1ST-4TH BIMEX Flashcards
A 21-year-old soccer player is tackled via a high impact sweeping injury about the right knee, causing a posterior knee dislocation. Soon after, he is unable to plantar flex his right ankle or flex his toes. He also experiences loss of sensation on the sole of his right foot. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured? A. Saphenous nerve B. Tibial nerve C. Deep peroneal nerve D. Common peroneal nerve
B. Tibial nerve
Mr. Gavino Ang was riding the front seat of his son's van when the vehicle abruptly stopped. Unfortunately, he was not wearing his seatbelt and was thrown forward. As a result of the accident, the transverse processes of his cervical vertebrae were crushed against the dashboard of the van. Which of the following muscles might be paralyzed? A. Trapezius B. Latissimus dorsi C. Rhomboid major D. Levator scapulae
D. Levator scapulae
A 26-year-old woman experiences severe back pain from an automobile accident. A computed tomography (CT) scan reveals that the L5 vertebral foramen is completely obliterated by a collapsed L5 laminae and pedicles. In this injury, which of the following structures is crushed?
A. Vertebral artery
B. Filum terminale externus (filum of the dura)
C. Denticulate ligament
D. Cauda equina
D. Cauda equina
A forensic pathologist is examining the pelvic bone of a murder victim to identify the sex of the victim. Which of the following characteristics is that of a female pelvis? A. Oval-shaped pelvic inlet B. Smaller pelvic outlet C. Lesser pubic angle D. Narrower and deeper pelvic cavity
A. Oval-shaped pelvic inlet
A patient has a damaged pelvic outlet as the result of an automobile accident. Following this accident, which of the following structures is still intact? A. Sacrotuberous ligament B. Inferior pubic ramus C. Pubic crest D. Ischial tuberosity
C. Pubic crest
A young couple is seeing a sex therapist for the first time to determine the cause of some of their recent difficulties. The husband tells the therapist that he no longer has sensation in his scrotum after a race car accident. Which of the following nerves carries undamaged sensory nerve fibers?
A. Ilioinguinal nerve B. Genitofemoral nerve C. Iliohypogastric nerve D. Perineal branch of the posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
C. Iliohypogastric nerve
At a local hospital tumor board, a gynecologic oncologist discusses the next case for the multidisciplinary team. He explains the rationale for using chemotherapy and radiation after surgical resection because carcinoma of the uterus can spread directly to the labia majora through lymphatics that follow the: A. Ovarian ligament B. Suspensory ligament of the ovary C. Round ligament of the uterus D. Uterosacral ligaments
C. Round ligament of the uterus
The weather has been awful in the last few days,
and the number of trauma patients in the emergency room has risen dramatically because of the increased number of motor vehicle accidents. During a quick orientation by the attending physician, the rotating residents are told that many of the patients suffer from blunt trauma to the pelvis resulting from crush injuries from the steering column. In males, if the urethra is torn distal to the urogenital diaphragm, urine might accumulate in the:
A. Retropubic space
B. Medial aspect of the thigh
C. Ischiorectal fossa
D. Superficial perineal space
D. Superficial perineal space
A 27-year-old farmer falls on tractor blades and
injures his groin. Several days later, he comes to the emergency room, and examination by a physician reveals that the urogenital diaphragm and bulbourethral glands are infected. The infected deep perineal space:
A. Is formed superiorly by the perineal membrane
B. Is formed inferiorly by Colles’ fascia
C. Contains a segment of the dorsal nerve of
the penis
D. Contains superficial transverse perineal muscles
C. Contains a segment of the dorsal nerve of
the penis
Which of the following describes the urogenital
hiatus?
A. A centrally positioned gap which allows passage
of the anal canal.
B. An anterior gap which allows passage of the
urethra.
C. A funnel shaped muscular structure that
attaches to the walls of the lesser pelvis.
D. A fibrous node that joins the pelvic floor to the
perineum
B. An anterior gap which allows passage of the
urethra.
Complete the sentence: The ureters descend
through the abdomen, along the anterior surface
of the ______________ muscle.
A. transversus abdominis
B. psoas major
C. internal oblique
D. quadratus lumborum
B. psoas major
A 75-year-old man is having a urinary catheter
inserted for urinary retention. Which part of the
urethra has the narrowest diameter?
A. Prostatic urethra
B. Membranous urethra
C. Penile urethra
D. Bulbous urethra
B. Membranous urethra
What is the epithelial lining of the urethra? A. Simple cuboidal epithelium B. Stratified squamous epithelium C. Stratified columnar epithelium D. Simple squamous epithelium
C. Stratified columnar epithelium
Complete the sentence: The area that the female
urethra opens onto is known as the __________________?
A. Bartholin’s glands.
B. labia minora.
C. clitoris.
D. vestibule.
D. vestibule.
Which of the following statements correctly
describes the apex of the bladder?
A. The internal triangular area with smooth walls.
B. Connected to umbilicus by the median
umbilical ligament.
C. Where the bladder is continuous with the
urethra.
D. Triangular in shape and directed posteriorly.
B. Connected to umbilicus by the median
umbilical ligament.
Which muscle undergoes relaxation during the storage phase of micturition? A. Detrusor muscle B. Rectourethralis muscle C. External urethral sphincter muscle D. Levator ani muscle
A. Detrusor muscle
Which branch of the internal iliac artery is MOST
associated as the arterial supply to the bladder?
A. Internal pudendal artery
B. Hypogastric artery
C. Superior vesical artery
D. Lateral sacral artery
C. Superior vesical artery
Which of the following structures is at risk of
iatrogenic damage during an open hysterectomy?
A. Uterine artery
B. Pudendal artery
C. Ureter
D. Pudendal nerve
C. Ureter
Which of the following structures is found anterior to the vaginal canal? A. Rectum B. Ureter C. Urinary Bladder D. Perineal body
C. Urinary Bladder
Which of these muscles in men can remove
residual urine from urethra after urination and is
responsible for the pulsatile emission of semen
during ejaculation?
A. Urethral sphincter muscle
B. Ischiocavernosus muscle
C. Bulbospongiosus muscle
D. Transverse perineal muscle
C. Bulbospongiosus muscle
Which of these nerves innervates the external
genitalia of both sexes, as well as the sphincters
for the bladder and the rectum?
A. Sciatic nerve
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Perineal nerve
D. Pudendal nerve
D. Pudendal nerve
Which of the following vessels crosses over the ureter at the pelvic brim? A. Uterine artery B. Common iliac artery C. Ovarian artery D. Renal artery
C. Ovarian artery
What gluteal muscle extends and laterally rotates the thigh? A. Gluteus minimus B. Gluteus maximus C. Gluteus medius D. Tensor fascia lata
B. Gluteus maximus
Which statement is NOT correct regarding the
femoral triangle?
A. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly.
B. It is bounded by the Sartorius laterally.
C. It is bounded by the pectineus, iliopsoas and
adductor longus as its base.
D. It is also bounded by the fascia lata laterally.
D. It is also bounded by the fascia lata laterally.
Which among the following statements best
describes the contents of the femoral triangle?
A. The long saphenous vein drains into the femoral
vein outside the triangle.
B. The femoral artery is the main blood supply
of the lower limbs.
C. The femoral nerve innervates the posterior
compartment of the thigh.
D. The superficial lymph nodes are found within the
triangle.
B. The femoral artery is the main blood supply
of the lower limbs.
Which of the following statements does NOT
describe the hip joint?
A. It is a ball and socket joint
B. It is an articulation between the head of the
femur and the acetabulum of the pelvic bone.
C. The articulating surfaces are covered with
fibrous cartilage.
D. The acetabulum fossa is a depression at the hip
joint that is the point of union of the ilium, ischium
and pubic bones.
C. The articulating surfaces are covered with
fibrous cartilage.
In a proximal femoral fracture, what artery when
damaged can cause avascular necrosis of the
femoral head?
A. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
B. Medial circumflex femoral artery
C. Profunda femoris artery
D. Femoral artery
B. Medial circumflex femoral artery
Which of the following nerves does NOT supply the hip joint? A. Sciatic nerve B. Femoral nerve C. Obturator nerve D. Common peroneal nerve
D. Common peroneal nerve
Which of the following is NOT an extracapsular ligament of the hip joint? A. Ligamentum teres B. Iliofemoral ligament C. Pubofemoral ligament D. Ischiofemoral ligament
A. Ligamentum teres
Which among the following is not true regarding
the iliofemoral ligament?
A. It arises from the anterior inferior iliac spine.
B. It prevents hyperextension of the hip joint.
C. It inserts into the intertrochanteric line of the
femur.
D. It stabilizes and holds the femoral head in the
acetabulum.
D. It stabilizes and holds the femoral head in the
acetabulum.
Which among the following is not a hamstring muscle of the thigh? A. Gluteus maximus B. Semimembranosus C. Semitendinosus D. Biceps femoris
A. Gluteus maximus
Which of the following muscles does NOT medially rotate the hip joint? A. Gluteus medius B. Gluteus minimus C. Gluteus maximus D. Semitendinosus
C. Gluteus maximus
A 78-year-old man has carcinoma of the rectum.
The cancer is likely to metastasize via the veins
into which of the following structures?
A. Spleen
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Duodenum
C. Liver
A general surgeon is giving a lecture to a team of
surgery residents. She describes characteristics
of structures above the pectinate line of the anal
canal, which include:
A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Lymphatic drainage into the superficial inguinal
nodes
C. Visceral sensory innervation
D. External hemorrhoids
C. Visceral sensory innervation
An elderly man with prostatitis is seen at an internal medicine clinic. The seminal colliculus of
his prostate gland is infected, and its fine openings are closed. Which of the following structures is/are most likely to be disturbed?
A. Ducts of the prostate gland
B. Prostatic utricle
C. Ducts of the bulbourethral glands
D. Ejaculatory ducts
D. Ejaculatory ducts
A trauma surgeon in the emergency room at a
local center examines a 14-year-old boy with extensive pelvic injuries after a hit and run accident. The surgeon inspects the ischiorectal fossa because it:
A. Accumulates urine leaking from rupture of the
bulb of the penis
B. Contains the inferior rectal vessels
C. Has a pudendal canal along its medial wall
D. Is bounded anteriorly by the sacrotuberous
ligament
B. Contains the inferior rectal vessels
An obstetrician is about to perform a pudendal
block so a woman can experience less pain
when she delivers her child. He recalls what he
learned in medical school about this nerve.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. It passes superficial to the sacrotuberous
ligament.
B. It provides motor fibers to the coccygeus.
C. It can be blocked by injecting an anesthetic
near the inferior margin of the ischial spine.
D. It arises from the lumbar plexus.
C. It can be blocked by injecting an anesthetic
near the inferior margin of the ischial spine.
A 21-year-old man is involved in a highspeed
motor vehicle accident. As a result, he has extensive damage to his sphincter urethrae. Which of the following best describes the injured sphincter urethrae?
A. Smooth muscle
B. Innervated by the perineal nerve
C. Lying between the perineal membrane and
Colles’ fascia
D. Enclosed in the pelvic fascia
B. Innervated by the perineal nerve
A 26-year-old man comes to a hospital with fever, nausea, pain, and itching in the perineal region. On examination by a urologist, he is diagnosed as having infected bulbourethral (Cowper's) glands. Which of the following structures is/are affected by this infection? A. Superficial perineal space B. Sphincter urethrae C. Testis D. Seminal vesicles
B. Sphincter urethrae
A neurosurgeon performs surgical resection of a
rare meningeal tumor in the sacral region. He
tries to avoid an injury of the nerve that arises
from the lumbosacral plexus and remains within
the abdominal or pelvic cavity. To which of the
following nerves should he pay particular
attention to?
A. Ilioinguinal nerve
B. Genitofemoral nerve
C. Lumbosacral trunk
D. Femoral nerve
C. Lumbosacral trunk
During pelvic surgery, a surgeon notices severe
bleeding from the artery that remains within the
true pelvis. Which of the following arteries is
most likely to be injured?
A. Obturator artery
B. Uterine artery
C. Internal pudendal artery
D. Inferior gluteal artery
B. Uterine artery
A woman is delivering a breech baby. The
obstetrician decides that it is best to perform a
mediolateral episiotomy. Which of the following
structures should the obstetrician avoid incising?
A. Vaginal wall
B. Superficial transverse perineal muscle
C. Bulbospongiosus
D. Levator ani
D. Levator ani
A 37-year-old woman complains of a bearing down sensation in her womb and an increased frequency of and burning sensation on urination. On examination by her gynecologist, she is diagnosed with a uterine prolapse. Which of the following structures provides the primary support for the cervix of the uterus?
A. Broad ligament of the uterus
B. Cardinal (transverse cervical) ligament
C. Round ligament of the uterus
D. Suspensory ligament of the ovary
B. Cardinal (transverse cervical) ligament
What muscle originates from the greater trochanter of the femur? A. Vastus lateralis B. Vastus medialis C. Piriformis D. Gluteus maximus
A. Vastus lateralis
What area in the femur does the quadratus femoris inserts to? A. Quadrate tubercle B. Greater trochanter C. Lesser trochanter D. Pectineal line
A. Quadrate tubercle
Which of the following does NOT articulate with the distal end of the femur? A. Tibia B. Fibula C. Patella D. Menisci of the knee
B. Fibula
What ligament of the knee is attached to the
medial aspect of the lateral condyle of the distal
femur?
A. Anterior cruciate ligament
B. Posterior cruciate ligament
C. Patellar ligament
D. Tibial collateral ligament
A. Anterior cruciate ligament
Which of the following is NOT a function of the
iliotibial tract?
A. It allows extensor, abductor, and lateral rotator
movements of the hip.
B. It extends centrally into the thigh to form the
lateral intermuscular septum.
C. It forms a muscular sheath for the tensor fascia
lata.
D. It does not provide adequate venous return
from the lower limbs to the heart.
D. It does not provide adequate venous return
from the lower limbs to the heart.
What structures in the pelvis and hip region
provide posterior attachment to the tensor fascia
lata?
A. Sacrum and coccyx
B. Iliac crest
C. Inguinal ligament, superior pubic rami
D. Inferior ischiopubic rami, ischial tuberosity,
sacrotuberous ligament
A. Sacrum and coccyx
What membranous tissue covers the hiatus of the fascia lata in the thigh? A. Intermuscular septum B. Cribriform fascia C. Muscular sheath D. Crural fascia
B. Cribriform fascia
What is the lateral palpable projection of the femur? A. Greater trochanter B. Lesser trochanter C. Head D. Neck
A. Greater trochanter
What is the longest bone in the body? A. Humerus B. Femur C. Tibia D. Fibula
B. Femur
What muscles in the upper outer quadrant of the
gluteal region is an intermuscular injection done?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Gluteus moximus
C. Gluteus minimus
D. Gluteus maximus
D. Gluteus maximus
A 32-year-old man undergoes vasectomy as a
means of permanent birth control. A physician
performing the vasectomy by making an incision on each side of the scrotum should remember which of the following statements most applicable to the scrotum?
A. It is innervated by the ilioinguinal and
genitofemoral nerves.
B. It receives blood primarily from the testicular
artery.
C. Its venous blood drains primarily into the renal
vein on the left.
D. Its dartos tunic is continuous with the perineal
membrane.
A. It is innervated by the ilioinguinal and
genitofemoral nerves.
A 22-year-old victim of an automobile accident
has received destructive damage to structures
that form the boundary of the perineum. Which of
the following structures is spared?
A. Pubic arcuate ligament
B. Tip of the coccyx
C. Ischial tuberosities
D. Sacrospinous ligament
D. Sacrospinous ligament
A 32-year-old patient with multiple fractures of
the pelvis has no cutaneous sensation in the
urogenital triangle. The function of which of the
following nerves is most likely to be spared?
A. Ilioinguinal nerve
B. Iliohypogastric nerve
C. Pudendal nerve
D. Genitofemoral nerve
B. Iliohypogastric nerve
While performing a pelvic exenteration, the
surgical oncologist notices a fractured or ruptured boundary of the pelvic inlet. Which of the following structures is most likely damaged?
A. Promontory of the sacrum
B. Anterior-inferior iliac spine
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Iliac crest
A. Promontory of the sacrum
A 48-year-old college football coach undergoes a
radical prostatectomy for a malignant tumor in his
prostate. Following surgery, he is incapable of
achieving an erection. Which of the following
nerves is most likely damaged during the
surgery?
A. Sacral splanchnic nerve
B. Pelvic splanchnic nerve
C. Pudendal nerve
D. Dorsal nerve of the penis
B. Pelvic splanchnic nerve
A 72-year-old man comes to his physician for an annual checkup. Which of the following structures is most readily palpated during rectal examination? A. Prostate gland B. Epididymis C. Ejaculatory duct D. Ureter
A. Prostate gland
A 53-year-old bank teller is admitted to a local
hospital for surgical removal of a benign pelvic
tumor confined within the broad ligament. There
is a risk of injuring which of the following
structures that lies in this ligament?
A. Proximal part of the pelvic ureter
B. Terminal part of the round ligament of the uterus
C. Uterine tube
D. Suspensory ligament of the ovary
C. Uterine tube
A 23-year-old woman visits her obstetrician for
an annual checkup. During vaginal examination, which of the following structures may be palpated?
A. Fundus of the uterus
B. Terminal part of the round ligament of the uterus
C. Body of the clitoris
D. Uterine cervix
D. Uterine cervix
A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency
department with rupture of the penile urethra.
Extravasated urine from this injury can spread
into which of the following structures?
A. Scrotum
B. Ischiorectal fossa
C. Pelvic cavity
D. Testis
A. Scrotum
Which among the following muscles, which insert
on the quadriceps tendon on the patella, does
NOT have a crucial role in knee stability?
A. Vastus medialis
B. Vastus intermedius
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Vastus femoris
C. Vastus lateralis
When walking, you have to tilt up your pelvis on
the side of the body not planted on the ground,
slightly abducting the thigh and medially rotating
it. These muscles have an important role in
stabilizing the pelvis during locomotion. This
involves contraction of what muscles?
A. Gluteus maximus and minimus muscles.
B. Gluteus minimus and medius muscles.
C. Gluteus maximus and medius muscles.
D. Gluteus minimus and piriformis muscles
B. Gluteus minimus and medius muscles.
What muscles constitute the floor of the femoral
triangle?
A. Iliopsoas, iliacus, pectineus
B. Iliopsoas, Sartorius, pectineus
C. Iliopsoas, adductor longus, pectineus
D. Iliopsoas, adductor brevis, pectineus
C. Iliopsoas, adductor longus, pectineus
Which of the following is NOT a deep lateral rotator muscle of the gluteal region? A. Quadratus femoris B. Gemellus superior C. Gemellus inferior D. Obturator externus
D. Obturator externus
Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the sacral plexus? A. Obturator internus B. Quadriceps femoris C. Gemellus superior D. Gemellus inferior
B. Quadriceps femoris
Which among the following is NOT a deep gluteal muscle? * A. Superior gemellus B. Obturator internus C. Inferior gemellus D. Quadriceps femoris
D. Quadriceps femoris
What muscle is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve? A. Gluteus medius B. Gluteus maximus C. Gluteus minimus D. Piriformis
B. Gluteus maximus
Which among the muscles in the anterior compartment of the thigh is NOT supplied by the femoral nerve? A. Iliacus B. Psoas C. Pectineus D. Quadratus femoris
B. Psoas
What muscle in the medial compartment of the thigh originates from the pubis? A. Adductor longus B. Gracilis C. Adductor brevis D. Obturator externus
A. Adductor longus
Which spinal nerve roots form the lumbar plexus? A. L1 – L5 B. L1 – L4 C. L2 – L5 D. L4 – L5
B. L1 – L4
Which among the following nerves of the lower limbs have motor function? A. Ilioinguinal and Iliohypogastric B. Femoral and iliohypogastric C. Femoral and obturator D. Genitofemoral and obturator
C. Femoral and obturator
The sacral plexus contains contributions from which spinal nerve roots? A. L1 – L4 B. L2 – S1 C. L4 – S4 D. L5 – S4
C. L4 – S4
Which nerve of the sacral plexus innervates the external urethral sphincter? A. Superior gluteal B. Sciatic C. Inferior gluteal D. Pudendal
D. Pudendal
Which among the following is NOT a branch of
the internal iliac artery that supplies the gluteal
and posterior thigh?
A. Superior gluteal artery
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Perforating arteries
D. Inferior gluteal artery
C. Perforating arteries
What is the most distal branch of the femoral
artery before it enters the obturator hiatus?
A. Lateral Circumflex Femoral Artery
B. Medial Circumflex Femoral Artery
C. Descending Genicular Artery
D. Obturator Artery
C. Descending Genicular Artery
Which among the following nerves of the Sacral
Plexus have both motor and sensory functions?
A. Superior Gluteal and Inferior Gluteal Nerves
B. Sciatic and Obturator Nerves
C. Superior Gluteal and Posterior Femoral
Cutaneous Nerves
D. Inferior Gluteal and Posterior Femoral
B. Sciatic and Obturator Nerves
Which among the following structures passes through the adductor hiatus? A. Saphenous Nerve B. Profunda femoral Artery C. Both A and B D. None of the above
C. Both A and B
After passing through the obturator canal, divisions of the obturator nerve (an anterior branch and a posterior branch) pass on either side of this muscle: A. Pectineus muscle B. Adductor brevis muscle C. Gracilis muscle D. Adductor magnus muscle
B. Adductor brevis muscle
Injury to the tibial nerve in the popliteal fossa
might result in:
A. Loss of eversion
B. (diminished sensation) on the dorsal aspect of
the foot
C. Inability to stand on one’s toes
D. Foot drop
C. Inability to stand on one’s toes
The fibular artery: A. Supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg B. Passes anterior to the interosseous membrane C. Usually becomes dorsalis pedis D. Courses through the deep posterior compartment of the leg
D. Courses through the deep posterior
compartment of the leg
What anatomical landmark marks the transition
from the femoral vein to the external iliac vein?
A. Adductor hiatus
B. Femoral triangle
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Anterior superior iliac spine
C. Inguinal ligament
Which of the following is the lateral border of the femoral triangle? A. Inguinal ligament B. Sartorius C. Adductor magnus D. Rectus femoris
B. Sartorius
Which of the following bony structures forms a posterior border of the femoral canal? A. Inferior pubic ramus B. Superior pubic ramus C. Ischial tuberosity D. Anterior inferior iliac spine
B. Superior pubic ramus
Which of the following is contained within the femoral canal? A. Femoral nerve B. Femoral artery C. Femoral vein D. Lacunar lymph node
D. Lacunar lymph node
Which muscle of the quadriceps crosses both the hip and the knee joints? A. Vastus medialis B. Vastus lateralis C. Rectus femoris D. Vastus intermedius
C. Rectus femoris
What are the nerve roots of the nerve which innervates the quadriceps muscles? * A. L1 – L3 B. L2 – L4 C. L3 – L5 D. L4 – S3
B. L2 – L4
A 43-year-old woman presents with a prolapsed
uterus. Repair of a prolapsed uterus requires
knowledge of the supporting structures of the
uterus. Which of the following structures plays
the most important role in the support of the
uterus?
A. Levator ani
B. Sphincter urethrae
C. Uterosacral ligament
D. Ovarian ligament
A. Levator ani
What is the anterior ‘anatomical’ border of the perineum? A. Tip of the coccyx B. Pubic symphysis C. Mons pubis D. Pubic tubercle
B. Pubic symphysis
Which surface marking represents the posterior
border of the perineum?
A. Mons pubis
B. Dimples of Venus
C. Superior end of the intergluteal cleft
D. Medial aspect the thigh
C. Superior end of the intergluteal cleft
Which of the following is NOT contained within the anal triangle? A. Anal aperture B. Ischioanal fossae C. External anal sphincter D. Bartholin’s glands
D. Bartholin’s glands
From where in the hip bone does the gluteus medius originate? A. Iliac fossa B. Anterior aspect of the iliac crest C. Greater sciatic notch D. External surface of the ileal wing
D. External surface of the ileal wing
Which of the following correctly describes the
apex of the sacrum?
A. Located laterally, it articulates with the ilium
B. Articulates with the fifth lumbar vertebra
C. Provide attachment for pelvic ligaments and
muscles
D. Articulates with the coccyx
D. Articulates with the coccyx
Which of the following is the remnant of the fused sacral intervertebral discs? Sacral cornu Posterior sacral foramen Transverse ridge Intermediate sacral crests
Transverse ridge
How many vertebrae normally/frequently comprise the coccyx? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
C. 4
What is the function of the anococcygeal raphe?
A. Support the urethra
B. Support the anus
C. Attach coccyx to sacrum
D. It has no function
B. Support the anus
Which of the following describes the urogenital
hiatus?
A. A centrally positioned gap which allows passage
of the anal canal
B. An anterior gap which allows passage of the
urethra
C. A funnel shaped muscular structure that
attaches to the walls of the lesser pelvis
D. A fibrous node that joins the pelvic floor to the
perineum
B. An anterior gap which allows passage of the
urethra
Which vessel crosses over the ureter at the level of the pelvic brim? A. Uterine artery B. Common iliac artery C. Ovarian artery D. Renal vein
C. Ovarian artery
A 75-year-old man is having a urinary catheter
inserted for urinary retention. Which part of the
urethra has the narrowest diameter?
A. Prostatic
B. Membranous
C. Penile
D. Bulbous
B. Membranous
The blood supply of Little’s area
(Kiesselbach’s plexus / anteroinferior part of the nasal septum) is best described by
A. Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries
from the ophthalmic artery
B. The sphenopalatine branch of the
maxillary artery
C. Sphenopalatine artery and septal branch of the superior labial branch of the facial artery
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
D. All of the above
The septum of the nasal cavity is innervated by A. nasopalatine nerve from cranial nerve V2 B. posterior ethmoidal nerve from V1 C. greater palatine nerve from V2 D. lesser palatine nerve from V2 E. none of the above
A. nasopalatine nerve from cranial nerve V2
The posterior cricoarytenoid muscles * A. Abduct the vocal cords B. Adduct the vocal cords C. Tensor of the vocal cords D. Relaxors of the vocal cords E. Act as a sphincter
A. Abduct the vocal cords
The superior laryngeal nerve A. Divides into internal and recurrent laryngeal nerves B. Supplies the cricothyroid muscle via an external laryngeal branch C. Supplies all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx D. Is sensory to larynx below the vocal cords E. None of the above
B. Supplies the cricothyroid muscle via
an external laryngeal branch
The surface markings of the trachea include A. Origin at lower end of the cricoid at C4 vertebra B. Origin at C6 vertebra level C. Termination at T2 at expiration D. Termination at T4 level at maximal inspiration E. 3rd to 5th rings covered anteriorly by isthmus of the thyroid
B. Origin at C6 vertebra level
What runs through the foramen spinosum? 1 point A. Internal carotid artery B. Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve C. Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve D. Middle meningeal artery E. Meningeal nerve
D. Middle meningeal artery
The internal jugular vein
A. Drains into the subclavian vein on the
left
B. Lies in the carotid sheath with the carotid
artery and the sympathetic trunk
C. Lies lateral to the internal carotid artery
at the base of the skull
D. Lies lateral to the carotid artery in the
lower neck
E. Lies anterior to the sternocleidomastoid
D. Lies lateral to the carotid artery in the
lower neck
The seventh cervical vertebra A. Is typical B. Has a bifid spinous process C. Transmits the vertebral artery through the foramen in the transverse process D. Has the supra-pleural membrane attached to the anterior tubercle E. Has a short spinous process
D. Has the supra-pleural membrane
attached to the anterior tubercle
The atlas A. Has no foramen in the transverse process B. Is the narrowest cervical vertebra C. Has a body D. Has a posterior arch grooved by the vertebral artery E. Has a short spinous process
D. Has a posterior arch grooved by the
vertebral artery
Branches of the carotid artery include *
A. Inferior thyroid artery B. Ascending pharyngeal artery C. Internal thoracic D. Superficial cervical E. Thymic artery
B. Ascending pharyngeal artery
The blood supply to the nasal cavity A. Is only from the external carotid B. Mainly enters through the nostril C. Does not communicate with intracranial vessels D. Mainly enters the sphenopalatine foramen E. Arrives to Little’s area from ophthalmic artery branches
D. Mainly enters the sphenopalatine
foramen
Protection of the airway during
swallowing is not facilitated by *
A. The sphincteric action of the aryepiglottic muscles
B. closure of the glottis
C. Elevation of the larynx
D. Contraction of the cricothyroid muscle
E. Posterior bulging of the tongue assisting
closure of the larynx
D. Contraction of the cricothyroid muscle
Structure of the larynx includes A. The inlet being bounded posteriorly by the epiglottis B. The posterior cricoarytenoid being an adductor of the vocal cords C. The aryepiglottic fold contains the cuneiform cartilage D. The rim of the vestibule being the fissure between the two vocal cords E. The cricoid cartilage not being circumferential
D. The rim of the vestibule being the
fissure between the two vocal cords
The trachea A. Commences below the cricoid at the level of C5 B. Enters the thoracic inlet slightly to the left C. Is marked at its lower end by the level of the sternal angle D. Is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve E. Drains to axillary lymph nodes
C. Is marked at its lower end by the level
of the sternal angle
All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery EXCEPT: A. Superior thyroid artery B. Hypoglossal artery C. Facial artery D. Lingual artery E. Ascending pharyngeal artery
B. Hypoglossal artery
Regarding triangles of the neck all of the
following structures are boundaries of the
triangle named: *
A. Submental triangle, mandible
B. Anterior triangle, mandible
C Digastric triangle, mandible
D. Carotid triangle, sternocleidomastoid
E. Anterior triangle, sternocleidomastoid
A. Submental triangle, mandible
All of the following are contents of the posterior triangle of the neck EXCEPT: A. Delphian node B. Accessory nerve C. Cervical plexus D. Inferior belly of omohyoid E. Transverse cervical vessels
A. Delphian node
Which one of the following opens into the inferior meatus of the nose A. Frontal sinus B. Ethmoidal sinus C. Maxillary sinus D. Nasolacrimal duct E. Auditory tube
D. Nasolacrimal duct
A fracture through the roof of the maxillary sinus might result in sensory loss to the A. Tympanic membrane B. Lacrimal gland C. Upper molar teeth D. Skin overlying the zygomatic bone E. Upper incisors and canine teeth
E. Upper incisors and canine teeth
All of the following structures pass through the jugular foramen EXCEPT: A. Jugular vein B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Accessory nerve E. Vagus nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
Regarding the basilar artery, all the below are true EXCEPT: A. Gives off branches to the anterior spinal artery B. Divides to give off both posterior cerebral arteries C. Supplies branches to the pons D. Formed by the union of the vertebral arteries E. Lies on the ventral aspect of the cerebral peduncle
A. Gives off branches to the anterior
spinal artery
In the circle of Willis
A. The basilar artery divides into right and
left posterior cerebellar arteries
B. The middle cerebral arteries branch off
and supply the motor but not sensory
cortex
C. The anterior communicating artery
unites the middle cerebral artery to the
internal cerebral artery
D. It encircles the inferior brainstem at C2-3 level
E. The internal carotid artery gives off
the ophthalmic artery before dividing
into anterior and middle cerebral
arteries
E. The internal carotid artery gives off
the ophthalmic artery before dividing
into anterior and middle cerebral
arteries
Regarding the facial vein, all of the following are true EXCEPT: A. It drains into the internal jugular vein B. It has no valves C. It communicates with the cavernous sinus via the ophthalmic vein D. It runs inferoposteriorly anterior to the facial artery E. It communicates with the pterygoid plexus via the deep facial vein
D. It runs inferoposteriorly anterior to
the facial artery
The 2nd cervical vertebra A. Has a very small spinous process B. Articulates with the occiput C. Has a bifid spinous process D. It referred to as the atlas E. Has a dens that occupies the posterior 1/3 of the canal
C. Has a bifid spinous process
Regarding the larynx
A. All muscles are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve B. Thyroarytenoid muscle alters the tension of the vocal cord C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve passes anterior to the cricothyroid joint D. During swallowing, the epiglottis acts as a passive flap E. All of the larynx is covered by pseudostratified columnar epithelium
B. Thyroarytenoid muscle alters the
tension of the vocal cord
Regarding the vertebral column all are
correct EXCEPT:
A. The facet joints in the lumbar spine lie in an anteroposterior plane
B. The vertebral arteries ascend through
the foramen in the transverse processes of the upper six cervical vertebrae
C. The spinous processes of the cervical
vertebrae are usually bifid
D. Thoracic vertebrae I, II and XII have
single costal facets on their pedicles
E. The sacrum has 5 sets of anterior and
posterior sacral foramina, one
corresponding to each of the sacral
segments
E. The sacrum has 5 sets of anterior and
posterior sacral foramina, one
corresponding to each of the sacral
segments
The internal jugular vein *
A. Is surrounded by the thickest portion of carotid sheath B. Receives drainage from all the parathyroid glands C. Is crossed posteriorly by the accessory nerve D. Is crossed anteriorly by the thoracic duct E. Contains valves within its lumen
C. Is crossed posteriorly by the
accessory nerve
Venous drainage of the face A. Is both deep and superficial B. Empties ultimately into the internal jugular vein alone C. Communicates indirectly with the cavernous sinus via the deep facial vein D. Communicates directly with the cavernous sinus via the supraorbital veins E. All of the above
C. Communicates indirectly with the
cavernous sinus via the deep facial vein
The larynx
A. Is a respiratory organ whose essential
function is phonation
B. Extends from the anterior upper
border of the epiglottis to the level of C6
C. Consists of two single cartilages, the
thyroid and cricoid
D. Is hauled up beneath the tongue with the epiglottis tilted anterior and upwards during swallowing
E. Is supplied by the external laryngeal
nerve except for the cricothyroid muscle
which is supplied by the recurrent laryngeal
nerve
B. Extends from the anterior upper
border of the epiglottis to the level of C6
Regarding the larynx
A. The external laryngeal nerve supplies
the posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
B. The internal laryngeal nerve supplies
cricothyroid
C. The blood supply above the vocal cords is by a branch of the internal carotid
D. Normal vocal cords are always
covered by stratified squamous epithelium
E. The recurrent laryngeal nerve lies
immediately behind the cricoarytenoid joint
D. Normal vocal cords are always
covered by stratified squamous epithelium
In the skull A. The anterior fontanelle usually closes by X 2 months – posterior; anterior 9- 18mos B. The pterion overlies the middle meningeal artery C. The round foramen transmits the mandibular branch of the fifth cranial nerve D. The cribriform plate is part of the sphenoid bone E. All of the above are correct
B. The pterion overlies the middle
meningeal artery
The orbit contains all of the following EXCEPT: A. Branches of the facial nerve B. The optic nerve C. The third cranial nerve D. Bulbar fascia E. The inferior rectus muscle
A. Branches of the facial nerve
Which is true of the trachea?
A. Begins at the level of C7
B. Isthmus of the thyroid lies anterior to
the 2nd, 3rd and 4th rings
C. Has 15-20 complete cartilaginous rings
D. Receives its blood supply from the
inferior thyroid artery alone
E. Pulmonary artery bifurcates anterior to
its lower end
B. Isthmus of the thyroid lies anterior to
the 2nd, 3rd and 4th rings
Which does not travel through the jugular foramen? A. Hypoglossal nerve B. Accessory nerve C. Inferior petrosal sinus D. Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Vagus nerve
A. Hypoglossal nerve
The nasal septum consists of: A. the maxilla B. the vomer and ethmoid bones C. the sphenoid and ethmoid bones D. the frontal, zygoma and maxilla E. the vomer and palatine bones
B. the vomer and ethmoid bones
The sensory innervation of the auricle of
the ear includes:
A. Auricolotermporal nerve (V3)
B. Great auricular nerve (C2)
C. Facial nerve via tympanic plexus (VII)
D. Auricular branch of vagus (X)
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Regarding the trigeminal nerve:
A. Branches emerge from the parotid gland
B. The mandibular nerve has three
cutaneous branches
C. The supratrochlear nerve supplies
midline forehead and scalp
D. The infratrochlear nerve is a branch of
the maxillary nerve
E. The bridge of the nose is supplied by the external nasal nerve
B. The mandibular nerve has three
cutaneous branches
Which of the following combinations is
correct regarding the paranasal sinuses and where they drain to?
A. Maxillary sinus; middle meatus
B. Anterior ethmoidal air cells; inferior
meatus
C. Posterior ethmoidal air cells; oral cavity
D. Sphenoid sinus; frontonasal recess
E. Frontal sinus; lacrimal duct
A. Maxillary sinus; middle meatus
Contents of the digastric triangle include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Facial artery B. Submandibular lymph nodes C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Nerve to mylohyoid
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
The internal carotid artery *
A. Is medial to the external carotid artery at its origin
B. Gives rise to the superior thyroid artery
C. Lies outside the carotid sheath
D. Passes through the carotid canal in
the base of the skull
E. Lies in the anterior part of the cavernous
sinus
D. Passes through the carotid canal in
the base of the skull
The C7 cervical vertebra is atypical in that A. It has bifid spinous process B. The foramen in the transverse process does not transmit the vertebral artery C. The anterior tubercle is large D. It has kidney shaped facets E. The posterior tubercle gives origin to scalenus anterior
B. The foramen in the transverse
process does not transmit the vertebral
artery
Regarding the mandible:
A. The coronoid process is the attachment
of temporalis and is posterior to the head of the mandible
B. It is a U-shaped bone without a
symphysis
C. The facial artery can be palpated
crossing the lower border just posterior to
masseter
D. It has a mandibular foramen on its
lateral surface
E. Buccinator is attached to its angle
E. Buccinator is attached to its angle
The thyroid gland
A. Is penetrated by the recurrent
laryngeal nerve
B. Is supplied by the middle thyroid
artery
C. Has its isthmus adherent to the 3rd, 4th
and 5th tracheal rings
D. Originates from the caudal end of the
thyroglossal duct
E. Is contained within the prevertebral fascia
A. Is penetrated by the recurrent
laryngeal nerve
Which of the following combinations is
correct regarding the paranasal sinuses and where they drain to?
A. Maxillary sinus; middle meatus
B. Anterior ethmoidal air cells; inferior
meatus
C. Posterior ethmoidal air cells; oral cavity
D. Sphenoid sinus; frontonasal recess
E. Frontal sinus; lacrimal duct
A. Maxillary sinus; middle meatus
The inferior oblique
A. Arises from the maxilla on the floor of
the orbit, near the anterior margin
B. Is attached to the posterosuperior medial
quadrant of the sclera
C. Is supplied by the abducent nerve (CN
VI)
D. Turns the eye upwards and in
E. Is supplied by the posterior ciliary artery
A. Arises from the maxilla on the floor of
the orbit, near the anterior margin
The most important mechanism for airway protection is A. Depression of larynx B. Adduction of vestibular folds C. Elevation of larynx D. Movement of epiglottis E. Abduction of vocal cords
C. Elevation of larynx
The recurrent laryngeal nerve
A. Lies in front of the pretracheal fascia
B. Approaches the thyroid gland from above
C. Runs in the groove between the
trachea and esophagus
D. Passes anterior the cricothyroid joint
E. Contains only sensory fibers
E. Contains only sensory fibers
Larynx A. Continues with the trachea at C6 B. Its major role is for vocalization C. Lies behind the thyroid gland D. All the muscles are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve E. Blood supply is from the inferior thyroid artery
A. Continues with the trachea at C6
Which muscle abducts the vocal cords? A. Transverse arytenoids B. Cricothyroid C. Lateral cricoarytenoid D. Posterior cricoarytenoid E. Thyroarytenoid
D. Posterior cricoarytenoid
The cricoid cartilage *
A. Articulates with the thyroid cartilage via
fibrocartilage joints
B. Is an incomplete cartilaginous ring
C. Projects anteriorly as a quadrangular flat part
D. Provides attachment for anterior
cricoarytenoid muscle
E. Articulates superiorly with the inferior
horn of the thyroid cartilage
E. Articulates superiorly with the inferior
horn of the thyroid cartilage
The carotid triangle contains A. Subclavian artery B. Omohyoid muscle C. Occipital artery D. Internal laryngeal nerve E. Anterior jugular vein
D. Internal laryngeal nerve
The cervical sympathetic trunk A. Descends from the upper posterior triangle to the first rib B. Runs lateral to the vertebral artery C. Lies behind the carotid sheath D. Lies behind the prevertebral fascia E. Ends at the inferior cervical ganglion
C. Lies behind the carotid sheath
The carotid sheath *
A. Extends from the base of the skull to the bifurcation of common carotid B. Contains the stylohyoid ligament C. Contains only three cranial nerves D. Is attached to the aorta E. Contains the sympathetic trunk
D. Is attached to the aorta
Regarding the vertebrae
A. Spinal nerves emerge through foramina between the vertebral laminae
B. The anterior longitudinal ligament extends from the anterior tubercle of the atlas to the upper part of the lumbar spine
C. Articular processes are joined to adjacent vertebrae by synovial joints
D. The ligamentum flavum joins borders of adjacent spinous processes
E. A typical thoracic vertebra has foramina
in the transverse processes
C. Articular processes are joined to adjacent vertebrae by synovial joints
When performing a lumbar puncture the spinal needle should not pass through the A. Ligamentum flavum B. Posterior longitudinal ligament C. Supraspinous ligament D. Interspinous ligament E. Skin
B. Posterior longitudinal ligament
All the following are branches of the external carotid artery EXCEPT: A. Lingual artery B. Facial artery C. Ascending pharyngeal artery D. Hypoglossal artery E. Superior thyroid artery
D. Hypoglossal artery
The alar ligaments connect the A. Bodies of the axis to foramen magnum B. Dens to foramen magnum C. Adjacent vertebral bodies posteriorly D. Tips of adjacent spinous processes E. Adjacent laminae
B. Dens to foramen magnum
All the following arebboundaries of the named triangle except: A. Mandible and submental triangle B. Mandible and anterior triangle C. Mandible and digastric triangle D. Sternocleidomastoid and carotid triangle E. Sternocleidomastoid and anterior
A. Mandible and submental triangle
All the following are contents of the posterior triangle EXCEPT: A. Accessory nerve B. Cervical plexus C. Inferior belly of omohyoid D. Transverse cervical vessels E. Occipital lymph nodes
E. Occipital lymph nodes
