1st Credit Test Flashcards

1
Q

The wavelength used for spectrometric analysis of ELISA tests is dependent on the used:

A

Substrate

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2
Q

In an indirect ELISA for testing of antibody, the intensity of colour measured after adding the substrate in the final step is directly proportional to the concentration of:

A

Antibodies in the patient serum

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3
Q

In ELISA tests substrate is used for:

A

Visualisation of the reaction

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4
Q

In the sandwich ELISA they have:

A

Labelled antibodies have the same specificity as solid phase bound antibodies

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5
Q

In a blocking ELISA for testing of antibody:

A

Enzyme labelled antibody is added after the first incubation with the serum-containing antibody

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6
Q

In a direct ELISA for testing of antibody, the intensity of color measured after adding the substrate in the final
step is:

A

Inversely proportional to the concentration of antibody in the patient’s serum

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7
Q

For competitive ELISA is NOT used the step:

A

The antigen-antibody mixture is added to an antigen coated well

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8
Q

Which of the following components is for ELISA:

A

Antibody labelled with enzyme

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9
Q

Draw the scheme of sandwich ELISA for detection of antigen:

A
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10
Q

Draw the scheme of blocking ELISA for detection of Ab:

A

Double radial immunodiffusion with antibodies against antigens A and B produced these precipitation lines.If
there is antigen B in well 3, there is antigen [B] in well 2, antigen [A] in well 1, and antigen [B] in well 6.

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11
Q

To create a calibration curve in immunodiffusion tests, we need to know:

A

Antigen concentration and diameter of precipitation rings

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12
Q

Which of the following immunoelectrophoretic is for determination of gammopathies in blood serum?

A

Immunofixation
Classical immunoelectrophoresis

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13
Q

Which of the following immunoelectrophoretic is for quantitative determination of antigen:

A

Rocket immunoelectrophoretic

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14
Q

A positive reaction in a tube agglutination test is:

A

White sediment (with the shape of a dot) on the bottom and a clear supernatant

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15
Q

A negative reaction in a tube agglutination test is:

A

White sediment (with the shape of a dot) on the bottom and a turbid supernatant

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16
Q

Which of the following agglutination assays is for quantitative determination of antibodies?

A

Haemagglutination inhibition test
Tube agglutination

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17
Q

Hemagglutination inhibition test is used:

A

For determination of antibody levels in serum against specific viruses or bacteria

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18
Q

Prozone is:

A

Inability to cause agglutination in excess of antibodies

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19
Q

Visible clumping – agglutination. Agglutination is used to determine presence of antibodies/antigens
Agglutination reaction is a reaction between:

A

Corpuscular Ag and polyclonal Ab

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20
Q

The difference between agglutination and precipitation is in:

A

Size, solubility and location of antigen

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21
Q

In latex agglutination:

A

Latex particle is carrier of antibody or antigen

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22
Q

Draw latex agglutination for detection of antigens:

A
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23
Q

Draw latex agglutination for detection of antibodies:

A
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24
Q

Draw the scheme of precipitin lines for:

A

Reaction of identity
Reaction on partial identity
Reaction of non-identity

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25
The result of a Western blot is evaluated as a change of color:
On the NC membrane
26
Which of the following immunoblotting assays is for detection of protein:
Western blotting
27
The essential steps of Western blotting are:
BSEElectrophoresis, transfer and immunostaining
28
The essential step for Western blotting diagnosis of BSE is:
Treatment of the sample with proteinase K
29
The speed of the movement of molecules during electrophoresis is dependent on:
Molecular mass
30
In electrophoresis individual molecules are separated/divided depending on their:
Total (whole) electric charge and molecular mass
31
Fill in the blanks in the following statements with the most appropriate expression: Blood [x] is prepared by centrifugation of the clotted blood.
Serum
32
Fill in the blanks in the following statements with the most appropriate expression: Blood [x] is prepared by centrifugation of whole blood.
Plasma
33
Serum is obtained after:
Centrifugation of clotted blood
34
Serum inactivation is used to:
Functionally inactivates the complement system
35
To determine a titer of antibodies is used a ............... dilution of serum.
Twofold
36
After serum electrophoresis, immunoglobulins are present in the fraction of:
Gamma globulins
37
The basic immunoglobulin (Ig) unit is composed of:
Two identical heavy and two identical light chains
38
Fill in the blanks in the following statements with the most appropriate expression: Whole blood is used to determine immunoglobulin concentrations using a [x] test.
Glutaraldehyde
39
Fill in the blanks in the following statements with the most appropriate expression: Blood serum is used to determine immunoglobulin concentrations using a [x] test.
Zinc sulphate
40
Gammopathies are diseases characterized by:
Overproduction of defective immunoglobulins
41
SDS (sodium dodecyl sulphate) is used for the preparation of samples for PAGE because of:
Gives the same negative charge to all proteins
42
Polyacrylamide (PAA) gel is prepared by polymerization after:
Pouring of a PAA solution into a cassette created by two glass plates
43
Agarose gel is prepared by:
Boiling of agarose suspension
44
The zone of equivalence is a place, where:
The concentration of antigen is in balance with the concentration of antibodies
45
The preparation of hybridomas requires:
B-lymphocytes from the spleen of immunised mouse and myeloma cells
46
The precipitin band has/is:
A white colour
47
Protein A can bind to:
The Fc region of the antibody
48
What is the characteristic that best defines the acquired immune response?
It exhibits immunological memory
49
Pattern recognition receptors (PRR) include which of the following?
Toll-like receptors
50
A fragment antigen binding (Fab) fragment:
Binds antigen
51
An isolated antigenic determinant that has the ability to react specifically with antibodies but cannot induce their formation is called:
Hapten
52
Hapten is:
An isolated antigenic determinant that can specifically react with antibodies but cannot induce their production is called a hapten. Superantigens are a class of antigens that lead to overactivation of the immune system. In particular, it causes non-specific T-cell activation, leading to polyclonal T-cell activation and massive cytokine release. Allergen is a substance capable of causing an abnormal immune response called an allergy. Antigen is the name for all molecules that stimulatethe immune response.
53
Hapten is:
a. a molecule that is immunogenic by itself but cannot specifically react with adequate antibodies. b. another name for superantigen. c. is immunogenic only if binds to a macromolecular carrier. d. none of the above.
54
The main deficiency of quantitative assays based on precipitation is:
Lack of sensitivity
55
Which of the following immune-diffusion assays is for quantitative determination of antigen:
Single radial immune-diffusion
56
Ouchterlony’s precipitation is used:
Only for determination of antigen or antibody presence
57
Result of immune-precipitation in the gel is visible after at least:
24 h incubation at room temperature
58
Mononuclear cells are:
Monocytes, macrophages and lymphocytes
59
All WBCs Polymorphonuclear cells are:
Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils
60
If we use separating solution for isolation of mononuclear cells, we need:
Gently overlay separating solution with blood and then centrifuge the samples (2500 rpm/15min)
61
Phagocytosis is property of:
Neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages
62
Which immune cells are professional phagocytes?
Neutro, monocytes, macrophages
63
Serological reaction is:
Serology is the scientific study of blood serum and other body fluids. Serological reaction is Ag + Ab → AgAb, antigen binds to the antibody.
64
The titer of an antibody is:
The highest dilution of an antiserum that still react with antigen in serological reactions
65
Which of the following enzymes is NOT for enzyme immunoassays?
Myeloperoxidase Beta-galactosidase
66
Which of the following components is NOT substrate for enzyme immunoassays:
Fluorescein
67
Conjugate is:
Antibody labelled with enzyme
68
Sensitised erythrocytes are:
Erythrocytes labelled antibody (amboceptor)
69
For testing of complement activation is NOT used:
Enzyme labelled antibodies specific to complement
70
Complement fixation test is used for:
Only for determination of antigen or antibody presence
71
In complement fixation test is positive result:
Inhibition of haemolysis of sensitised erythrocytes
72
Number leukocytes we may determinate by counting of cells by:
Microscope and Burker chamber
73
The blood in which we want determinate the number of leukocytes is:
Diluted in Turk solution (1:20)
74
We count the leukocytes:
In 50 medium squares of Burker chamber
75
For checking of viability of cells we may use:
Trypan blue solution
76
The live cells are cells:
Never stained
77
The common characteristic of separating solution for isolation of mononuclear cells is:
Density (1.075-1.0077 g/ml)
78
Which of the following statements is TRUE:
-Lack of generation of bactericidal agents is related with defect in phagocytic function -Lack of receptor for chemotactic factor is related with defect in phagocytic function -Lack of adhesion molecules is related with defect in phagocytic function --All of the above is true
79
Size of the cells in flow cytometer is detected by:
Forward scatter
80
Calculate the phagocytic activity if from 100 counted phagocytes 65 cells have ingested material:
% PHA = (65 / 100) * 100 = 65%
81
What is the main purpose of respiratory burst in phagocytes?
Creation of oxidative radicals which destroy ingested material
82
What is the ratio – blood: H2O : 2.7 % NaCl used for lysis of erythrocytes in the procedure of separation of all leukocytes from whole blood?
1:2:1
83
For evaluation of differential white cell count, the blood smear is stained by:
Pappenheim
84
Granules in eosinophils stained by Pappenheim are:
Red
85
In test for respiratory burst activity in phagocytes tetrazolium salt is:
Reduced into a coloured formazan
86
In indirect Coombs’s test in blood are identified:
Erythrocytes-bound antibodies
87
Immune (immunological) memory is provided by persisting:
Plasma cells
88
Antibody _________ is the strength of the reaction between a single antigenic determinant and a single combining site on the antibody.
Affinity
89
Positive selection of T lymphocytes ensures that:
The T cells that recognize self.MHC molecules are killed
90
Complete the characteristic, HYBRIDOMA is:
B- lymphocytes from the spleen of immunized mouse and myeloma cells. Hybrid cells that results from the fusion of an ab-secreting cell with a malignant cell; the progeny secrete ab without stimulation and proliferate continuously both in vivo and in vitro.
91
Fill in the missing definition; Cytokines that regulate the movement of leukocytes are called:
Interleukins Haemostatic Chemokine
92
Which lymphocytes participate in ADCC?
Natural killer cells