite of ipsilateral is:
Contralateral
141
What does projection mean in radiographic terms?
Path or direction of the central ray
142
Which of the following is NOT a standard image evaluation criterion?
Patient condition
143
Minimum number of projections for a hand injury?
Two
144
Which procedure often only requires a single AP projection?
Pelvis
145
What is the last step before taking a radiographic exposure?
Ensure correct gonadal shield placement
146
What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the femur?
Two
147
What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the right hip?
Two
148
What is the minimal number of projections taken for a postreduction study of the ankle?
Two
149
What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the elbow?
Three
150
Erect, left side of chest against IR, CR enters right and exits left—what position?
Transthoracic lateral
151
Erect, facing tube, leaning shoulders backward 20–30°—what position?
Lordotic
152
Top of foot against IR, CR enters sole of foot—what projection?
Plantodorsal
153
Lying on right side, anterior surface against IR, horizontal CR enters posterior—what projection?
Right lateral decubitus
154
Head hyperextended, top of skull against IR, CR enters below chin—what projection?
Submentovertical
155
Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 analog image quality factors?
SID
156
What is the amount of blackness on a radiograph called?
Density
157
Which factor primarily controls radiographic density in analog imaging?
mAs
158
Hand x-ray is underexposed with 50 kVp, 2 mAs—best repeat technique?
50 kVp, 4 mAs
159
What % increase in kVp doubles density in analog imaging?
0.15
160
Exposure time is usually expressed in what units?
Milliseconds
161
Primary controlling factor for analog contrast is:
kVp
162
Which radiographic study benefits most from anode heel effect?
Thoracic spine
163
Which device can replace anode heel effect for part thickness?
Compensating filters
164
Short scale contrast (analog) is the result of:
Low kVp
165
Most effective method to reduce scatter radiation?
Collimation
166
To double density, how much should kVp be increased from 65 kVp?
9 to 10 kVp
167
What contrast results from high (>100) kVp?
Low contrast, long scale
168
What factor most affects spatial resolution?
Focal spot size
169
What is the unsharp edge of the projected image called?
Penumbra
170
Best way to eliminate motion from bowel peristalsis?
Decrease exposure time
171
How to improve spatial resolution?
Decrease OID
172
SID increased from 40" to 48", with mAs adjusted—result?
Decreased penumbra
173
Each digital image pixel represents:
Pixels
174
What are the complex formulas applied during digital image processing called?
Algorithms
175
What defines intensity of light on monitor pixels?
Brightness
176
What has the greatest effect on digital image brightness?
Processing software
177
Ability to distinguish similar tissues on digital image is:
Contrast resolution
178
What primarily affects contrast in digital imaging?
Predetermined algorithms
179
Greater bit depth increases:
Contrast resolution
180
What most affects digital spatial resolution?
Acquisition pixel size
181
Misrepresentation of object size or shape is:
Distortion
182
X-ray photons hitting the receptor are considered:
Signal
183
Numeric value representing exposure to the receptor is:
Exposure indicator
184
Random disturbance that reduces image clarity is:
Noise
185
Monitor light intensity for a pixel defines:
Brightness
186
What most negatively impacts signal-to-noise ratio?
Insufficient mAs
187
Best device to control scatter in digital imaging?
Grid
188
Postprocessing to sharpen edges of structures is called:
Edge enhancement
189
Adjusting contrast and brightness of digital image is:
Bit depth
190
What does "portrait" IR orientation mean?
IR aligned parallel to anatomy's long axis
191
What material is used in FPD-TFT systems?
Amorphous selenium and silicon
192
What erases residual latent image from a PSP plate?
Bright light
193
What system manages digital image storage?
Digital archive
194
What connects all imaging devices in a digital network?
PACS
195
Standard that allows communication between digital imaging equipment?
DICOM and HL7
196
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of PACS?
Rapid chemical processing of images
197
What is a “soft-copy radiograph”?
Image viewed on a computer monitor
198
Image processing to reduce noise is called:
Smoothing
199
Series of “boxes” that form the digital image:
Display matrix
200
Exposure range producing an acceptable digital image is:
Exposure latitude
201
Changing/enhancing an image post-capture is called:
Postprocessing
202
What does RIS stand for?
Radiology Information System
203
What does SNR stand for?
Signal-to-noise ratio
204
Newer term for “exposure” to air mass by x-ray photons:
Air kerma
205
Unit of absorbed dose:
Gray
206
Traditional radiation unit describing patient dose:
Rad
207
Annual whole-body dose limit for techs:
50 mSv (5000 mrem)
208
Dose limit for the lens of the eye (occupational):
150 mSv (15,000 mrem)
209
Where is dosimeter worn during fluoroscopy?
On collar outside the lead apron
210
Which is NOT part of ALARA principles?
Elder techs hold patients instead of young ones
211
Which is NOT a cardinal rule of radiation protection?
Filtration
212
Pregnant techs should not exceed ____ dose/month:
0.5 mSv (50 mrem)
213
Which dose category is highest for patients?
Entrance skin exposure
214
Cumulative lifetime dose = ____ mSv × age:
10
215
Which projection gives the highest effective dose (no shielding)?
Barium enema
216
What collimator automatically matches the IR size?
Positive beam limiting
217
Which shield does NOT touch the patient?
Shadow shield
218
20-year-old female with pelvic fracture—what to do?
No shielding; do AP pelvis
219
Best way to minimize fluoro exposure to techs:
Stand as far from scatter field as possible
220
Properly placed gonadal shielding reduces dose by:
50% to 90%
221
Gonadal shielding needed when anatomy is within ____ of beam:
2 inches (5 cm)
222
Minimum filtration for x-ray equipment ≥ 70 kVp:
2.5 mm aluminum equivalent
223
Adduction means:
Movement toward midline
224
Inversion of the foot means:
Inward stress movement
225
"Proximal" refers to:
Near the source or beginning
226
Caudad angle is:
CR angled away from head
227
Extension means:
Increasing angle of joint
228
Abduction means:
Movement away from midline
229
Dorsiflexion means:
Decrease angle between foot and lower leg
230
Radial deviation means:
Wrist movement toward the radius
231
Pronation means:
Rotation of hand with palm down
232
Minimum projections for femur, chest, forearm:
Two
233
Minimum projections for finger, foot, ankle, elbow:
Three
234
Minimum projections for pelvis:
One
235
Match IR size 10×12 inches:
24 × 30 cm
236
Match IR size 14×17 inches:
35 × 43 cm
237
Match IR size 8×10 inches:
18 × 24 cm
238
Match IR size 9×9 inches:
24 × 24 cm
239
Match IR size 11×14 inches:
30 × 35 cm
240
A body system is made of:
Organs with shared function
241
Lateromedial projection means lateral side:
Farther from the IR (False)
242
Tangential = Axial projection:
False
243
Is “radiographic view” a valid U.S. term?
False
244
"Position" can describe lateral or oblique:
True
245
Tech can diagnose if patient asks:
False
246
ARRT requires continuing education:
True
247
Discussing clinical info with family is allowed:
False
248
Adding R or L marker digitally if missing:
False
249
Is tech responsible for getting clinical info?
True
250
Can tech interpret x-ray for patient?
False
251
PA images are viewed with patient's left on viewer's right?
True
252
Oblique images are viewed with patient’s right on viewer’s right?
False
253
Decubitus chest images are aligned as IR “sees” them?
False
254
When viewing hand x-rays, fingers should point:
Upward
255
Lower leg images—should the toes point upward?
False
256
CT/MRI images—patient's right faces viewer's:
Left
257
Anode heel effect—x-ray intensity greatest under anode?
False
258
Increasing SID increases distortion?
False
259
Minimum SID for most radiographs?
40 inches (100 cm)
260
Using table Bucky increases magnification vs tabletop?
True
261
Least distortion occurs at what point?
Point of central ray
262
Digital systems reduce repeats, improve efficiency?
True
263
"Exposure indicator" replaces "density" in digital imaging?
False
264
Low SNR is desirable in digital imaging?
False
265
Is PSP plate light sensitive and processed in dark?
False
266
Are PSP systems cassette-based or cassetteless?
Both
267
Are FPD-TFT systems considered DR?
True
268
Do PSP plates use ultra-bright light to scan?
False
269
PSP images may be viewable in how long?
5 seconds
270
Can FPD-TFT systems be used with or without grid?
True
271
Should lead mats be used for multiple images on same PSP?
True
272
Is close collimation recommended for PSP?
True
273
Are kVp values decreased for digital imaging vs analog?
False
274
Are digital systems hypersensitive to scatter?
True
275
"Portrait" IR placement means:
Lengthwise to long axis
276
Grid can stay in place for most digital exams?
True
277
PACS means "Picture Archiving Connection System"?
False
278
Exposure indicator = numeric value of exposure to IR?
True
279
Should PACS integrate with HIS?
True
280
Is 1 gray equal to 1000 rad?
False
281
SI units have been standard since:
1958
282
TLD/OSL dosimeters must be changed every 14 days?
False
283
Collimator light field must be accurate within:
2% of SID (not 5%)
284
Are breasts more radiosensitive than gonads?
True
285
Image Wisely initiative is for pediatric imaging?
False
286
ACE initiative reminds techs to:
Maintain professional communication
287
Can PACS show images at multiple locations?
True
288
Deviation Index (DI) of 0 means no exposure to IR?
False
289
Common landmarks for chest positioning?
Jugular notch and vertebra prominens
290
Vertebra prominens corresponds to what vertebral level?
C7
291
Upper margin of lungs is at what landmark?
Vertebra prominens
292
What is the shared passageway for food and air?
Pharynx
293
Where is the jugular notch located?
Sternum
294
Anatomic term for Adam’s apple?
Laryngeal prominence
295
What covers the larynx to prevent aspiration?
Epiglottis
296
Most posterior structure: larynx, trachea, esophagus, hyoid?
Esophagus
297
Lower broad part of the lung is called the:
Base
298
Most inferior structure: epiglottis, carina, hyoid, vocal cords?
Carina
299
Where trachea bifurcates into bronchi:
Carina
300
Inner pleura that touches lungs and heart:
Pulmonary (visceral) pleura
301
Air in pleural cavity =
**Pneumothorax**
302
Which structure is NOT in the mediastinum?
Epiglottis
303
Level of laryngeal prominence:
C4–C5
304
What does Part i (from diagram) refer to?
Epiglottis
305
What does Part ii refer to?
Hyoid bone
306
What does Part iii refer to?
Laryngeal prominence
307
What does Part iv refer to?
Thyroid cartilage
308
What does Part v refer to?
Cricoid cartilage
309
What does Part vi refer to?
Trachea
310
Level of the thyroid gland?
C5–C7
311
Thymus gland reaches maximum size at:
Puberty
312
Heart lies at what level in chest?
T5–T8
313
Best palpable landmark for AP chest on obese patients?
Jugular notch
314
CR location for AP supine adult chest?
3–4 inches below jugular notch
315
AP portable chest on hypersthenic male—CR should be centered?
3 inches below jugular notch
316
When is inspiration/expiration chest series needed?
Small pneumothorax
317
Pleurisy shows up with associated:
Pleural effusion
318
Classic radiographic sign for respiratory distress syndrome?
Air bronchogram sign
319
Which body habitus typically needs landscape IR for chest?
Hypersthenic
320
Radiographic grids are required for chest at what kVp?
100 kVp or greater
321
Which statement is NOT true about bronchi?
Left bronchus is more vertical than right (False)
322
How many lobes in the right lung?
Three
323
Why is the right bronchus more likely to receive foreign bodies?
It is wider, shorter, and more vertical
324
Which chest structure is NOT part of the mediastinum?
Epiglottis
325
Which structure serves as a lid over the larynx?
Epiglottis
326
What is the name of the ridge where the trachea bifurcates?
Carina
327
Where is the CR centered for a PA chest projection?
Level of T7
328
How many ribs should be visible above diaphragm on full inspiration?
10
329
Why is PA preferred over AP for chest?
Reduces magnification of heart
330
What is the reason for upright chest positioning?
Air-fluid levels and diaphragm movement
331
Why should the chin be extended during a chest x-ray?
To prevent superimposition over apices
332
How can rotation be evaluated on a PA chest x-ray?
Check symmetry of SC joints
333
What error leads to costophrenic angles being cut off?
Improper centering or collimation
334
Which exposure factors are best for chest imaging?
High kVp, short exposure time
335
Best position to demonstrate pleural effusion in the left lung?
Left lateral decubitus
336
Best position to demonstrate pneumothorax in the left lung?
Right lateral decubitus
337
What condition shows “collapsed” alveoli?
Atelectasis
338
Which condition involves fluid in the lungs?
Pulmonary edema
339
Which condition is a contagious bacterial infection?
Tuberculosis
340
Chronic dilation of bronchi is known as:
Bronchiectasis
341
Inflammation of pleura is:
Pleurisy
342
What is the condition of free air in pleural cavity?
Pneumothorax
343
Fluid in pleural space due to trauma is:
Hemothorax
344
Chest pathology from inhaled dust/fibers?
Pneumoconiosis
345
What is the tube called inserted to re-inflate a lung?
Chest tube
346
Which radiograph would most likely show air-fluid level?
Horizontal beam projection
347
Why are chest x-rays taken at 72” SID?
Reduce magnification of heart
348
Why use a grid for adult chest radiography?
To clean up scatter from high kVp
349
What is the purpose of the second inspiration?
To ensure full lung expansion
350
Which landmark is used to center CR for a PA chest?
Vertebra prominens
351
What chest anatomy is at T7?
Level of mid-thorax/lung fields
352
Which condition creates a “blunted” costophrenic angle?
Pleural effusion
353
Which body habitus requires the most IR rotation for chest?
Hypersthenic
354
Why is a left lateral chest preferred?
Reduces heart magnification
355
Why take chest x-ray in erect position?
Shows air/fluid levels and lowers diaphragm
356
What is the function of the epiglottis?
Prevents aspiration into airway
357
What does the diaphragm do on deep inspiration?
Moves downward
358
Where is the CR centered for lateral chest projection?
Mid-thorax (T7)
359
What is demonstrated by lateral chest?
Lung fields, heart, and costophrenic angles
360
How many posterior ribs should be seen on a good PA chest?
10
361
What causes blurring in chest images?
Motion
362
What happens if exposure is made on expiration?
Lungs appear denser and smaller
363
What is the preferred breathing phase for chest x-rays?
Second full inspiration
364
Why is chin extended during a PA chest?
To keep it off the apices
365
Why do you roll shoulders forward on PA chest?
Move scapulae off lung fields
366
Best chest position for air-fluid levels?
Horizontal beam, decubitus
367
When is a lateral decubitus chest x-ray used?
When patient cannot stand
368
Why use a high kVp (110–125) for chest?
Provides long scale contrast
369
Common reason for missed costophrenic angles?
Incorrect centering or collimation
370
Which exposure error causes underpenetrated lungs?
kVp too low
371
Why take a PA inspiration/expiration chest series?
To check for small pneumothorax
372
What anatomy does a lordotic chest projection show best?
Apices of lungs
373
What projection shows fluid in the right pleural space?
Right lateral decubitus
374
What projection best visualizes pneumothorax in left lung?
Right lateral decubitus
375
What projection best demonstrates pleural effusion in left lung?
Left lateral decubitus
376
Why do you use 72-inch SID for chest x-ray?
Reduce heart magnification
377
Which chest projection requires the patient to lean backward?
Lordotic
378
What is the best position for suspected pneumothorax?
Erect, PA with inspiration and expiration
379
Why is a grid used in chest imaging?
Reduces scatter at high kVp
380
What does high contrast mean in x-ray imaging?
Fewer shades of gray, short scale
381
How can you tell a PA chest is rotated?
SC joints are not symmetric
382
Best marker placement for PA chest?
Top left or right of image
383
Why do lateral chest projections use arms raised?
Prevents arm superimposition on lungs
384
Where is CR directed for a lateral chest x-ray?
Mid-thorax (T7)
385
What does pneumothorax look like on x-ray?
No lung markings in area
386
If spine is too dark on chest x-ray, what’s the error?
kVp too high
387
What does underexposure look like?
White or grainy image, underpenetrated
388
How do you center a lateral chest on a portable unit?
3–4 inches below jugular notch
389
Which projection best shows a lung mass behind the heart?
Lateral
390
Best projection to see apical lesions of lung?
Lordotic
391
What chest projection uses CR entering below chin?
Submentovertical
392
What is the carina?
Where trachea splits into right and left bronchi
393
Where is the apex of the lung located?
Top of lung, above clavicles
394
Where is the base of the lung located?
Bottom, near diaphragm
395
Which projection is used when patient cannot stand?
AP supine or decubitus
396
What structure is located posterior to trachea?
Esophagus
397
What projection shows both lung fields with minimal distortion?
PA erect chest
398
Which position best visualizes a left pleural effusion?
Left lateral decubitus
399
What anatomy is demonstrated on a left lateral chest?
Left lung and heart
400
What anatomy is best visualized in a lateral decubitus chest?
Air-fluid levels and free air
401
Why are lateral chest x-rays taken with left side against IR?
Minimize heart magnification
402
Where should the CR enter for an AP chest?
3–4 inches below the jugular notch
403
What does hypersthenic mean in terms of body habitus?
Short and wide thorax, broad build
404
What is the purpose of using AEC in chest imaging?
Automatically determines correct exposure
405
What causes motion blur on a chest image?
Patient movement or long exposure time
406
What is the name for the top of the lung?
Apex
407
Where are the costophrenic angles located?
Lowest lateral corners of the lungs
408
Where is the hilum located?
Central area where bronchi, vessels, and nerves enter/exit lungs
409
Why is the trachea more anterior than the esophagus?
Trachea carries air; esophagus lies behind
410
What are alveoli?
Tiny air sacs for gas exchange
411
What condition causes fluid in the lungs?
Pulmonary edema
412
What is seen with emphysema?
Overinflated lungs, flattened diaphragms
413
Which condition shows air in pleural cavity?
Pneumothorax
414
Which condition appears as dense white consolidation?
Pneumonia
415
How many ribs should be visible above the diaphragm in a good inspiration?
10 posterior ribs
416
What landmark is used for AP chest centering in a supine patient?
Jugular notch
417
Why use inspiration and expiration chest images?
Evaluate diaphragm movement or pneumothorax
418
What is the diaphragm?
Muscle that separates thoracic and abdominal cavities
419
What does lordotic position help visualize?
Lung apices without clavicle superimposition
420
What is the difference between PA and AP chest in heart appearance?
Heart is magnified in AP view
421
What is a typical technique setting for a chest x-ray?
110–125 kVp, short exposure time
422
How does pleural effusion appear on x-ray?
White area at lung base, blunted costophrenic angle
423
Why are erect positions preferred for chest imaging?
Shows air/fluid levels and allows diaphragm to descend
424
What is bronchiectasis?
Permanent dilation of bronchi
425
What is the preferred chest projection for mobile patients?
PA erect chest
426
How can rotation be detected in a lateral chest x-ray?
Lack of superimposition of posterior ribs
427
What does "AEC" stand for?
Automatic Exposure Control
428
What should be included in a good lateral chest image?
Entire lung fields, costophrenic angles, spine
429
How does tuberculosis appear on a chest x-ray?
White nodular areas, especially in upper lobes
430
What is the mediastinum?
Central compartment of thoracic cavity between lungs
431
What is shown in a dorsal decubitus chest projection?
Fluid levels when patient is supine
432
What is atelectasis?
Collapse of part or all of a lung
433
Why is PA preferred for chest over AP?
Reduces heart magnification and improves image quality
434
What is the role of the pulmonary arteries?
Carry deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs
435
What structure sits behind the heart in lateral view?
Spine
436
Why take chest images at full inspiration?
Expands lungs for better visualization
437
How does scoliosis affect chest imaging?
May cause rib and spine distortion
438
What is the common film size for adult chest imaging?
14 × 17 inches (35 × 43 cm)
439
What positioning error occurs when chin is too low?
Chin superimposes apices
440
Which positioning line is used to assess rotation in PA chest?
SC joints to spinous process
441
What breathing instruction is given for chest x-rays?
Take a deep breath and hold it
442
What happens if chest x-ray is taken during expiration?
Lungs appear smaller, diaphragm higher
443
How to check for pneumothorax in a non-ambulatory patient?
Horizontal beam lateral decubitus
444
What is empyema?
Pus in the pleural cavity
445
What is the purpose of using collimation?
Reduce patient dose and scatter radiation
446
What condition causes "air bronchogram" sign?
Respiratory distress syndrome or pneumonia
447
Why use a grid for adult chest imaging?
Improves image contrast at high kVp
448
What does the anode heel effect impact in chest imaging?
Image density from cathode to anode side
449
Why is short exposure time important in chest imaging?
Reduces motion blur from breathing
450
What condition causes collapse of lung tissue?
Atelectasis
451
Why should you avoid rotating the chest during exposure?
Prevents distortion of anatomy
452
What is the effect of overexposure in chest imaging?
Overly dark image with loss of detail
453
Where is the esophagus located?
Posterior to the trachea and anterior to the spine
454
How is inspiration evaluated on chest x-ray?
At least 10 posterior ribs visible
455
Where does the CR enter for a PA chest?
Level of T7
456
How is pneumothorax identified on x-ray?
Absence of lung markings and visible lung edge
457
What is the name of the double-walled sac around lungs?
Pleura
458
How does emphysema appear on chest x-ray?
Enlarged lung fields, flattened diaphragms
459
What projection is used to see air-fluid levels in supine patients?
Dorsal decubitus
460
What part of lung lies above the clavicle?
Apex
461
How can you tell if a PA chest is underexposed?
Spine is not visible behind heart
462
What is the importance of erect lateral chest projection?
Shows fluid levels and reduces heart magnification
463
What is the standard SID for chest radiography?
72 inches
464
What happens if the shoulders aren't rotated forward on a PA chest?
Scapulae overlie lung fields
465
Why is a left lateral preferred for lateral chest?
Minimizes heart magnification
466
What body habitus has a broad, shallow thorax?
Hypersthenic
467
What body habitus has a long, narrow thorax?
Asthenic
468
What condition may show as a white area at the lung base?
Pleural effusion
469
What condition shows hyperlucent lung fields with flattened diaphragm?
Emphysema
470
What breathing instruction is used for chest x-ray?
Take in second full inspiration and hold
471
How does pleural effusion appear in lateral decubitus?
Layered fluid on dependent side
472
Why use a high mA for chest imaging?
Allows for shorter exposure time
473
What is the normal range of kVp for adult chest x-ray?
110–125 kVp
474
Why use an AEC chamber for the lungs?
Stops exposure when lungs are properly penetrated
475
What is the role of the hilum?
Entry and exit for bronchi, vessels, and nerves
476
What is the thymus gland’s role?
Supports immune development in children
477
What is the purpose of the costophrenic angle?
Corner of lung field important for evaluating fluid
478
What is the purpose of the carina?
Marks where trachea divides into left and right bronchi
479
Where is the CR directed for AP supine chest?
3–4 inches below jugular notch
480
How do you confirm full inspiration on chest x-ray?
Count visible posterior ribs (at least 10)
481
What condition may mimic pneumonia but is caused by fluid?
Pulmonary edema
482
What projection shows the apices without clavicle obstruction?
Lordotic
483
Why is the vertebra prominens important?
It’s a landmark for centering T1–T7
484
Where is the jugular notch located?
On superior margin of manubrium
485
What is the smallest functional unit of the lung?
Alveolus
486
Where is the base of the lung located?
Resting on diaphragm
487
What is the name of the angle at the lung base on lateral border?
Costophrenic angle
488
Where do foreign objects usually lodge in bronchial tree?
Right main bronchus
489
Which body system is responsible for gas exchange?
Respiratory system
490
What is the purpose of the cricoid cartilage?
Provides structure to the larynx and trachea
491
What does “PA” in PA chest mean?
Posteroanterior
492
What is the preferred patient orientation for chest x-ray?
Erect
493
How many lobes are in the left lung?
Two
494
Which side of diaphragm is higher and why?
Right, because of the liver
495
What organ lies directly behind the manubrium?
Aortic arch
496
Which projection best shows free air in the pleural cavity?
Erect PA or lateral chest
497
What causes a silhouette sign on chest x-ray?
Soft tissue masses or fluid obliterating borders
498
How does a hiatal hernia appear on chest x-ray?
Air-fluid level or soft tissue density behind heart
499
What anatomy is examined in a lordotic chest x-ray?
Apices of lungs
500
Which projection best shows a left-sided pleural effusion?
Left lateral decubitus
501
What causes displacement of the heart on chest x-ray?
Rotation or pathology like pneumothorax
502
What is the standard image receptor size for adult chest imaging?
14 × 17 inches
503
Why do you instruct deep inspiration for chest exams?
To fully expand lung fields
504
Which position helps visualize fluid in posterior lungs?
Dorsal decubitus
505
Which projection would best demonstrate the retrosternal space?
Lateral chest
506
How can you differentiate pneumonia from pleural effusion?
Pneumonia is within lung tissue; effusion is outside
507
What is the difference between pneumothorax and hemothorax?
Air vs. blood in pleural cavity
508
Which lung is shorter and why?
Right lung, because of the liver
509
Where is the pulmonary trunk located?
Anterior to left main bronchus
510
What is seen with left-sided heart failure?
Pulmonary venous congestion or pulmonary edema
511
Why use a left lateral for chest imaging?
Heart is closer to IR, reducing magnification
512
What is the role of the diaphragm?
Muscle for respiration, separates thorax and abdomen
513
What condition is indicated by a visible lung edge?
Pneumothorax
514
Which plane is used to align for a PA chest?
Midsagittal plane
515
Which line is perpendicular to IR for a lateral chest?
Midcoronal plane
516
What condition shows Kerley B lines on x-ray?
Pulmonary edema
517
Where should markers be placed on chest x-rays?
Upper left or right corner outside anatomy
518
What is the space between the two pleural layers?
Pleural cavity
519
How do you identify rotation on a PA chest?
Check SC joint alignment
520
What is the significance of the costophrenic angle?
Evaluates fluid accumulation
521
What happens to the diaphragm on inspiration?
Moves downward
522
What pathology causes a shift of the trachea?
Large pleural effusion or tension pneumothorax
523
Where does the CR enter for a left lateral chest?
Mid-thorax at T7
524
What is the term for normal amount of air in lungs?
Lung aeration
525
What is a pneumoperitoneum?
Free air in the peritoneal cavity (often seen below diaphragm)
526
What causes hilar enlargement on chest x-ray?
Lymphadenopathy or vascular engorgement
527
Which projection is ideal for seeing apices of lungs?
Lordotic view
528
How can over-rotation be seen on a lateral chest?
Ribs not superimposed
529
Why take chest images on full second inspiration?
Ensures maximum lung expansion
530
What condition causes barrel chest appearance?
Emphysema
531
What body habitus often requires landscape IR?
Hypersthenic
532
What is a hemidiaphragm?
Either half of the diaphragm (right or left)
533
What are fissures in the lung?
Dividing lines between lobes
534
Which view is best for pericardial effusion?
Echocardiography, but seen as enlargement on chest x-ray
535
What is the advantage of digital chest imaging?
Better contrast resolution and postprocessing
536
Which condition requires expiration imaging?
Pneumothorax
537
What position should be used for suspected pleural effusion when upright isn't possible?
Lateral decubitus
538
What structure lies just anterior to the spine in a lateral chest?
Esophagus
539
What is the usual kVp range for pediatric chest x-ray?
70–85 kVp
540
Why is grid not typically used for pediatric chest?
Lower body mass = less scatter
541
What is the role of the epiglottis?
Prevents aspiration of food into airway
542
Which projection best demonstrates posterior ribs?
AP
543
What structure forms the anterior border of the mediastinum?
Sternum
544
Which projection best demonstrates anterior ribs?
PA
545
What is the function of the larynx?
Passage for air, houses vocal cords
546
Which ribs are considered true ribs?
Ribs 1–7
547
Which ribs are false ribs?
Ribs 8–12
548
Which ribs are floating ribs?
Ribs 11–12
549
Where does the trachea bifurcate?
At the carina (T4–T5 level)
550
What are the names of the lung lobes?
Right: superior, middle, inferior; Left: superior, inferior
551
What is the function of surfactant?
Reduces surface tension in alveoli
552
Where are the vocal cords located?
In the larynx
553
Which part of the sternum articulates with the clavicles?
Manubrium
554
Which chest condition is characterized by thick secretions?
Cystic fibrosis
555
What is the CR angle for a lordotic chest?
0°, patient leans back or 15–20° cephalad
556
What happens to the heart shadow in a supine AP chest?
Appears enlarged due to magnification
557
Which ribs are best seen on oblique chest?
Axillary portion of the ribs
558
What are the three parts of the sternum?
Manubrium, body, xiphoid process
559
What is the name of the upper margin of the sternum?
Jugular notch
560
What is the sternal angle?
Junction between manubrium and body
561
Where is the xiphoid tip located?
Level of T9–T10
562
What are costovertebral joints?
Articulations between ribs and thoracic vertebrae
563
What is the function of intercostal muscles?
Aid in respiration
564
What is the minimum number of views for ribs?
Two—AP/PA and oblique
565
What pathology appears as air in soft tissues?
Subcutaneous emphysema
566
What does a flail chest result from?
Multiple rib fractures
567
What is pectus excavatum?
Congenital deformity with depressed sternum
568
What is pectus carinatum?
Forward projection of the sternum (pigeon chest)
569
What is the purpose of a PA projection for sternum?
Reduce magnification
570
What projection best shows the sternum?
RAO
571
What projection best shows the SC joints?
Anterior obliques (RAO/LAO)
572
What is the degree of obliquity for a sternum?
15–20°, depending on body habitus
573
What does the diaphragm attach to?
Lumbar spine, lower ribs, and xiphoid
574
Where are the posterior ribs best visualized?
AP projection
575
What kind of joint is the sternoclavicular joint?
Synovial, plane (gliding)
576
Where are the anterior ribs best visualized?
PA projection
577
Why is RAO preferred over LAO for sternum?
Places sternum over heart shadow
578
Which pathology causes a “ground-glass” appearance?
Respiratory distress syndrome
579
Where is the head of the rib located?
Posterior, articulates with vertebrae
580
Where is the costal groove found?
On inferior margin of each rib
581
What condition causes bone destruction from cancer?
Rib metastasis
582
Which position shows axillary ribs of the left side?
LAO or RPO
583
What breathing technique is used for sternum projection?
Shallow breathing or expiration
584
What IR size is typically used for ribs?
14 × 17 inches
585
Which projection is best for trauma ribs?
AP and oblique, upright if possible
586
How is the patient positioned for below diaphragm ribs?
Recumbent, expiration
587
What is the primary reason for an erect rib study?
Demonstrate air-fluid levels
588
Where is the CR directed for above diaphragm ribs?
T7
589
Where is the CR directed for below diaphragm ribs?
Bottom of IR at iliac crest
590
Which modality best evaluates bone metastases?
Nuclear medicine
591
Which ribs attach directly to the sternum?
Ribs 1–7
592
Which ribs are most commonly fractured?
Ribs 4–10
593
What is the routine projection for a sternum?
RAO
594
What is the optimal breathing technique for a lateral sternum?
Suspended deep inspiration
595
Where is the CR for lateral sternum?
Mid sternum (T7)
596
What degree of rotation is used for an RAO sternum?
15–20°
597
What position shows the right SC joint in profile?
RAO
598
What position shows the left SC joint in profile?
LAO
599
What is the CR location for a PA SC joint projection?
Level of T2–T3
600
What is the kVp range for rib imaging?
70–85 kVp (above diaphragm); 80–90 kVp (below)
601
Which projection best demonstrates the sternum?
RAO with shallow breathing
602
What structure is directly posterior to the sternum?
Heart and great vessels
603
What is the best way to evaluate a pneumothorax?
Erect PA chest on expiration
604
How many total ribs should be seen in a good inspiration?
10 posterior ribs
605
What is the term for a fractured rib segment moving independently?
Flail chest
606
Why is the SC joint projection often done PA?
Reduces OID
607
Where is the manubrium located?
Upper portion of the sternum
608
What angle separates manubrium and sternal body?
Sternal angle (Angle of Louis)
609
What landmark is used to locate T2–T3?
Jugular notch
610
Why perform rib studies AP above diaphragm?
Air-filled lungs create natural contrast
611
Why perform rib studies below diaphragm on expiration?
Diaphragm rises and improves visibility
612
Which pathology causes multiple rib fractures and paradoxical chest motion?
Flail chest
613
Which ribs are most protected from trauma?
Ribs 1 and 2
614
What is the costal cartilage?
Hyaline cartilage connecting ribs to sternum
615
What joint is formed between rib tubercle and vertebra?
Costotransverse joint
616
Which ribs are not connected to sternum at all?
Floating ribs (11 and 12)
617
What rib level is associated with the inferior angle of the scapula?
Rib 7
618
Where is the sternum located?
Anterior midline of thorax
619
What is the central portion of the sternum?
Body
620
Which structure articulates with the clavicles and first pair of ribs?
Manubrium
621
Why use shallow breathing for sternum projection?
Blurs overlying lung markings
622
Where is the CR directed for an RAO sternum?
To center of sternum, about 1" lateral to MSP
623
Which oblique best visualizes the left posterior ribs?
RPO
624
Which oblique best visualizes the right anterior ribs?
LAO
625
Which ribs are seen on a PA chest?
Anterior ribs
626
Which ribs are seen better on AP projection?
Posterior ribs
627
Which projection shows axillary ribs the best?
Oblique
628
Why is an erect position used for above-diaphragm ribs?
Diaphragm is lowered
629
What breathing technique is used for above-diaphragm ribs?
Inspiration
630
What breathing technique is used for below-diaphragm ribs?
Expiration
631
Which position demonstrates the axillary portion of left ribs?
RPO or LAO
632
Where is the CR for below-diaphragm ribs?
Halfway between xiphoid and lower rib margin
633
What pathology is best seen on rib series with soft tissue technique?
Subcutaneous emphysema
634
Which modality is most sensitive for rib metastasis?
Nuclear medicine bone scan
635
Which ribs are most often missed due to improper centering?
8–12
636
What kVp range is preferred for sternum and SC joints?
65–75 kVp
637
What is the breathing instruction for lateral sternum?
Suspend on deep inspiration
638
What structure lies directly posterior to the manubrium?
Aortic arch
639
What is the routine projection for SC joints?
PA and obliques (RAO/LAO)
640
Which ribs connect indirectly to the sternum?
Ribs 8–10 (via shared cartilage)
641
What level is the xiphoid tip located?
T9–T10
642
What is the name of the joint between rib and sternum?
Costosternal joint
643
What type of joint is the costovertebral joint?
Synovial, diarthrodial, gliding
644
How are the ribs numbered?
According to the thoracic vertebra they attach to
645
Where is the CR centered for upper ribs?
T7
646
Where is the CR centered for SC joints?
T2–T3
647
Which projection is best for visualizing the sternum with minimal superimposition?
RAO
648
Which ribs are seen best in the RPO position?
Right posterior ribs
649
Which ribs are seen best in the LAO position?
Right anterior ribs
650
Which ribs are best seen in the LPO position?
Left posterior ribs
651
What is the best projection for SC joint subluxation?
Oblique SC joint
652
Why perform a rib series PA instead of AP?
To show anterior ribs closer to IR
653
Which breathing instruction is best for sternum RAO?
Shallow breathing
654
Which breathing instruction is used for below diaphragm ribs?
Suspend on expiration
655
Why is expiration used for below diaphragm ribs?
Allows diaphragm to rise for better contrast
656
What is a pathological accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity called?
Pleural effusion
657
Where is the CR for a lateral projection of the sternum?
Midsternum (T7 level)
658
Why would you use a 30" SID for sternum RAO?
To blur posterior ribs and lung markings
659
What is the functional classification of the costovertebral joint?
Diarthrodial
660
Which rib anatomy articulates with the transverse process?
Tubercle
661
What ribs do not have costotransverse joints?
Ribs 11 and 12
662
What does a sternal fracture typically indicate?
Trauma to underlying organs (e.g., heart)
663
Which modality is best for soft tissue chest trauma?
CT
664
Which part of the rib articulates with the vertebral body?
Head
665
Where is the CR directed for upper anterior ribs?
T7
666
What rib level is the angle of the rib?
Approximately rib 6–8 region
667
What is the minimum number of views for ribs after trauma?
2 (orthogonal projections)
668
How many ribs are visible above the diaphragm in a good inspiration?
9–10 posterior ribs
669
What body habitus needs the most obliquity for sternum?
Asthenic (20°)
670
Where is the CR for posterior lower ribs?
Midway between xiphoid and lower rib margin
671
Which projection shows axillary ribs free of superimposition?
Oblique (RPO/LPO or RAO/LAO)
672
What is the standard IR size for bilateral ribs?
14 × 17 inches
673
Which ribs are evaluated for trauma from blunt chest injury?
Posterior ribs 4–9 most common
674
What is the technical factor adjustment for osteolytic rib metastasis?
Decrease exposure
675
How many ribs are considered true ribs?
Seven
676
Which ribs are most commonly fractured?
4th through 10th
677
What is the radiographic sign of rib metastases?
Destructive or sclerotic lesions on ribs
678
How are costotransverse joints classified?
Diarthrodial, plane (gliding)
679
Why is a grid used for rib imaging?
Improves contrast when using higher kVp
680
What is a costochondral junction?
Union between rib and cartilage
681
What is the most anterior bony thoracic landmark?
Sternum
682
Where is the sternal end of a rib located?
Anteriorly, connecting to costal cartilage
683
What does “orthogonal” mean in trauma rib series?
Two projections 90° to each other
684
What does a nuclear medicine scan of ribs show?
Hot spots for infection or metastasis
685
Which ribs have the most mobility?
Ribs 11 and 12
686
Where is the vertebral end of the rib?
Posterior, articulating with vertebrae
687
What type of joint is formed at the costosternal articulation?
Cartilaginous (synarthrodial for rib 1, diarthrodial for 2–7)
688
Which ribs form costotransverse joints?
Ribs 1–10
689
What are the three parts of a typical rib?
Head, neck, and body
690
What is the purpose of the rib angle?
Marks point of curvature, site of muscle attachment
691
What is the recommended SID for lateral sternum projection?
72 inches
692
Why do ribs 11 and 12 not have anterior attachments?
They are floating ribs
693
Where does the CR enter for an upper posterior rib study?
Level of T7
694
Which ribs are best visualized in the PA oblique (RAO) position?
Anterior ribs of the left side
695
Which ribs are best visualized in the AP oblique (LPO) position?
Posterior ribs of the left side
696
Which ribs are considered part of the bony thorax?
All 12 pairs
697
What is the purpose of raising the arms during rib x-rays?
To move scapulae away from rib field
698
What breathing instruction is used for upper rib x-rays?
Suspend on full inspiration
699
Why use expiration for lower rib projections?
To elevate the diaphragm for better visualization
700
What happens if a patient is rotated in rib imaging?
Ribs may be distorted or obscured
701
What is the primary imaging goal in rib trauma?
Show the site of pain or suspected fracture
702
Why do you angle the patient 45° for oblique ribs?
To best visualize the axillary rib portion
703
What is a common error in lower rib imaging?
Placing the IR too high—misses lower ribs
704
Which ribs form joints with both the vertebral body and transverse process?
Ribs 1–10
705
How does costochondritis appear on x-ray?
Usually normal—clinical diagnosis
706
What is the name for the anterior junction between costal cartilage and sternum?
Costosternal junction
707
What is a sternal foramen?
Benign congenital hole in the sternum
708
Why is knowledge of rib counting important in abdominal imaging?
Helps locate organs like kidneys and spleen
709
Which rib pair articulates only with a single vertebra?
Ribs 1, 10, 11, and 12
710
How can rotation affect a sternum RAO image?
Misaligned sternum over lung field instead of heart
711
What type of joint is the manubriosternal joint?
Cartilaginous, symphysis (amphiarthrodial)
712
Why should exposure for sternum be made with long exposure time and low mA?
To blur out lung markings
713
What projection is used when a sternum fracture is suspected but patient can't rotate?
Lateral projection
714
Where is the most common site for a rib fracture?
Rib angles (mid-rib shaft)
715
What condition may mimic rib fractures on radiographs?
Costal cartilage calcification
716
What imaging modality is best for detecting subtle rib fractures?
CT
717
What is the risk of multiple rib fractures?
Pneumothorax or flail chest
718
Why do we use 72" SID for lateral sternum?
To reduce magnification and improve detail
719
What anatomical structure is posterior
720
What anatomical structure is posterior to the sternum and can affect visibility?
Heart and mediastinal shadows
721
Which ribs are best seen with AP oblique RPO position?
Right posterior ribs
722
What technique helps avoid motion blur in rib x-rays?
Short exposure time
723
Where is the CR for an SC joint projection?
Level of T2–T3, 3 inches below vertebra prominens
724
What rib is attached at the sternal angle?
Rib 2
725
What is the normal shape of a typical rib?
Flat and curved
726
Which ribs have both vertebral and sternal attachments?
Ribs 1–7
727
Which side of the rib is thicker—vertebral or sternal?
Vertebral end
728
Which ribs form the thoracic inlet?
Rib 1 and manubrium
729
What joint connects the rib to the vertebral body?
Costovertebral joint
730
What is the most distal portion of the sternum?
Xiphoid process
731
What is the importance of the jugular notch?
Landmark for T2–T3 vertebral level
732
What degree of obliquity is used for oblique ribs?
45°
733
Which ribs are best visualized on expiration?
Ribs below the diaphragm
