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IT3 test > 1st 50 > Flashcards

1st 50 Flashcards

1
Q

ITU along which other organization details Distress, Urgency and Safety procedures?

A

ICAO

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2
Q

What is the condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminet danger and requiring immediate assistance defined as?

A

Distress

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3
Q

Which condition concerns the security of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance?

A

Urgency

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4
Q

Which type of traffic has absolute priority over all other transmissions?

A

Distress

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5
Q

Which service is between coast stations and ship stations, or between ship stations, in which survival craft stations may also participate?

A

Maritime Mobile Service

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6
Q

Which organization administers the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System?

A

IMO

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7
Q

Which year was the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System fully implemented?

A

1999

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8
Q

Approximately how many nautical miles are GMDSS Area A1 Operational areas from shore based VHF coast stations?

A

20-30

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9
Q

Approximately how many nautical miles are GMDSS Area A1 Operational areas from shore based MF coast Stations?

A

100-150

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10
Q

Which system uses modern technology , including satellite and digital selective calling techniques on MF,HF, and VHF bands, known as terrestrial systems, enabling a distress alert to be transmitted and received automatically over short and long distances?

A

GMDSS

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11
Q

Which procedure comprise all the communications relating to the immediate assistance required by the mobile station in trouble?

A

Distress

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12
Q

Which word when using voice does the distress signal contain

A

MAYDAY

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13
Q

What are the two primary sinusoidal audio frequency tones transmitted alternatively in alarm signals used to warn operators that a distress call or message is to follow?

A

2200 Hz and 1300 Hz

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14
Q

How many seconds is the alarm signal continuously sent to warn operators that a distress call or message is to follow?

A

30-60

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15
Q

Which paging technique is used to automate the initial call between two stations that operates on MF,HF and VHF marine bands for distress, urgency, and safety alerting?

A

DSC

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16
Q

How many times is MAYDAY spoken during a distress call?

A

3

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17
Q

How many times is SOS typed during a distress call using RATT/NDPB?

A

3

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18
Q

Which prosign is used during a distress call using RATT/NDPB

A

DE

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19
Q

What is the International Distress frequency for voice?

A

2182 kHz

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20
Q

What is the International Distress, Safety, and Calling frequency for the maritime mobile VHF radiotelephone service?

A

156.8 MHz

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21
Q

Which signal is used to impose silence either on all stations of the mobile service in the area or on any station which interferes with the distress traffic when using RATT/NDPB

A

QRT SOS

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22
Q

Which frequencies are continously monitored by aeronautical stations for aircrafts in distress?

A

121.5 MHZ and/or 243 MHz

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23
Q

Which signal is used to impose silence either on all stations of the mobile service in the area or on any station which interferes with the distress traffic when using RATT.NDPB?

A

QRT SOS

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24
Q

Which signal indicates that the calling station has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft, or other vehicle, and/or the safety of personnel?

A

PAN PAN

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25
Q

Urgency signals have priority over all other communications except for which other type?

A

Distress

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26
Q

How many times is the group of words PAN PAN transmitted in voice urgency signals?

A

3

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27
Q

Which group of letters is transmitted over RATT three times in urgency signals

A

XXX

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28
Q

Any station that hears the Urgency signal must continue to listen for at least how many minutes?

A

3

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29
Q

Which signal indicates that the station is about to transmit a message containing an important navigational or meteorological warning?

A

Safety

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30
Q

Which word is spoken three times and transmitted before the call in safety signals

A

SECURATE

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31
Q

For the purpose of announcing and identifying aircraft for medical transports, a transmission of the uregency signal shall be followed by which group of letters over RATT/NBDP

A

YYY

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32
Q

To indicate distress a gun or other explosive fired at intervals spaced about how far apart can be used?

A

1 minute

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33
Q

The International Code Signal of distress indicated by which code group can be used to indicate distress?

A

NC

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34
Q

A smoke signal giving off a volume of which color of smoke can be used to indicate distress?

A

Orange

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35
Q

Which squawking code can be used to indicate distress on IFF mode 3/A?

A

7700

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36
Q

What should a piloet make the aircraft do to acknowledge that a ground distress signal has been seen and understood?

A

Rock the wings

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37
Q

What is the minimum length that group distress signals should be?

A

8 feet

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38
Q

What is the Internation Aeronautical Emergency Frequency?

A

121.5 MHz

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39
Q

What is the Distress and Emergency Frequency?

A

243.0 MHz

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40
Q

Which frequencies are used to supplement the carrier frequency 2182 kHz for DISTRESS and SAFETY purposes and for call and reply?

A

4125 kHz and 6215 kHz

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41
Q

Which frequency is for international use by the maritime mobile VHF radiotelephone service as a distress, safety and calling frequency?

A

156.8 MHz

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42
Q

Which frequency is for world-wide use when communicating with enroute aircraft participating in SAR operations?

A

123.1 MHz

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43
Q

Which prefix is used for call signs for assigned SAR craft?

A

RESCUE

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44
Q

What is the International Emergency Distress Signal (SOS)?

A

MAYDAY

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45
Q

What is the International Emergency Safety Signal?

A

SECURITY

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46
Q

What is the International Emergency Urgency Signal?

A

PAN PAN

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47
Q

What is the frequency range managed by ACP 190 US SUPP-1?

A

9kHz to 275 GHz

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48
Q

Which year was the role of the International Telegraph Union expanded to include access to the radio spectrum?

A

1903

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49
Q

Which year did the ITU become a specialized agency of the United Nations?

A

1947

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50
Q

Which agency regulates the global use of the radio spectrum

A

ITU

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51
Q

What article of the ITU Constitution states that ITU members retain freedom with regard to military radio installations

A

Article 48

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52
Q

What is performed to meet the needs of radio services within a geographic area and is based on the allocation tables in the Radio Regulations?

A

Frequency planning

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53
Q

What is it known as in military operations when the same frequency is used on a predetermined schedule?

A

Timesharing

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54
Q

Which type of calculations are necessary to guide the choice of the most suitable communication techniques to be used as well as where to place radio repeaters, surveillance, and weapons sites?

A

Propagation

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55
Q

To perform propagation calculations it is essential to have knowledge of the effects of atmospheric absorption and climactic conditions for frequencies above about which frequency

A

10 GHz

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56
Q

What is the authorization given by an appropriate authority for a radio station to use a radio frequency or radio frequency channel under specified conditions?

A

Assignment

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57
Q

Where does the ITU coordinate and register frequency assignments if protection beyond national borders is appropriate?

A

IFL

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58
Q

What is defined as one or more frequencies or blocks of frequencies within a band, given to a subordinate authority charged with the responsibility or providing frequency assignments?

A

Allotment

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59
Q

Which organization plans the civil aviation communications band and the frequency bands for aeronautical navigation systems?

A

ICAO

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60
Q

Which type of radio interference is defined as that which endangers the functioning of a radio navigation service or other safety service or seriously degrades obstructs, or repeatedly interrupts a radio communications service operating in accordance with the Radio Regulations?

A

Harmful

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61
Q

What does military spectrum management aim to control the use of?

A

Electromagnetic Environment

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62
Q

What is the application of spectrum management control concepts to hostilities referred to as

A

BSM

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63
Q

Which type of operations are authorized that will not cause harmful interference to host nation radio services or those in surrounding countries?

A

NIB

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64
Q

The BSM process and plan are achieved with the involvement of three branches to include Intelligence (C2), Operations (C3), and what else?

A

Communications (C6)

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65
Q

The CTFC along with what else has the authority to assign/allot frequencies to operational forces?

A

Combined Spectrum Management Cell (CSMC)

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66
Q

Which branch is the CSMC usually established in by the CTFC?

A

C6

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67
Q

How many phases is the spectrum management process for a military operation?

A

4

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68
Q

What has the overall responsibility to coordinate the spectrum requirements for the force?

A

CSMC

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69
Q

What is the overall spectrum requirement for the force expressed as?

A

Electronic Order of Battle (EOB)

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70
Q

Who is responsible for forwarding all requests for frequencies to the CSMC

A

National Spectrum Manager

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71
Q

Who is responsible for resolving spectrum conflicts between components

A

CSMC

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72
Q

What is the aim of the planning phase of the spectrum management process

A

BSM Plan

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73
Q

What must be established by the spectrum manager in the initial stages within the planning phase?

A

Overall frequency requirements

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74
Q

What should be used to identify the location and responsibilities of managers within the spectrum management process?

A

Spectrum management structure

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75
Q

Which type of data is required to predict the propagation of radio equipment to be established in order to identify where re-use of frequencies is possible?

A

Topographical

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76
Q

Who is responsible for assembling an electronic order of battle (EOB)for the force?

A

CSMC

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77
Q

Who is responsible for assigning frequencies in civil and military bands to Non-Governmental Organizations (NGO)

A

CSMC

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78
Q

What is defined as any emission that degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts military operational systems to the extent that operational effectiveness is impaired?

A

Harmful interference

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79
Q

What should give specific guidance on the extent, purpose, format and distribution of the interference reporting required?

A

BSM Plan

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80
Q

What are essential in effecting rapid data exchange between nations?

A

Standard data exchange formats

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81
Q

who determines the data format and data fields required for requesting spectrum support?

A

CSMC

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82
Q

What can be set up at distant ends of an HF circuit to provide a measurement of operating parameters such as received power, propagation modes signal strength?

A

Chirp sounders

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83
Q

What is the sweep duration of the TCI/BR transmitter employed by CCEB nations

A

280 seconds

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84
Q

What affords communication staffs the ability to identify in “real time” the optimum frequencies from those assigned for use over a given circuit path?

A

Ionospheric sounder

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85
Q

Sounder transmitters shall be classified as either common-user or what else

A

Special-purpose

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86
Q

Each transmitter in the Common-User Sounder Network shall be required to provide start-sweeping timing accurate to 1 microsecond, preferred, but at least to how many milliseconds

A

100

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87
Q

Sweep intervals of less than than how many minutes should be avoided when special-purpose sounder transmitters are operated?

A

15

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88
Q

What is the maximum number of special-purpose sounder transmitters that may be operating at any time per area unless dictated by special circumstances?

A

4

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89
Q

Federal agencies are required to have in place cyber incident handling mechanisms in accordance with which act?

A

FISMA

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90
Q

How many services does the Department of Defense require Tier II Computer Network Defense Service Providers (CNDSPs) to provide?

A

3

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91
Q

Which program was developed by the Department of Defense to provide specific guidance for CC/S/A/FAs regarding the requirements for cyber incident handling and reporting

A

Cyber Incident Handling Program

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92
Q

Joint Staff and CC/S/A/FAs will comply with DoD Cyber Incident Handling Program responsibilites in accordance with which reference?

A

CJCSI 6510.01

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93
Q

Which agency must Joint Staff and CC/S/A/FAs ensure tha Tier II CNDSPs are registered with to provide CND service for CC/S/A/FA information networks and ISs

A

DISA

94
Q

Which command must Joint Staff and CC/S/A/FAs coordinate with on cyber incidents prior to taking action outside the Department of Defense?

A

USCYBERCOM

95
Q

Which command directs the operation and defense of DoD information networks IAW the UCP

A

USSTRATCOM

96
Q

What must USSTRATCOM coordinate with on matters relating to the governance, secure operations, and defense of the IC networks?

A

IC-IRC

97
Q

What directs the actions taken, within the Department of Defense, to protect, monitor, analyze, detect, and respond to unauthorized activity within DoD information networks and ISs?

A

CND

98
Q

How many different tiers is the Department of Defense organized into to conduct CND

A

3

99
Q

Which tier provides DoD-wide CND operational direction or support to CC/S/A/FAs?

A

Tier 1

100
Q

Which tier provides DoD component-wide CND operational direction or support?

A

Tier 2

101
Q

Which tier provides local CND operational direction or support?

A

Tier 3

102
Q

Which type of data gives the Department of Defense the ability to sense changes in DoD information networks?

A

AS&W

103
Q

Which type of data gives the Department of Defense the ability to sense changes in adversary activities?

A

I&W

104
Q

Which community investigates criminal activity and disseminates threat data that may pertain to domestic or foreign individuals and groups who constitute threats to the Department of Defense?

A

LE

105
Q

Which CND response service identifies several critical elements of an incident to determine and characterize its possible effects on DoD information networks, operational missions, and other defense programs?

A

Cyber Incident Analysis

106
Q

What ensures the acquisition and preservation of data required for tactical analysis, strategic analysis, and/or LE investigations?

A

Cyber Incident Response

107
Q

What is the DoD system of record for lessons learned?

A

JLLIS

108
Q

What is the primary vehicle for reporting and recording all cyber incidents and reportable events?

A

JIMS

109
Q

Security classifications of cyber incidents are determined in accordance with which publication?

A

DoDI O-3600.02

110
Q

How many different types of initial cyber incident reporting are there?

A

2

111
Q

What is the minimum security requirement when sending e-mails reporting a cyber incident?

A

Digital signautre

112
Q

What includes the coordinated and initial actions taken to protect the information network or IS from any further malicious activity and to acquire the data required from futher analysis?

A

Preliminary response

113
Q

What will Cyber incident containment be coordinated with?

A

CNDSP

114
Q

Which type of data is RAM considered?

A

Volatile

115
Q

Which type of data are system images and malware considered to be?

A

Persistent

116
Q

Which type of data is the configuration around the system considered to be?

A

Environmental

117
Q

What is defined as a series of analytical steps taken to find out what happened in an incident?

A

Cyber incident analysis

118
Q

What should any software artifacts suspected of being malware be submitted to?

A

Joint Malware Catalog (JMC)

119
Q

What is the primary path or method used by the adversary to cause the cyber incident or even to occur?

A

Delivery vector

120
Q

What expands upon the identified delivery vectors and system weaknesses by precisely identifying the sets of conditions allowing the incident to occur?

A

Root cause identification

121
Q

What refers to an incident’s detrimental impact on the technical capabilities of the organization?

A

Technical Impact (TI)

122
Q

What refers to a detrmiental impact on an organization’s ability to perform its mission?

A

Operational Impact (OI)

123
Q

What must actions that potentially affect traffic on the DoD Protected Traffic List be coordinated with?

A

USCYBERCOM

124
Q

What involves understanding and accurately characterizing the relationship of incidents reported and providing awareness of the cyber security trends as observed by the affected parties?

A

Trending analysis

125
Q

ISs having which categories of cyber incidents must be rebuilt from trusted media and have up-to-date AV software loaded and configured IAW STIGs and WARNORDs prior to connecting the IS to the information network?

A

1,2, and 7

126
Q

What is used to document the technical and operational impact of the cyber incident on the organization?

A

BDA

127
Q

Within how many hours after the cyber incident has been resolved must the JIMS incident record be updated with the BDA?

A

24

128
Q

What are lessons learned, initial root cause, problems with executing COAs, and missing policies and procedures all part of?

A

Post-incident analysis

129
Q

Where are cyber incidents sent that require a postmortem?

A

USCYBERCOM

130
Q

What is defined as a set of scripts, programs, and other resources used to safely acquire, examine, and preserve volatile and non-volatile data from an IS?

A

First responder toolkit

131
Q

How many different types of incident response primary reporting structures are there?

A

2

132
Q

Which type of reporting structure describes the interactions between each of the tier levels and how reporting, notification, and communications shall occur?

A

Technical

133
Q

What are all reportable cyber events and incidents reported to?

A

USCYBERCOM

134
Q

What does USCYBERCOM disseminate information to about DoD Enterprise Incident Sets?

A

STRATJIC

135
Q

What provides AS&W and a variety of technical alerts to USCYBERCOM that are shared with other tiers to direct response actions?

A

NTOC

136
Q

Who enters the cyber incident report into the JIMS?

A

CNDSP

137
Q

What serve as the focal points for reporting and handling cyber incidents and network management at the lowest level?

A

Network Service Centers (NSCs)

138
Q

What are issued by any unit commander to provide appropriate senior leadership immediate notification of an incident that has impacted or may impact the mission and/or operations?

A

OPREPs

139
Q

Which categories of cyber events or incidents affecting Mission Assurance Category (MAC) I or II ISs must be reported using OPREP-3 reporting procedures and structure?

A

1,2,4, and 7

140
Q

What does USCYBERCOM submit OPREP-3 for DoD-wide computer network incidents to?

A

USSTRATCOM

141
Q

Which categories of cyber events or incidents at a minimum are reported to DoD LE/CI IAW established CC/S/A/FA procedures?

A

1,2, and 4

142
Q

What is the primary vehicle for reporting cyber incidents and reportable events?

A

JIMS

143
Q

What is the principal reporting vehicle for DoD SCI ISs?

A

JWICS

144
Q

What is defined as any information about an individual that is maintained by a DoD entity?

A

PII

145
Q

Reports of loss or suspected loss of PII must be submitted to the US-CERT within what time frame after the incident?

A

1 hour

146
Q

What is the classification of a cyber incident determined in accordance with?

A

DoDI O-3600.02

147
Q

What seeks to identify the root cause(s) of an incident and is required to fully understand the scope, potential implications, and extent of damage resulting from the incident?

A

Incident Analysis

148
Q

What is defined as the process of acquiring, preserving, and analyzing IS artifacts that help characterize the incident and develop COA?

A

System Analysis

149
Q

What is defined as the process of identifying, analyzing, and characterizing reported software artifacts suspected of being adversarial tradecraft to help defense in depth mitigation actions and strategies, CI activities, and LE activities?

A

Malware Analysis

150
Q

What is considered the application of science to the identification, collection, examination, and analysis of data while preserving the integrity of the information and maintaining a strict chain of custody?

A

Computer forensics

151
Q

Which publication can guidance be found on integrating forensic techniques into incident response?

A

NIST SP 800-86

152
Q

How many basic phases are in the forensics process?

A

4

153
Q

Which type of data is stored in IS memory that will be lost when the IS loses power or is shut down?

A

Volatile

154
Q

Which type of data is stored in the IS’s hard drives and removable storage media that will not be changed when the IS is powered off?

A

Persistent

155
Q

What is defined as software designed and/or deployed by adversaries without the consent or knowledge of the user in support of adversarial missions?

A

Malware

156
Q

Which type of analysis involves quick checks to characterize the malware sample within the context of the analysis mission?

A

Surface

157
Q

Which type of analysis is the controlled execution of the malware sample in an isolated environment to monitor, observe, and record run-time behavior without impacting mission-critical systems and infrastructure?

A

Run-time

158
Q

Which type of analysis focuses on examining and interpreting the contents of the malware sample in the context of an analysis mission?

A

Static

159
Q

What is the most in-depth form of malware analysis?

A

Reverse engineering

160
Q

What must any malware that is uncovered throughout the incident response process be cataloged to?

A

JMC

161
Q

Network analysis comprises data sources, data collection, along with what else?

A

Data analysis

162
Q

Which type of data can provide complete insight into network transactions that occurred between hosts?

A

Full Packet Capture

163
Q

What is used to avoid allegations of mishandling or tampering with evidence and increases the probability of the evidence being entered into a court proceeding?

A

Chain of custody

164
Q

What is defined as an organized and coordinated series of steps to resolve or mitigate a report incident?

A

Incident Response

165
Q

What have the primary objective to halt or minimize attack effects or damage while maintaining operational mission continuity?

A

Response Actions (RAs)

166
Q

How many different types of response activities can occur?

A

3

167
Q

Which type of RAs involve containment or eradication of any risks or threats associated with the cyber incident, and the rebuilding or restoring of affected ISs to a normal operational state?

A

Technical

168
Q

Which type of RAs require some type of administrative, supervisory, or management intervention, notification, interaction, escalation, or approval as part of any response?

A

Management

169
Q

What include the actions necessary to respond to the reportable cyber event or incident, fix the IS, return the IS to operations, and assess the risk for the IS or information network?

A

Courses of Action (COAs)

170
Q

Which command reserves the right to direct and assist CC/S/A/FAs with response actions for incidents that fall into a DoD enterprise incident set or when actions otherwise affect multiple theater or Service information networks?

A

USCYBERCOM

171
Q

What is defined as short term, tactical actions to stop an intruder’s access to a compromised IS, limit the extent of an intrusion, and prevent an intruder from causing further damage?

A

Containment

172
Q

What is defined as using network access controls at the perimeter or enclave boundary to prevent the attacker from connecting to other DoD information networks, ISs, or DoD data and services?

A

Blocking

173
Q

Which type of blocks are specific to the component behind the firewall?

A

Enclave

174
Q

What involves the use of network access controls to logically segment the network and restrict access to the affected hosts?

A

Network Isolation

175
Q

What is defined as the steps required to eliminate the root cause(s) of an intrusion

A

Eradication

176
Q

Where must any malware that is uncovered throughout the incident response process be cataloged?

A

JMC

177
Q

What is defined as the steps necessary to restore the integrity of affected ISs, return the affected data, ISs, and information networks to an operational state, and implement follow up strategies to prevent the incident from happening again?

A

Recovery

178
Q

All ISs having which categories of incidents must be erased and rebuilt from trusted media, then patched and updated prior to connecting the IS to the information network?

A

1,2 or 7

179
Q

What is defined as a review of the incident, including the detection, analysis, and response phases?

A

Postmortem

180
Q

What is the focal point for Net Defense threat data in the Department of Defense?

A

USCYBERCOM

181
Q

Which type of data consists of information that can help lead to increased defense of DoD information networks and the attribution and intent of network intruder(s)?

A

Threat

182
Q

What employs intelligence, counterintelligence, law enforcement and other military capabilities to defend DoD information and computer networks?

A

CND

183
Q

Where is the technical reporting between the incident handling program and intelligence maintained?

A

JIMS

184
Q

Which group consists of senior representatives from federal agencies that have roles and responsibilities related to preventing, investigating, defending against, responding to, mitigating, and assisting in the recovery from cyber incidents and attacks?

A

Cyber Unified Coordination Group (CUCG)

185
Q

What is an interagency forum where organizations responsible for a range of activities (technical response and recovery, LE, intelligence, and defensive measures) coordinate for the purpose of preparing for and executing an efficient and effective response to an incident?

A

NCRCG

186
Q

What is the central repository for managing all reportable events and incidents in the Department of Defense?

A

JIMS

187
Q

What is the system of record for the JLLP that provides a Web-enabled information management system to meet operational needs for reporting lessons learned?

A

Joint Lessons Learned Information System (JLLIS)

188
Q

What is used by CND Analysts for collecting, processing, and storing the DoD networking sensing environment information, facilitating execution of selected COAs to mitigate and respond to attacks directed at DoD information networks?

A

Enterprise Sensor Grid (ESG)

189
Q

What is the functional owner of the JIMS and maintains and manages it?

A

USCYBERCOM

190
Q

What is the central repository for storing malware and associated analysis?

A

Joint Malware Catalog (JMC)

191
Q

What is the basis for the Department of Defense’s capability to rapidly analyze malicious code and provide an accurate understanding of its behavior and capabilities?

A

Joint Malware Catalog (JMC)

192
Q

What is the functional owner of the JMC

A

USCYBERCOM

193
Q

What is the primary CND intelligence analysis tool suite used to derive CND intelligence information?

A

JIMS

194
Q

Which list ensures critical DoD ISs are not affected inadvertently by responses to CND events?

A

DoD Protected Traffic List

195
Q

What are defined as groups of related incidents and associated data requiring centralized management at the DoD level?

A

Incident sets

196
Q

How many progressive readiness conditions are there in the CYBERCON system?

A

5

197
Q

Operations in support of CYBERCON implementation will be executed in accordance with which publications?

A

CJCSI 3121.01

198
Q

Which instruction established a DoD cybersecurity program to protect and defend DoD information and information technology?

A

DoDI 8500.01

199
Q

What will be employed to protect, detect, characterize, counter, and mitigate unauthorized activity and vulnerabilities on DoD information networks?

A

Cyberspace defense

200
Q

What must be given to all DoD information in electronic format in the appropriate levels that reflects the importance of both information sharing and protection?

A

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

201
Q

What must be used to ensure strong identification, authentication, and eliminate anonymity in DoD IS and PIT systems?

A

Identity Assurance

202
Q

Which instruction must the DoD-wide Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) solution be managed in accordance with?

A

DoDI 8520.02

203
Q

Which instruction must biometrics that are used in support of identity assurance be managed in accordance with?

A

DoDI 8521.01

204
Q

Who is responsible for monitoring, evaluating, and providing advice to the Secretary of Defense regarding all DoD cybersecurity activities and overseeing the implementation of DoDI 8500.01

A

DoD CIO

205
Q

Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with to ensure that cybersecurity policies and capabilities are aligned with and mutually supportive of personnel, physical, industrial, information, and operations security policies and capabilities?

A

Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence (USD(I))

206
Q

Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with in development of cybersecurity-related standards and guidance?

A

NIST

207
Q

Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with to ensure that cybersecurity responsibilities are integrated into processes for DoD acquisition programs, including research and development?

A

USD(AT&L)

208
Q

What does the DoD CIO appoint for DoD ISs and PIT systems governed by the Enterprise Information Mission Area (MA) (EIEMA)

A

PAO

209
Q

In what grade or the civilian employee equivalent must the candidate be to be appointed as the Defense IA Security Accrediation Working Group (DSAWG) Chair by the DoD CIO

A

O-6

210
Q

How often must the DoD CIO conduct an assessment of the DoD Component cybersecurity programs?

A

Annually

211
Q

Who develops or acquires solutions that support cybersecurity objectives for use throughout the DoD via the ESSG process?

A

DISA Director

212
Q

In accordance with which instruction does the DISA Director ensure the continued development and maintenance of guidance and standards procedures to catalog, regulate and control the use and management of Internet protocols, data services, and associated ports on DoD networks?

A

DoD Instruction 8551.1

213
Q

In accordance with which publication does the DISA Director develop and provide cybersecurity training and awareness products as well as a distributive training capability to support the DoD Components?

A

DoD Directive 8570.01

214
Q

Who does the DISA Director coordinate with to ensure that command cyber readiness inspection guidance and metrics provide a unity pf effort among the security disciplines?

A

USD(I)

215
Q

Who assists with acquisition-related agreements, and international cybersecurity and cyberspace defense negotiations and agreements?

A

USD(AT&L)

216
Q

The USD (AT&L) must ensure that PIT systems included in acquisition programs are designated, categorized, and have their authorization boundaries defined according to the guidelines that are provided in which reference?

A

DoD Instruction 8510.01

217
Q

Who exercises oversight responsibility for developmental test planning in support of interoperability and cybersecurity programs acquiring DoD IS and PIT systems in accordance with DoDI 5134.17

A

DASD(DT&E)

218
Q

Who coordinates with the DoD CIO to ensure cybersecurity strategies, policies, and capabilities are aligned with overarching DoD cyberspace policy, and are supportive of policies and capabilities relating to the disclosure of classifed military information to foreign governments and international organizations in accordance with DoD Directive 8000.01

A

USD(P)

219
Q

Who supports implementation of cybersecurity requirements for effective manning, management, and readiness assessments of the cybersecurity workforce in accordance with DoD Directive 8570.01 and DoD 8570.01-M?

A

USD(P&R)

220
Q

Who evaluates or validates security implementation specifications described in DoDI 8500.01

A

DIRNSA/CHCSS

221
Q

Who develops, implements, and manages the cybersecurity program for DoD non-cryptographic SCI systems, including the DoD Intelligence IS (DoDIIS) and JWICS

A

Director, DIA

222
Q

Who appoints the PAO for DoD ISs and PIT systems governed by the Business Mission Area (BMA)?

A

Deputy Chief Management Officer (DCMO)

223
Q

Cybersecurity training and awareness products developed by what will be used to meet the baseline user awareness training that is required by DoD Directive 8570.01?

A

DISA

224
Q

Which program ensures that IT can be used in a way that allows mission owners and operators to have confidence in the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT and DoD information, and to make choices based on that confidence?

A

Defense Cybersecurity

225
Q

What is used by the DoD to address risk management for all DoD ISs and PIT systems?

A

NIST SP 800-37

226
Q

From which perspective does tier one risk management address risk?

A

Organizational

227
Q

What provides the Tier 1 risk management governance for the DoD?

A

DoD ISRMC

228
Q

Which risk management tier addresses risk from a mission and business process perspective?

A

Tier 2

229
Q

Which risk management tier addresses risk from an IS and PIT system perspective?

A

Tier 3

230
Q

Cybersecurity risk management is planned for and documented in a cybersecurity strategy in accordance with Interim DoD Instruction 5000.02 along with which other reference?

A

DoD Instruction 8580.1

IT3 test (2 decks)

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