1st exam👶🏼 Flashcards
Which of the following actions by a pediatric nurse demonstrates the principle of family-centered care?
A. Taking a detailed medical history without involving the parents.
B. Providing education only to the child about their condition.
C. Encouraging parents to actively participate in their child’s care and decision-making.
D. Making decisions for the child based solely on the nurse’s assessment.
Answer: C
Rationale: Family-centered care encourages collaboration with families, recognizing parents as essential partners in decision-making for their child’s care.
When educating a child and family about a health condition, the nurse should primarily aim to:
A. Provide simple facts about the condition.
B. Help the family make informed choices regarding health behaviors.
C. Ensure the family understands every medical term.
D. Minimize the time spent on education to avoid overwhelming them.
Answer: B
Rationale: The goal of pediatric patient education is to empower families to make informed health decisions, adapting information to their level of understanding.
A pediatric nurse uses clinical reasoning to:
A. Document vital signs accurately.
B. Apply critical thinking to assess and respond to changing patient conditions.
C. Record the child’s medical history.
D. Deliver a standardized set of care actions without deviation.
Answer: B
Rationale: Clinical reasoning involves analyzing cues and assessing changes in the child’s condition, essential for providing responsive care.
What is a primary focus of evidence-based practice (EBP) in pediatric nursing?
A. Integrating the best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values.
B. Following strict protocols without adaptation.
C. Avoiding family preferences to maintain objectivity.
D. Prioritizing the nurse’s experience over scientific research.
Answer: A
Rationale: EBP in pediatric nursing combines research evidence, clinical skills, and patient values, resulting in more personalized, effective care.
The most common cause of death among children aged 1 to 19 years is:
A. Cancer.
B. Heart disease.
C. Congenital malformations.
D. Unintentional injury.
Answer: D
Rationale: Unintentional injuries, such as accidents, are the leading cause of mortality in children aged 1 to 19.
A pediatric nurse is assessing a child with a chronic condition affecting daily life. This assessment reflects the concept of:
A. Mortality.
B. Morbidity.
C. Mortification.
D. Mobility.
Answer: B
Rationale: Morbidity refers to health conditions that limit activity or require medical attention, common in chronic pediatric illnesses.
When serving as a patient advocate, the pediatric nurse must:
A. Act independently without considering family input.
B. Only follow physician orders strictly.
C. Facilitate the family’s understanding of and participation in healthcare decisions.
D. Avoid discussing alternative treatments with the family.
Answer: C
Rationale: Advocacy involves supporting the child and family in understanding and participating in healthcare decisions.
Which federal act requires healthcare institutions to inform patients about their rights, including the option to create advance directives?
A. Affordable Care Act.
B. Patient Self-Determination Act.
C. Children’s Health Insurance Program.
D. Nurse Practice Act.
Answer: B
Rationale: The Patient Self-Determination Act requires that healthcare institutions inform patients of their right to create advance directives.
When providing culturally sensitive care, the nurse should:
A. Implement the same approach for all families.
B. Rely on the family’s cultural background to inform care without discussion.
C. Respect and integrate the family’s cultural values in care planning.
D. Educate the family on American healthcare values exclusively.
Answer: C
Rationale: Culturally sensitive care respects and incorporates each family’s unique values and beliefs into care planning.
In pediatric nursing, case management primarily involves:
A. Focusing solely on reducing costs.
B. Coordinating with an interprofessional team for comprehensive care planning.
C. Following only one healthcare provider’s treatment plan.
D. Minimizing the use of healthcare services.
Answer: B
Rationale: Case management in pediatrics includes coordinating services among various professionals to deliver effective, comprehensive care.
Which action demonstrates accountability in pediatric nursing?
A. Delegating tasks without follow-up.
B. Evaluating outcomes after providing care to improve future practice.
C. Avoiding documentation to save time.
D. Only recording successful interventions.
Answer: B
Rationale: Accountability includes self-evaluation and improving practice based on care outcomes.
A nurse is aware that informed consent for a pediatric patient requires:
A. Only verbal permission from the child.
B. Formal authorization from a parent or guardian.
C. Written consent from the child alone.
D. No permission if it’s an emergency.
Answer: B
Rationale: Informed consent requires formal authorization from a parent or legal guardian, especially for minors.
When assessing the risks of medical errors in a pediatric unit, the nurse is engaging in:
A. Evidence-based practice.
B. Clinical reasoning.
C. Quality improvement.
D.Risk management.
Answer: D
Rationale: Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and addressing factors that contribute to medical errors to improve safety.
Confidentiality is especially crucial in adolescent healthcare to ensure:
A. All information is disclosed to the family.
B. The adolescent’s trust and willingness to seek care.
C. Parents are always informed, regardless of consent.
D. Only minor health issues are discussed.
Answer: B
Rationale: Respecting adolescent confidentiality encourages them to seek care for sensitive health issues without fear of disclosure.
In the context of pediatric health policy, the Children’s Health Insurance Program (CHIP) primarily aims to:
A. Serve uninsured children from low-income families who don’t qualify for Medicaid.
B. Provide insurance for all children, regardless of income.
C. Offer services only for emergency care.
D. Replace Medicaid for all children.
Answer: A
Rationale: CHIP provides health insurance to children from low-income families who do not meet Medicaid eligibility, increasing healthcare access.
According to Erikson, the primary developmental task for infants from birth to 1 year is:
A. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt.
B. Initiative vs. Guilt.
C. Trust vs. Mistrust.
D. Industry vs. Inferiority.
Answer: C
Rationale: Erikson’s developmental stage for infants is Trust vs. Mistrust, where consistent care fosters a sense of trust in the infant.
An infant who demonstrates the ability to sit without support is showing what type of development?
A. Qualitative development.
B. Quantitative development.
C. Cephalocaudal development.
D. Proximodistal development.
Answer: A
Rationale: Sitting without support reflects qualitative development, which focuses on increased capabilities and functions rather than physical size.
Which milestone should a nurse expect to observe in an infant aged 8 to 10 months?
A. Rolls over from abdomen to back.
B. Develops object permanence.
C. Transfers objects between hands.
D. Pulls self to standing position.
Answer: D
Rationale: Pulling to a standing position is typical for infants aged 8 to 10 months, as they develop gross motor skills progressively.
The concept of cephalocaudal development refers to:
A. Development from the center of the body outward.
B. Development from head to toe.
C. Development of fine motor skills before gross motor skills.
D. Simultaneous development across all body parts.
Answer: B
Rationale: Cephalocaudal development progresses from the head down to the lower parts of the body.
At which age do infants typically begin to exhibit secondary circular reactions, according to Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?
A. 0-1 month.
B. 1-4 months.
C. 4-8 months.
D. 8-12 months.
Answer: C
Rationale: Piaget describes secondary circular reactions occurring between 4 to 8 months, where infants start repeating actions to elicit responses from their environment.
An infant shows an understanding of object permanence. According to Piaget, at what stage of cognitive development is this infant?
A. Reflexive stage.
B. Primary circular reactions.
C. Secondary circular reactions.
D. Coordination of secondary schemes.
Answer: D
Rationale: Object permanence typically develops during the coordination of secondary schemes stage, around 8-12 months of age.
When assessing an infant’s growth, the nurse understands that quantitative growth includes:
A. Increases in physical abilities like crawling.
B. Increases in physical size, such as height and weight.
C. Development of trust.
D. Development of motor coordination.
Answer: B
Rationale: Quantitative growth refers to physical increases in size, such as height and weight measurements.
A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to parents of a 6-month-old infant. Which advice should the nurse prioritize?
A. Promote language development by speaking to the infant often.
B. Start discipline practices to teach obedience.
C. Begin preparing the child for toilet training.
D. Restrict the child’s physical activity for safety.
Answer: A
Rationale: Speaking to the infant supports language development, which is appropriate guidance for parents of a 6-month-old.
Infants learn to grasp objects through reflexes. This development is categorized under which type of growth?
A. Physical growth.
B. Cognitive development.
C. Psychosocial development.
D. Social development.
Answer: B
Rationale: Infants learn and adapt reflexes through cognitive development, which is essential for early learning and interaction.
Which factor is most likely to negatively impact an infant’s developmental progression?
A. Daily interaction with family.
B. Adequate nutrition.
C. Maternal smoking during pregnancy.
D. Use of age-appropriate toys.
Answer: C
Rationale: Maternal smoking during pregnancy can impair fetal and infant development due to exposure to harmful substances.
A 2-month-old infant is brought in for a routine check-up. Which physical growth milestone would the nurse assess as appropriate for this age?
A. Sitting with minimal support.
B. Rolling over from back to abdomen.
C. Smiling in response to social interactions.
D. Pulling to stand.
Answer: C
Rationale: A social smile is typical of a 2-month-old as they begin responding to social interactions.
The nurse is teaching parents about proximodistal development. Which description is accurate?
A. Development occurs from the head down.
B. Development occurs from the center of the body outward.
C. Fine motor skills develop before gross motor skills.
D. Physical and cognitive skills develop simultaneously.
Answer: B
Rationale: Proximodistal development refers to growth and development that progresses from the center of the body outward to the extremities.
A pediatric nurse is explaining mutual interaction to new parents. Which statement best explains this concept?
A. The infant’s development is solely determined by genetics.
B. Social interactions have no effect on developmental milestones.
C. The infant’s growth rate is uniform across all children.
D. The child’s development results from interactions with their environment.
Answer: D
Rationale: Mutual interaction emphasizes the influence of the environment on a child’s development, supporting a balance of nature and nurture.
When providing care for infants, a nurse recognizes that which intervention is key in promoting trust according to Erikson’s developmental stage?
A. Feeding and providing clean clothing.
B. Limiting contact with the infant to avoid dependency.
C. Providing structured and strict routines.
D. Encouraging independent play without caregiver interaction.
Answer: A
Rationale: Providing consistent, reliable care, such as feeding and clothing, helps infants develop trust in their caregivers.
Which infant reflex supports cognitive development through interaction with the environment?
A. Rooting reflex.
B. Moro reflex.
C. Grasp reflex.
D. Stepping reflex.
Answer: C
Rationale: The grasp reflex allows infants to interact with objects and their surroundings, facilitating early cognitive learning through exploration.
According to Erikson’s theory, the primary developmental task for an infant is:
A. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt.
B. Initiative vs. Guilt.
C. Trust vs. Mistrust.
D. Industry vs. Inferiority.
Answer: C
Rationale: Erikson’s stage for infants (birth to 1 year) is Trust vs. Mistrust, where consistent care helps the infant develop trust.
The nurse understands that the development of object permanence in an infant occurs during which stage of Piaget’s theory?
A. Reflexive stage.
B. Primary circular reactions.
C. Secondary circular reactions.
D. Coordination of secondary schemes.
Answer: D
Rationale: Object permanence develops during the coordination of secondary schemes stage (8-12 months), as the infant begins to understand that objects exist even when out of sight.
An infant who can sit without support is displaying which type of growth?
A. Quantitative growth.
B. Qualitative growth.
C. Cephalocaudal development.
D. Proximodistal development.
Answer: B
Rationale: Sitting without support reflects qualitative growth, indicating an increase in the infant’s physical capabilities.
A nurse assessing a 4-month-old infant would expect to find which milestone?
A. Rolls from abdomen to back.
B. Pulls to a standing position.
C. Sits without support.
D. Begins to walk.
Answer: A
Rationale: By around 4 months, infants typically start rolling from abdomen to back as part of their gross motor development.
According to Piaget, which stage is characterized by infants repeating actions to elicit responses from their environment?
A. Reflexive stage.
B. Primary circular reactions.
C. Secondary circular reactions.
D. Coordination of secondary schemes.
Answer: C
Rationale: In the secondary circular reactions stage (4-8 months), infants start repeating actions to receive a response, developing early problem-solving skills.
Which factor most strongly influences an infant’s early developmental process?
A. Nutritional intake only.
B. Interaction between genetics and the environment.
C. The infant’s birth weight.
D. Parental occupation.
Answer: B
Rationale: Both genetic factors and environmental influences (nature and nurture) play essential roles in an infant’s growth and development.
A nurse should expect an infant to start recognizing familiar voices and sounds at which age?
A. 3 month.
B. 1 month.
C. 6 months.
D. 10 months.
Answer: A
Rationale: By 3 months, infants typically start recognizing familiar voices and sounds, which is part of early sensory development.
When educating parents about their infant’s motor skill development, the nurse explains that proximodistal development refers to:?
A. Development from head to toe.
B. Development from the center of the body outward.
C. Development of language before movement.
D. Simultaneous growth in all motor skills.
Answer: B
Rationale: Proximodistal development describes how motor skills and coordination progress from the center of the body outward to the extremities.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for promoting psychosocial attachment in an infant?
A. Providing ample alone time.
B. Encouraging frequent physical and sensory contact.
C. Minimizing interaction to avoid overstimulation.
D. Encouraging early independence.
Answer: B
Rationale: Physical and sensory interaction with caregivers supports healthy attachment, which is critical in psychosocial development during infancy.
A nurse encourages a mother to speak frequently to her infant. This advice is intended to promote:
A. Physical growth.
B. Autonomy.
C. Gross motor skills.
D. Language and cognitive development.
Answer: D
Rationale: Talking to infants stimulates language acquisition and cognitive development, helping them recognize and eventually mimic sounds.
The nurse is preparing anticipatory guidance for the parents of a 6-month-old. Which recommendation is appropriate?
A. Begin potty training.
B. Encourage the infant to sleep independently through the night.
C. Offer toys that encourage grasping and hand coordination.
D. Provide solid food like raw vegetables.
Answer: C
Rationale: At around 6 months, infants develop better hand coordination and benefit from toys that encourage grasping, enhancing fine motor skills.
An infant learning to suck, swallow, and breathe rhythmically is demonstrating which type of development?
A. Psychosocial.
B. Physical.
C. Cognitive.
D. Social.
Answer: B
Rationale: The coordination of sucking, swallowing, and breathing is a physical development milestone, essential for feeding and nutrition.
To foster trust in an infant, according to Erikson, a nurse should prioritize:
A. Providing food only on a strict schedule.
B. Allowing the infant to cry to develop independence.
C. Promptly responding to the infant’s basic needs.
D. Limiting touch to avoid dependency.
Answer: C
Rationale: Consistently responding to an infant’s needs, such as feeding, changing, and comfort, helps develop a sense of trust.
During an infant’s cognitive development, what is the significance of the grasp reflex?
A. It serves only to secure objects in the hand.
B. It has no role in cognitive development.
C. It initiates early environmental interaction, essential for learning.
D. It is only important for physical strength.
Answer: C
Rationale: The grasp reflex enables the infant to interact with objects and their environment, forming a foundation for exploration and learning.
According to Erikson’s theory, the primary developmental task for toddlers (1-3 years) is:
A. Trust vs. Mistrust.
B. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt.
C. Initiative vs. Guilt.
D. Industry vs. Inferiority.
Answer: B
Rationale: Toddlers are in Erikson’s Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage, where they begin developing independence and self-control.
When assessing language development, the nurse expects a 3-year-old toddler to:
A. Use complete sentences with advanced vocabulary.
B. Use around 1000 words and form short sentences.
C. Speak in one-word phrases only.
D. Mostly use gestures instead of words.
Answer: B
Rationale: By the end of toddlerhood, most children have a vocabulary of about 1000 words and can use short sentences.
Which strategy should a nurse use when communicating with a toddler?
A. Offer choices even when none are available.
B. Use complex sentences to explain procedures.
C. Give short, clear instructions and allow choices when possible.
D. Tell the toddler about the procedure well in advance.
Answer: C
Rationale: Short, clear instructions and offering limited choices help toddlers feel a sense of control and reduce anxiety.
In which stage of Piaget’s cognitive development are toddlers?
A. Sensorimotor.
B. Preoperational.
C. Concrete Operational.
D. Formal Operational.
Answer: B
Rationale: Toddlers transition into the Preoperational stage, characterized by rudimentary problem-solving and beginning symbolic thinking.
A preschool child interprets a nurse’s statement about a “shot” literally and becomes frightened. This response reflects which characteristic of preschoolers’ thinking?
A. Abstract reasoning.
B. Literal interpretation.
C. Conservation.
D. Hypothetical thinking.
Answer: B
Rationale: Preschool children interpret language literally, so statements about medical procedures should be carefully phrased to avoid fear.
Kohlberg’s preconventional stage of moral development for toddlers and preschoolers emphasizes:
A. Following rules to avoid punishment.
B. Acting based on ethical principles.
C. Seeking approval from society.
D. Making decisions independently.
Answer: A
Rationale: In Kohlberg’s preconventional stage (ages 4-7), children act to avoid punishment and seek approval from others.
Which nursing intervention best supports autonomy in a toddler during hospitalization?
A. Avoiding any choices to prevent confusion.
B. Allowing the toddler to choose between two different juices after taking medicine.
C. Performing procedures without explaining to save time.
D. Telling the toddler to sit still and not ask questions.
Answer: B
Rationale: Allowing simple choices fosters autonomy and gives the toddler a sense of control within safe boundaries.
A nurse preparing a toddler for a procedure should:
A. Use detailed medical terminology.
B. Encourage the toddler to watch another child undergoing the same procedure.
C. Allow the toddler to handle medical equipment to understand the procedure.
D. Avoid explaining the procedure until just before it begins.
Answer: D
Rationale: Providing information just before the procedure minimizes anxiety, as toddlers have a limited concept of time.
By the end of the preschool years, a child’s vocabulary typically expands to:
A. 500 words.
B. 1000 words.
C. Over 2000 words.
D. 10,000 words.
Answer: C
Rationale: Preschool children typically have a vocabulary of over 2000 words, allowing them to communicate more complex ideas.
A toddler becomes upset after seeing a small scratch on their skin, insisting on a bandage. This behavior reflects:
A. A fear of infection.
B. A belief in the importance of hygiene.
C. A need for reassurance that their body is intact.
D. An understanding of injury severity.
Answer: C
Rationale: Toddlers often fear that their body is “broken” and find comfort in bandages, which reassure them that their body is whole.
To enhance cooperation, a nurse should involve which approach when working with a preschooler?
A. Use concrete objects or drawings to explain procedures.
B. Avoid asking the child questions.
C. Use complex explanations for each step.
D. Allow the child’s siblings to perform the procedure on them.
Answer: A
Rationale: Using concrete examples, such as drawings or objects, helps preschoolers understand explanations and feel more comfortable.
The nurse understands that in the Preoperational stage, toddlers and preschoolers struggle with which concept?
A. Cause and effect.
B. Object permanence.
C. Conservation.
D. Symbolic thinking.
Answer: C
Rationale: Children in the Preoperational stage often do not grasp conservation, the idea that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape or container.
A 2-year-old child frequently says “no” and insists on doing things independently. This behavior is best described as:
A. Neglectful.
B. Developmentally appropriate.
C. Spoiled.
D. Indicative of a behavioral disorder.
Answer: B
Rationale: Toddlers often show independence and “negativism” as part of their developmental task of gaining autonomy.
To ease a preschooler’s anxiety before a procedure, the nurse should:
A. Avoid explaining the procedure to avoid frightening the child.
B. Offer a short explanation and let the child handle some of the equipment.
C. Explain the procedure in detailed, scientific terms.
D. Involve only the parents in the explanation.
Answer: B
Rationale: Simple explanations and letting the preschooler handle non-threatening equipment help reduce anxiety and foster understanding.
When working with a frightened toddler, which social learning technique might the nurse use to promote cooperation?
A. Modeling behavior with another child.
B. Negative reinforcement.
C. Delayed gratification.
D. Giving complex instructions.
Answer: A
Rationale: According to social learning theory, toddlers are more likely to cooperate if they observe other children calmly undergoing a procedure.
According to Erikson’s developmental theory, the primary task of adolescence is:
A. Trust vs. Mistrust.
B. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt.
C. Identity vs. Role Confusion.
D. Initiative vs. Guilt.
Answer: C
Rationale: Adolescents are in Erikson’s Identity vs. Role Confusion stage, where they work on developing a clear sense of self and identity.
An adolescent’s ability to think abstractly and consider alternative outcomes aligns with which stage of Piaget’s cognitive development theory?
A. Sensorimotor.
B. Preoperational.
C. Concrete Operational.
D. Formal Operational.
Answer: D
Rationale: Piaget’s Formal Operational stage, beginning around age 11, is characterized by abstract thinking and the ability to consider hypothetical outcomes.
When providing health education to an adolescent, the nurse should:
A. Rely solely on verbal explanations.
B. Use only written instructions.
C. Provide both verbal and written explanations.
D. Explain topics only in the presence of a parent.
Answer: C
Rationale: Adolescents benefit from both verbal and written instructions to support comprehension and retention of information.
In Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, adolescents are typically in the:
A. Postconventional stage.
B. Conventional stage.
C. Preconventional stage.
D. Ethical stage.
Answer: A
Rationale: Adolescents (12+ years) are in the postconventional stage, where moral reasoning is based on abstract principles and ethical values.
A 15-year-old asks the nurse about managing diabetes while eating out with friends. The nurse’s best response is to:
A. Suggest the adolescent avoid dining out.
B. Emphasize that eating out should be limited.
C. Encourage them to explore options and talk about common strategies.
D. Involve the parents in creating a strict eating plan.
Answer: C
Rationale: Exploring options allows the adolescent to feel understood and encourages autonomy in managing health while maintaining a social life.
During a health assessment, the nurse notes the adolescent’s use of slang and colloquial language. The nurse should:
A. Discourage this language to promote professionalism.
B. Allow it as part of adolescent identity and communication.
C. Only respond using formal language.
D. Correct the adolescent to improve their vocabulary.
Answer: B
Rationale: Slang and colloquial language are typical for adolescents and reflect their social identity and peer influences.
Which communication strategy is most effective for a nurse working with an adolescent?
A. Speaking directly to the parents to ensure understanding.
B. Using open-ended questions and allowing for privacy.
C. Avoiding topics related to peers.
D. Emphasizing risks without providing detailed explanations.
Answer: B
Rationale: Open-ended questions and providing privacy help adolescents feel respected and more comfortable discussing sensitive topics.
The nurse is discussing STI prevention with a 16-year-old. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. “Condom use is essential for reducing STI risk. Do you have questions?”“
B. “Only talk about this with your parents.”
C. “You should avoid all sexual encounters.”
D. “Most teens don’t have to worry about STIs.”
Answer: A
Rationale: Providing factual, age-appropriate information on STI prevention empowers adolescents to make informed decisions about their health.
The nurse notes that an adolescent is increasingly focused on peer relationships. This behavior is consistent with which psychosocial need?
A. Isolation.
B. Identity development.
C. Avoidance of social interaction.
D. Dependence on family for approval.
Answer: B
Rationale: Peer relationships are essential during adolescence as they help in forming identity and gaining social skills independent of the family.
During an education session, the nurse explains that adolescents are at higher risk for STIs. This is primarily due to:
A. Lack of interest in sexual health.
B. Low levels of sexual activity.
C. High-risk behaviors and inconsistent use of protection.
D. Early and comprehensive sexual education.
Answer: C
Rationale: Adolescents may engage in high-risk sexual behaviors and inconsistent condom use, increasing the risk of STIs.
An adolescent is concerned about body image. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
A. Encourage discussions about healthy self-image.
B. Avoid discussing the topic to prevent discomfort.
C. Emphasize dieting to improve body image.
D. Direct all questions to their parents.
Answer: A
Rationale: Open discussions can help adolescents develop a healthy self-image and feel more positive about their physical changes.
Which behavior is characteristic of adolescents in the formal operational stage of cognitive development?
A. Engaging only in concrete thinking.
B. Avoiding hypothetical questions.
C. Thinking about idealism and complex moral issues.
D. Being limited to problem-solving with direct instructions.
Answer: C
Rationale: Adolescents in the formal operational stage develop the ability to think about ideals, hypothetical scenarios, and complex moral issues.
When discussing sexuality with an adolescent, the nurse should:
A. Avoid the topic to respect privacy.
B. Provide information on healthy relationships and safe practices.
C. Wait until the adolescent initiates the conversation.
D. Only discuss abstinence as a safe option.
Answer: B
Rationale: Providing comprehensive information helps adolescents make informed decisions regarding relationships and sexual health.
To facilitate effective communication with an adolescent, the nurse should:
A. Rely solely on factual information without peer discussion.
B. Arrange peer group discussions to provide shared experiences.
C. Avoid talking about peer influence.
D. Discuss topics only with the parents present.
Answer: B
Rationale: Peer group discussions allow adolescents to relate to others with similar experiences, supporting social learning and acceptance.
An adolescent with diabetes is hesitant to administer insulin in front of friends. The nurse should:
A. Emphasize the importance of administering insulin immediately without consideration of location.
B. Insist they do it publicly to avoid secrecy.
C. Suggest that they avoid outings to simplify diabetes management.
D. Encourage the adolescent to practice self-care privately if preferred
Answer: D
Rationale: Supporting the adolescent’s preference for privacy can help them feel more comfortable managing their condition while maintaining social interactions.
A nurse is educating a family about car seat safety for their newborn. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A) “We should place the car seat in the rear-facing position in the back seat.”
B) “The car seat harness should be snug and at or below the infant’s shoulders.”
C) “It’s fine to use a secondhand car seat without checking its history.”
D) “The seat should not move more than 1 inch side-to-side when installed.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Secondhand car seats should only be used if the history is verified and it has not been in an accident.
The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old during a well-baby visit. Which milestone should the nurse expect?
A) Rolling from back to stomach
B) Standing without assistance
C) Saying two to three words
D) Using a pincer grasp
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rolling from back to stomach typically occurs by 6 months, while standing independently and other options develop later.
During a health teaching session, a parent asks about introducing solid foods. What is the nurse’s best response?
A) “You can introduce all foods at once to save time.”
B) “Introduce one new food every few days to monitor for allergies.”
C) “Start with fruits to encourage sweetness preference.”
D) “Avoid rice cereal due to allergy risks.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Introducing one food at a time allows for allergy detection.
A 9-month-old infant presents with anemia. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A) Encourage breastfeeding only.
B) Recommend iron-fortified formula and iron-rich solid foods.
C) Delay solid foods until 12 months.
D) Increase daily milk intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Iron-rich foods and fortified formula address anemia in infants.
What is the recommended age for a baby’s first dental visit?
A) At 6 months of age
B) By 12 months of age
C) When the first tooth erupts
D) By 2 years of age
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first dental visit should occur within 6 months of the first tooth eruption or by 12 months.
The nurse observes a parent allowing their infant to fall asleep with a bottle in the crib. What should the nurse teach the parent?
A) “This helps your baby sleep better.”
B) “This practice can lead to early childhood caries.”
C) “It is safe as long as the bottle contains water.”
D) “Infants need a bottle to self-soothe.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bottle feeding during sleep increases the risk of dental caries.
A parent asks how to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). What is the nurse’s best response?
A) “Let your baby sleep on their stomach.”
B) “Avoid using a pacifier at bedtime.”
C) “Avoid supervised tummy time.”
D) “Place your baby on their back to sleep.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Placing infants on their back to sleep reduces SIDS risk.
During a home visit, a nurse sees an infant playing with a small object. What should the nurse advise the parent?
A) “Ensure toys are large enough to avoid choking hazards.”
B) “It’s okay if the infant is supervised.”
C) “Choking hazards only apply to older children.”
D) “Provide toys with small detachable parts.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Infants explore by mouthing objects, increasing choking risks.
The nurse is educating parents about the developmental benefits of tummy time. Which statement by the parents indicates understanding?
A) “It strengthens neck and shoulder muscles.”
B) “It increases the risk of flat head syndrome.”
C) “It helps my baby learn to walk sooner.”
D) “Tummy time is unsafe at all ages.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tummy time promotes muscle development and reduces flat head syndrome.
A nurse is assessing bonding between a mother and her newborn. Which behavior indicates effective bonding?
A) Mother responds to the baby’s cues promptly.
B) Mother avoids holding the baby frequently.
C) Mother lets the baby cry unattended for long periods.
D) Mother frequently leaves the baby in the crib.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prompt response to cues demonstrates secure bonding.
A parent is concerned about their 10-month-old’s stranger anxiety. What is the appropriate nurse response?
A) “Your child should not show fear of strangers.”
B) “This is a normal developmental milestone.”
C) “Stranger anxiety suggests social deficits.”
D) “Avoid exposing your child to new people.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stranger anxiety is common in older infants.
Question: What is the primary goal of injury prevention in infants?
A) To monitor sleep patterns
B) To avoid early childhood dental visits
C) To reduce accidental injuries from crawling to walking
D) To encourage independent exploration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: As infants become mobile, injury prevention is essential.
At what age should an infant start consuming protein sources like tofu, cheese, or slivers of meat?
A) 6 months
B) 9 months
C) 12 months
D) 18 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 9 months, proteins are gradually introduced alongside continued breastfeeding or formula.
Which finding during a physical assessment of a 6-month-old requires further evaluation?
A) Presence of two teeth
B) Inability to sit with support
C) Rolling from back to front
D) Responding to own name
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: By 6 months, most infants can sit with support.
A nurse observes a family feeding an infant honey. What action should the nurse take?
A) Document and discharge the family.
B) Educate the family about the risk of infant botulism.
C) Encourage frequent honey feeding for nutrition.
D) Recommend mixing honey with formula.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Honey is not recommended for infants under 1 year due to botulism risk.
At what age should head circumference measurement typically stop during routine assessments?
A) 12 months
B) 18 months
C) 24 months
D) 36 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Head circumference is measured until age 2, after which height and weight become the primary focus.
A nurse is educating parents on developmental milestones for a 3-year-old. Which milestone should the nurse emphasize?
A) Hopping on one foot
B) Speaking in three- to four-word sentences
C) Riding a bicycle
D) Writing their name
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: By age 3, toddlers typically develop the ability to speak in simple sentences.
A parent asks about transitioning their 2-year-old to a different type of milk. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) “Switch to whole milk until age 4.”
B) “You can switch to low-fat or skim milk now.”
C) “Keep using formula until age 3.”
D) “It’s too early to stop breastfeeding.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At age 2, low-fat or skim milk is appropriate if the family desires.
What is the recommended daily juice intake for a toddler to prevent excessive sugar consumption?
A) 2-3 ounces
B) 4-6 ounces
C) 8-10 ounces
D) No juice at all
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Limiting juice to 4-6 ounces helps prevent overconsumption of sugars.
Which activity is most appropriate to encourage gross motor skill development in a 2-year-old?
A) Drawing with crayons
B) Throwing a ball
C) Building with blocks
D) Matching shapes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gross motor skills involve large muscle activities such as throwing a ball.
A nurse is discussing toy safety with parents of a toddler. Which toy would be appropriate?
A) A toy with small detachable parts
B) A doll with a 10-inch string
C) A large foam puzzle
D) A battery-powered robot for ages 6+
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Large toys without small parts or strings are safest for toddlers.
When should a child first visit the dentist?
A) At 6 months
B) By 1 year
C) At 2 years
D) When the first cavity develops
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A dental visit is recommended within 6 months of the first tooth eruption or by age 1.
The nurse is teaching a parent about thumb-sucking. At what age does thumb-sucking begin to pose a risk to dental health?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 4 years
D) 6 years
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thumb-sucking becomes a concern when permanent teeth begin to erupt, around age 6.
A nurse is advising a parent on effective discipline techniques for a 2-year-old. What strategy should the nurse recommend?
A) Explain consequences of actions in detail
B) Use distraction and redirection for undesirable behaviors
C) Use time-outs lasting 10 minutes
D) Ignore tantrums entirely
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Distraction and redirection are effective for toddlers, who have limited understanding of consequences.
A parent reports frequent biting incidents in their toddler. What should the nurse recommend?
A) Use physical punishment to stop the behavior
B) Ignore the behavior
C) Clearly explain that biting is unacceptable and use time-outs
D) Avoid social interactions with other children
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Setting clear boundaries and using time-outs help address behavioral issues like biting.
How many hours of sleep should a preschooler typically get each night?
A) 6 to 8 hours
B) 8 to 9 hours
C) 9 to 11 hours
D) 12 to 14 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Preschoolers generally need 9 to 11 hours of sleep.
A parent is concerned about their preschooler’s nightmares. What advice should the nurse provide?
A) Encourage the child to sleep in the parent’s bed
B) Avoid discussing the nightmare in the morning
C) Maintain a consistent bedtime routine
D) Wake the child frequently to prevent nightmares
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A consistent bedtime routine helps reduce sleep disturbances.
During a well-child visit, the nurse should prioritize which screening for a 4-year-old?
A) Hearing and vision
B) Lead poisoning
C) Hemoglobin levels
D) Bone density
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vision and hearing screenings are critical for preschoolers to detect developmental delays.
Which car safety practice is appropriate for a 3-year-old?
A) Use of a booster seat in the front seat
B) Forward-facing car seat with a five-point harness
C) Rear-facing car seat
D) No car seat if the child is over 40 pounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A forward-facing car seat with a five-point harness is recommended for toddlers and preschoolers.
A parent of a toddler asks how to prevent accidental poisoning. What advice should the nurse give?
A) Store cleaning products on a low shelf for easy access
B) Use childproof locks on cabinets containing chemicals
C) Teach the child not to touch harmful substances
D) Avoid labeling containers to discourage curiosity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Childproof locks are an effective way to prevent accidental poisoning.
A nurse is conducting a well-child visit for an 8-year-old. Which of the following assessments is the highest priority?
A. Puberty education
B. Measuring height and weight, and plotting on a growth chart
C. Assessing for acne
D. Screening for scoliosis
Answer: B
When educating parents of school-age children about nutrition, the nurse should emphasize which of the following?
A. Include five servings of fruits and vegetables daily.
B. Skipping breakfast is acceptable if the child eats a larger lunch.
C. Avoid high-protein snacks to prevent obesity.
D. Juice is an acceptable replacement for water.
Answer: A
10-year-old patient reports having trouble falling asleep at night. The nurse should recommend:
A. Encouraging the child to nap during the day.
B. Keeping the lights and TV on during bedtime.
C. Offering a high-sugar snack before bed.
D. Allowing the child to take charge of bedtime routines with reminders.
Answer: D
A school nurse is educating students on physical activity. What is an important point to include?
A. Exercise should always be supervised by an adult.
B. Activities should be enjoyable and appropriate to the child’s interests and abilities.
C. Physical activity is unnecessary if the child is not overweight.
D. Avoid group sports to reduce risk of injuries.
Answer: B
During a routine assessment, the nurse notes the first permanent molars in a 7-year-old. The nurse should document this finding as:
A. A developmental delay
B. A normal developmental milestone
C. A sign of malnutrition
D. Early onset puberty
Answer: B
The parents of a school-age child express concern about the child’s lack of interest in eating vegetables. Which strategy should the nurse suggest?
A. Introduce vegetables in fun and creative ways.
B. Offer rewards for eating vegetables.
C. Punish the child for refusing vegetables.
D. Remove all other foods until the child eats vegetables.
Answer: A
What is the most appropriate way to answer school-age children’s questions about sexuality?
A. Provide detailed information from a medical textbook.
B. Avoid the topic unless directly asked by the child.
C. Provide truthful, age-appropriate answers.
D. Encourage them to seek information from their peers.
Answer: C
A nurse is teaching a 9-year-old about proper oral hygiene. Which recommendation is correct?
A. Flossing is unnecessary at this age.
B. Brush twice a day and visit the dentist every 6 months.
C. Avoid brushing teeth if braces are worn.
D. Replace the toothbrush every 3 months or less.
Answer: B
A nurse is assessing the body image of a school-age child. Which observation is most concerning?
A. The child prefers baggy clothing.
B. The child appears insecure and avoids eye contact.
C. The child asks about fashion trends.
D. The child is interested in personal grooming.
Answer: B
Parents report their 11-year-old has started sleepwalking. How should the nurse respond?
A. This is abnormal and requires immediate medical evaluation.
B. Sleepwalking is normal at this age and often resolves by adolescence.
C. Ensure the child naps during the day to reduce nighttime episodes.
D. Keep bright lights on during sleep to prevent sleepwalking.
Answer: B
During a family assessment, the nurse learns that the parents recently separated. What is the nurse’s priority?
A. Assess the child’s understanding of the separation and provide support.
B. Refer the child to a mental health professional immediately.
C. Notify child protective services.
D. Discuss legal implications with the parents.
Answer: A
Which is an effective strategy to promote healthy physical activity in school-age children?
A. Encourage video game-based fitness programs.
B. Suggest daily activities, such as walking a dog or riding a bike.
C. Require at least 2 hours of gym class daily.
D. Focus only on sports-based activities.
Answer: B
During a well-child visit, the nurse finds the BMI of a 10-year-old in the 95th percentile. What is the most appropriate action?
A. Suggest the child skips one meal daily.
B. Refer to a pediatric dietitian for weight management.
C. Emphasize reducing all carbohydrates from the diet.
D. Increase protein consumption to replace fats.
Answer: B
Parents of a 9-year-old ask about preparing their child for puberty. What is the best response?
A. Explain puberty typically begins after age 13.
B. Avoid discussing sexuality to preserve innocence.
C. Delay discussions until physical changes are noticeable.
D. Encourage honest, age-appropriate conversations about bodily changes.
Answer: D
What is the nurse’s priority when promoting mental and spiritual health in school-age children?
A. Encourage the development of new skills to foster self-esteem
B. .Ensure the child participates in religious activities.
C. Focus on academic achievements above all else.
D. Limit peer interactions to prevent negative influences.
Answer: A
During a health promotion visit with a 14-year-old, the nurse observes the adolescent requesting privacy during the physical exam. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Require a parent to be present for legal reasons.
B. Respect the adolescent’s request for privacy while reassuring the parent they can discuss findings afterward.
C. Insist that the parent and adolescent discuss the decision together.
D. Dismiss the parent’s presence only for specific exams like STI testing.
Answer: B
A nurse is educating a group of adolescents on nutrition. Which advice should be emphasized to promote optimal health?
A. Focus solely on protein to support growth spurts.
B. Avoid any high-calorie foods to prevent obesity.
C. Balance meals with fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins.
D. Skip breakfast if they eat a larger lunch or dinner.
Answer: C
A 16-year-old athlete reports excessive exercise and dieting to maintain their weight for sports. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
A. Advise the adolescent to consume energy drinks during practice.
B. Refer them to a personal trainer for specialized advice.
C. Encourage them to increase exercise to maintain fitness.
D.Assess for signs of eating disorders or other health risks.
Answer: D
The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old’s mental health during a routine visit. What finding is most concerning?
A. Difficulty setting goals for the future.
B. Gaining independence from parents.
C. Forming strong peer relationships.
D. Increased confidence in personal accomplishments.
Answer: A
During an adolescent’s physical exam, the nurse notes the need for scoliosis screening. What is the purpose of this screening?
A. To detect potential respiratory issues.
B. To monitor musculoskeletal development during growth spurts.
C. To evaluate cardiovascular health.
D. To identify early signs of osteoporosis.
Answer: B
Which recommendation is most appropriate for promoting oral health in a 15-year-old?
A. Discontinue fluoride use after age 14.
B. Visit the dentist only if dental pain occurs.
C. Brush and floss teeth daily and attend dental checkups every 6 months.
D. Focus on dental care only if braces are present.
Answer: C
The nurse is discussing sleep hygiene with a group of high school students. Which statement indicates a need for further education?
A. “I should get about 9 hours of sleep each night.”
B. “I feel fine with just 6 hours of sleep because I drink coffee.”
C. “My body’s melatonin levels may make it harder for me to fall asleep early.”
D. “Not getting enough sleep might make it hard to concentrate in school.”
Answer: B
A nurse is providing injury prevention education to a group of adolescents. What should the nurse include as a major risk for adolescent drivers?
A. Lack of access to proper driving lessons.
B. Poor vehicle maintenance habits.
C. Overconfidence due to driving experience.
D. Frequent texting or distractions while driving.
Answer: D
During a health promotion visit, a nurse is screening for mental health issues in a 13-year-old. What question is most effective in assessing depression risk?
A. “Have you had any issues with school grades recently?”
B. “Do you have any problems getting along with your family?”
C. “Have you ever felt so sad that it’s hard to do your usual activities?”
D. “Do you avoid physical activities because you are tired?”
Answer: C
The nurse notices that less than half of the teens in a school participate in physical education classes. What is the best intervention to promote physical activity?
A. Advocate for mandatory PE classes throughout high school.
B. Suggest individual activities, such as yoga or walking.
C. Focus on team sports to encourage participation.
D. Require students to perform at least one hour of intense exercise daily.
Answer: A
A nurse is counseling a 15-year-old who wants to lose weight rapidly through a crash diet. What is the most appropriate response?
A. “Crash diets are the best way to achieve quick results.”
B. “It’s healthier to set realistic goals and focus on balanced meals.”
C. “You can try skipping meals to reduce calorie intake.”
D. “Dieting is unnecessary because all teens eventually outgrow extra weight.”
Answer: B
What is the most important disease prevention strategy for adolescents?
A. Screening for smoking, alcohol use, and depression.
B. Avoiding social gatherings.
C. Immunizations against childhood illnesses.
D. Avoiding all physical activities to reduce injury risks.
Answer: A
A nurse is conducting a lipid screening for a 16-year-old with a family history of cardiovascular disease. Which finding requires follow-up?
A. Total cholesterol of 150 mg/dL
B. HDL cholesterol of 30 mg/dL
C. LDL cholesterol of 90 mg/dL
D. Triglycerides of 140 mg/dL
Answer: B
An adolescent patient confides in the nurse about peer pressure to drink alcohol. What is the best nursing action?
A. Report the information directly to the parents.
B. Discuss strategies to resist peer pressure and make safe choices.
C. Encourage the adolescent to avoid discussing this topic with adults.
D. Minimize the risk and suggest moderation.
Answer: B
A parent expresses concern about their teenager striking out at them during arguments. What advice should the nurse provide?
A. Punish the teen for any rebellious behavior.
B. Avoid all communication until the teen’s behavior improves.
C. Allow the teen complete independence to avoid conflicts.
D.Reward positive behaviors to encourage a healthy relationship.
Answer: D
Industry vs. Inferiority age range…
(6 to 11 years)
What is the normal respiratory rate range for a newborn?
A) 20-30 breaths per minute
B) 30-60 breaths per minute
C) 60-80 breaths per minute
D) 80-100 breaths per minute
Answer: B) 30-60 breaths per minute
A 3-month-old infant has a heart rate of 155 beats per minute. This is:
A) Too low
B) Too high
C) Within normal range
D) Requires immediate intervention
Answer: C) Within normal range
When assessing an infant’s temperature, which method is most commonly used?
A) Axillary
B) Rectal
C) Oral
D) Tympanic
Answer: A) Axillary
What is the normal systolic blood pressure range for a newborn?
A) >60 mmHg
B) >70 mmHg
C) >80 mmHg
D) >90 mmHg
Answer: A) >60 mmHg
How long should a nurse count respirations in a newborn?
A) 15 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 45 seconds
D) 60 seconds
Answer: D) 60 seconds
A 6-month-old infant has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute. This is:
A) Below normal range
B) Within normal range
C) Above normal range
D) Requires immediate intervention
Answer: B) Within normal range
What is the normal temperature range for a newborn?
A) 95.5-97.3°F (35.3-36.3°C)
B) 97.5-99.3°F (36.4-37.4°C)
C) 99.5-101.3°F (37.5-38.5°C)
D) 101.5-103.3°F (38.6-39.6°C)
Answer: B) 97.5-99.3°F (36.4-37.4°C)
When assessing heart rate in a newborn, which method is preferred?
A) Radial pulse
B) Carotid pulse
C) Brachial pulse
D) Apical pulse
Answer: D) Apical pulse
What is the normal head circumference range for a newborn?
A) 23-28 cm
B) 28-33 cm
C) 33-38 cm
D) 38-43 cm
Answer: C) 33-38 cm
A 2-month-old infant has a heart rate of 95 beats per minute while sleeping. This is:
A) Too low
B) Too highRequires immediate intervention
C) Within normal range
D) Too high
Answer: B) Within normal range
