1ST-4TH BIMEX Flashcards
A 21-year-old soccer player is tackled via a high impact sweeping injury about the right knee, causing a posterior knee dislocation. Soon after, he is unable to plantar flex his right ankle or flex his toes. He also experiences loss of sensation on the sole of his right foot. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured? A. Saphenous nerve B. Tibial nerve C. Deep peroneal nerve D. Common peroneal nerve
B. Tibial nerve
Mr. Gavino Ang was riding the front seat of his son's van when the vehicle abruptly stopped. Unfortunately, he was not wearing his seatbelt and was thrown forward. As a result of the accident, the transverse processes of his cervical vertebrae were crushed against the dashboard of the van. Which of the following muscles might be paralyzed? A. Trapezius B. Latissimus dorsi C. Rhomboid major D. Levator scapulae
D. Levator scapulae
A 26-year-old woman experiences severe back pain from an automobile accident. A computed tomography (CT) scan reveals that the L5 vertebral foramen is completely obliterated by a collapsed L5 laminae and pedicles. In this injury, which of the following structures is crushed?
A. Vertebral artery
B. Filum terminale externus (filum of the dura)
C. Denticulate ligament
D. Cauda equina
D. Cauda equina
A forensic pathologist is examining the pelvic bone of a murder victim to identify the sex of the victim. Which of the following characteristics is that of a female pelvis? A. Oval-shaped pelvic inlet B. Smaller pelvic outlet C. Lesser pubic angle D. Narrower and deeper pelvic cavity
A. Oval-shaped pelvic inlet
A patient has a damaged pelvic outlet as the result of an automobile accident. Following this accident, which of the following structures is still intact? A. Sacrotuberous ligament B. Inferior pubic ramus C. Pubic crest D. Ischial tuberosity
C. Pubic crest
A young couple is seeing a sex therapist for the first time to determine the cause of some of their recent difficulties. The husband tells the therapist that he no longer has sensation in his scrotum after a race car accident. Which of the following nerves carries undamaged sensory nerve fibers?
A. Ilioinguinal nerve B. Genitofemoral nerve C. Iliohypogastric nerve D. Perineal branch of the posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
C. Iliohypogastric nerve
At a local hospital tumor board, a gynecologic oncologist discusses the next case for the multidisciplinary team. He explains the rationale for using chemotherapy and radiation after surgical resection because carcinoma of the uterus can spread directly to the labia majora through lymphatics that follow the: A. Ovarian ligament B. Suspensory ligament of the ovary C. Round ligament of the uterus D. Uterosacral ligaments
C. Round ligament of the uterus
The weather has been awful in the last few days,
and the number of trauma patients in the emergency room has risen dramatically because of the increased number of motor vehicle accidents. During a quick orientation by the attending physician, the rotating residents are told that many of the patients suffer from blunt trauma to the pelvis resulting from crush injuries from the steering column. In males, if the urethra is torn distal to the urogenital diaphragm, urine might accumulate in the:
A. Retropubic space
B. Medial aspect of the thigh
C. Ischiorectal fossa
D. Superficial perineal space
D. Superficial perineal space
A 27-year-old farmer falls on tractor blades and
injures his groin. Several days later, he comes to the emergency room, and examination by a physician reveals that the urogenital diaphragm and bulbourethral glands are infected. The infected deep perineal space:
A. Is formed superiorly by the perineal membrane
B. Is formed inferiorly by Colles’ fascia
C. Contains a segment of the dorsal nerve of
the penis
D. Contains superficial transverse perineal muscles
C. Contains a segment of the dorsal nerve of
the penis
Which of the following describes the urogenital
hiatus?
A. A centrally positioned gap which allows passage
of the anal canal.
B. An anterior gap which allows passage of the
urethra.
C. A funnel shaped muscular structure that
attaches to the walls of the lesser pelvis.
D. A fibrous node that joins the pelvic floor to the
perineum
B. An anterior gap which allows passage of the
urethra.
Complete the sentence: The ureters descend
through the abdomen, along the anterior surface
of the ______________ muscle.
A. transversus abdominis
B. psoas major
C. internal oblique
D. quadratus lumborum
B. psoas major
A 75-year-old man is having a urinary catheter
inserted for urinary retention. Which part of the
urethra has the narrowest diameter?
A. Prostatic urethra
B. Membranous urethra
C. Penile urethra
D. Bulbous urethra
B. Membranous urethra
What is the epithelial lining of the urethra? A. Simple cuboidal epithelium B. Stratified squamous epithelium C. Stratified columnar epithelium D. Simple squamous epithelium
C. Stratified columnar epithelium
Complete the sentence: The area that the female
urethra opens onto is known as the __________________?
A. Bartholin’s glands.
B. labia minora.
C. clitoris.
D. vestibule.
D. vestibule.
Which of the following statements correctly
describes the apex of the bladder?
A. The internal triangular area with smooth walls.
B. Connected to umbilicus by the median
umbilical ligament.
C. Where the bladder is continuous with the
urethra.
D. Triangular in shape and directed posteriorly.
B. Connected to umbilicus by the median
umbilical ligament.
Which muscle undergoes relaxation during the storage phase of micturition? A. Detrusor muscle B. Rectourethralis muscle C. External urethral sphincter muscle D. Levator ani muscle
A. Detrusor muscle
Which branch of the internal iliac artery is MOST
associated as the arterial supply to the bladder?
A. Internal pudendal artery
B. Hypogastric artery
C. Superior vesical artery
D. Lateral sacral artery
C. Superior vesical artery
Which of the following structures is at risk of
iatrogenic damage during an open hysterectomy?
A. Uterine artery
B. Pudendal artery
C. Ureter
D. Pudendal nerve
C. Ureter
Which of the following structures is found anterior to the vaginal canal? A. Rectum B. Ureter C. Urinary Bladder D. Perineal body
C. Urinary Bladder
Which of these muscles in men can remove
residual urine from urethra after urination and is
responsible for the pulsatile emission of semen
during ejaculation?
A. Urethral sphincter muscle
B. Ischiocavernosus muscle
C. Bulbospongiosus muscle
D. Transverse perineal muscle
C. Bulbospongiosus muscle
Which of these nerves innervates the external
genitalia of both sexes, as well as the sphincters
for the bladder and the rectum?
A. Sciatic nerve
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Perineal nerve
D. Pudendal nerve
D. Pudendal nerve
Which of the following vessels crosses over the ureter at the pelvic brim? A. Uterine artery B. Common iliac artery C. Ovarian artery D. Renal artery
C. Ovarian artery
What gluteal muscle extends and laterally rotates the thigh? A. Gluteus minimus B. Gluteus maximus C. Gluteus medius D. Tensor fascia lata
B. Gluteus maximus
Which statement is NOT correct regarding the
femoral triangle?
A. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly.
B. It is bounded by the Sartorius laterally.
C. It is bounded by the pectineus, iliopsoas and
adductor longus as its base.
D. It is also bounded by the fascia lata laterally.
D. It is also bounded by the fascia lata laterally.
Which among the following statements best
describes the contents of the femoral triangle?
A. The long saphenous vein drains into the femoral
vein outside the triangle.
B. The femoral artery is the main blood supply
of the lower limbs.
C. The femoral nerve innervates the posterior
compartment of the thigh.
D. The superficial lymph nodes are found within the
triangle.
B. The femoral artery is the main blood supply
of the lower limbs.
Which of the following statements does NOT
describe the hip joint?
A. It is a ball and socket joint
B. It is an articulation between the head of the
femur and the acetabulum of the pelvic bone.
C. The articulating surfaces are covered with
fibrous cartilage.
D. The acetabulum fossa is a depression at the hip
joint that is the point of union of the ilium, ischium
and pubic bones.
C. The articulating surfaces are covered with
fibrous cartilage.
In a proximal femoral fracture, what artery when
damaged can cause avascular necrosis of the
femoral head?
A. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
B. Medial circumflex femoral artery
C. Profunda femoris artery
D. Femoral artery
B. Medial circumflex femoral artery
Which of the following nerves does NOT supply the hip joint? A. Sciatic nerve B. Femoral nerve C. Obturator nerve D. Common peroneal nerve
D. Common peroneal nerve
Which of the following is NOT an extracapsular ligament of the hip joint? A. Ligamentum teres B. Iliofemoral ligament C. Pubofemoral ligament D. Ischiofemoral ligament
A. Ligamentum teres
Which among the following is not true regarding
the iliofemoral ligament?
A. It arises from the anterior inferior iliac spine.
B. It prevents hyperextension of the hip joint.
C. It inserts into the intertrochanteric line of the
femur.
D. It stabilizes and holds the femoral head in the
acetabulum.
D. It stabilizes and holds the femoral head in the
acetabulum.
Which among the following is not a hamstring muscle of the thigh? A. Gluteus maximus B. Semimembranosus C. Semitendinosus D. Biceps femoris
A. Gluteus maximus
Which of the following muscles does NOT medially rotate the hip joint? A. Gluteus medius B. Gluteus minimus C. Gluteus maximus D. Semitendinosus
C. Gluteus maximus
A 78-year-old man has carcinoma of the rectum.
The cancer is likely to metastasize via the veins
into which of the following structures?
A. Spleen
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Duodenum
C. Liver
A general surgeon is giving a lecture to a team of
surgery residents. She describes characteristics
of structures above the pectinate line of the anal
canal, which include:
A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Lymphatic drainage into the superficial inguinal
nodes
C. Visceral sensory innervation
D. External hemorrhoids
C. Visceral sensory innervation
An elderly man with prostatitis is seen at an internal medicine clinic. The seminal colliculus of
his prostate gland is infected, and its fine openings are closed. Which of the following structures is/are most likely to be disturbed?
A. Ducts of the prostate gland
B. Prostatic utricle
C. Ducts of the bulbourethral glands
D. Ejaculatory ducts
D. Ejaculatory ducts
A trauma surgeon in the emergency room at a
local center examines a 14-year-old boy with extensive pelvic injuries after a hit and run accident. The surgeon inspects the ischiorectal fossa because it:
A. Accumulates urine leaking from rupture of the
bulb of the penis
B. Contains the inferior rectal vessels
C. Has a pudendal canal along its medial wall
D. Is bounded anteriorly by the sacrotuberous
ligament
B. Contains the inferior rectal vessels
An obstetrician is about to perform a pudendal
block so a woman can experience less pain
when she delivers her child. He recalls what he
learned in medical school about this nerve.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. It passes superficial to the sacrotuberous
ligament.
B. It provides motor fibers to the coccygeus.
C. It can be blocked by injecting an anesthetic
near the inferior margin of the ischial spine.
D. It arises from the lumbar plexus.
C. It can be blocked by injecting an anesthetic
near the inferior margin of the ischial spine.
A 21-year-old man is involved in a highspeed
motor vehicle accident. As a result, he has extensive damage to his sphincter urethrae. Which of the following best describes the injured sphincter urethrae?
A. Smooth muscle
B. Innervated by the perineal nerve
C. Lying between the perineal membrane and
Colles’ fascia
D. Enclosed in the pelvic fascia
B. Innervated by the perineal nerve
A 26-year-old man comes to a hospital with fever, nausea, pain, and itching in the perineal region. On examination by a urologist, he is diagnosed as having infected bulbourethral (Cowper's) glands. Which of the following structures is/are affected by this infection? A. Superficial perineal space B. Sphincter urethrae C. Testis D. Seminal vesicles
B. Sphincter urethrae
A neurosurgeon performs surgical resection of a
rare meningeal tumor in the sacral region. He
tries to avoid an injury of the nerve that arises
from the lumbosacral plexus and remains within
the abdominal or pelvic cavity. To which of the
following nerves should he pay particular
attention to?
A. Ilioinguinal nerve
B. Genitofemoral nerve
C. Lumbosacral trunk
D. Femoral nerve
C. Lumbosacral trunk
During pelvic surgery, a surgeon notices severe
bleeding from the artery that remains within the
true pelvis. Which of the following arteries is
most likely to be injured?
A. Obturator artery
B. Uterine artery
C. Internal pudendal artery
D. Inferior gluteal artery
B. Uterine artery
A woman is delivering a breech baby. The
obstetrician decides that it is best to perform a
mediolateral episiotomy. Which of the following
structures should the obstetrician avoid incising?
A. Vaginal wall
B. Superficial transverse perineal muscle
C. Bulbospongiosus
D. Levator ani
D. Levator ani
A 37-year-old woman complains of a bearing down sensation in her womb and an increased frequency of and burning sensation on urination. On examination by her gynecologist, she is diagnosed with a uterine prolapse. Which of the following structures provides the primary support for the cervix of the uterus?
A. Broad ligament of the uterus
B. Cardinal (transverse cervical) ligament
C. Round ligament of the uterus
D. Suspensory ligament of the ovary
B. Cardinal (transverse cervical) ligament
What muscle originates from the greater trochanter of the femur? A. Vastus lateralis B. Vastus medialis C. Piriformis D. Gluteus maximus
A. Vastus lateralis
What area in the femur does the quadratus femoris inserts to? A. Quadrate tubercle B. Greater trochanter C. Lesser trochanter D. Pectineal line
A. Quadrate tubercle
Which of the following does NOT articulate with the distal end of the femur? A. Tibia B. Fibula C. Patella D. Menisci of the knee
B. Fibula
What ligament of the knee is attached to the
medial aspect of the lateral condyle of the distal
femur?
A. Anterior cruciate ligament
B. Posterior cruciate ligament
C. Patellar ligament
D. Tibial collateral ligament
A. Anterior cruciate ligament
Which of the following is NOT a function of the
iliotibial tract?
A. It allows extensor, abductor, and lateral rotator
movements of the hip.
B. It extends centrally into the thigh to form the
lateral intermuscular septum.
C. It forms a muscular sheath for the tensor fascia
lata.
D. It does not provide adequate venous return
from the lower limbs to the heart.
D. It does not provide adequate venous return
from the lower limbs to the heart.
What structures in the pelvis and hip region
provide posterior attachment to the tensor fascia
lata?
A. Sacrum and coccyx
B. Iliac crest
C. Inguinal ligament, superior pubic rami
D. Inferior ischiopubic rami, ischial tuberosity,
sacrotuberous ligament
A. Sacrum and coccyx
What membranous tissue covers the hiatus of the fascia lata in the thigh? A. Intermuscular septum B. Cribriform fascia C. Muscular sheath D. Crural fascia
B. Cribriform fascia
What is the lateral palpable projection of the femur? A. Greater trochanter B. Lesser trochanter C. Head D. Neck
A. Greater trochanter
What is the longest bone in the body? A. Humerus B. Femur C. Tibia D. Fibula
B. Femur
What muscles in the upper outer quadrant of the
gluteal region is an intermuscular injection done?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Gluteus moximus
C. Gluteus minimus
D. Gluteus maximus
D. Gluteus maximus
A 32-year-old man undergoes vasectomy as a
means of permanent birth control. A physician
performing the vasectomy by making an incision on each side of the scrotum should remember which of the following statements most applicable to the scrotum?
A. It is innervated by the ilioinguinal and
genitofemoral nerves.
B. It receives blood primarily from the testicular
artery.
C. Its venous blood drains primarily into the renal
vein on the left.
D. Its dartos tunic is continuous with the perineal
membrane.
A. It is innervated by the ilioinguinal and
genitofemoral nerves.
A 22-year-old victim of an automobile accident
has received destructive damage to structures
that form the boundary of the perineum. Which of
the following structures is spared?
A. Pubic arcuate ligament
B. Tip of the coccyx
C. Ischial tuberosities
D. Sacrospinous ligament
D. Sacrospinous ligament
A 32-year-old patient with multiple fractures of
the pelvis has no cutaneous sensation in the
urogenital triangle. The function of which of the
following nerves is most likely to be spared?
A. Ilioinguinal nerve
B. Iliohypogastric nerve
C. Pudendal nerve
D. Genitofemoral nerve
B. Iliohypogastric nerve
While performing a pelvic exenteration, the
surgical oncologist notices a fractured or ruptured boundary of the pelvic inlet. Which of the following structures is most likely damaged?
A. Promontory of the sacrum
B. Anterior-inferior iliac spine
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Iliac crest
A. Promontory of the sacrum
A 48-year-old college football coach undergoes a
radical prostatectomy for a malignant tumor in his
prostate. Following surgery, he is incapable of
achieving an erection. Which of the following
nerves is most likely damaged during the
surgery?
A. Sacral splanchnic nerve
B. Pelvic splanchnic nerve
C. Pudendal nerve
D. Dorsal nerve of the penis
B. Pelvic splanchnic nerve
A 72-year-old man comes to his physician for an annual checkup. Which of the following structures is most readily palpated during rectal examination? A. Prostate gland B. Epididymis C. Ejaculatory duct D. Ureter
A. Prostate gland
A 53-year-old bank teller is admitted to a local
hospital for surgical removal of a benign pelvic
tumor confined within the broad ligament. There
is a risk of injuring which of the following
structures that lies in this ligament?
A. Proximal part of the pelvic ureter
B. Terminal part of the round ligament of the uterus
C. Uterine tube
D. Suspensory ligament of the ovary
C. Uterine tube
A 23-year-old woman visits her obstetrician for
an annual checkup. During vaginal examination, which of the following structures may be palpated?
A. Fundus of the uterus
B. Terminal part of the round ligament of the uterus
C. Body of the clitoris
D. Uterine cervix
D. Uterine cervix
A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency
department with rupture of the penile urethra.
Extravasated urine from this injury can spread
into which of the following structures?
A. Scrotum
B. Ischiorectal fossa
C. Pelvic cavity
D. Testis
A. Scrotum
Which among the following muscles, which insert
on the quadriceps tendon on the patella, does
NOT have a crucial role in knee stability?
A. Vastus medialis
B. Vastus intermedius
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Vastus femoris
C. Vastus lateralis
When walking, you have to tilt up your pelvis on
the side of the body not planted on the ground,
slightly abducting the thigh and medially rotating
it. These muscles have an important role in
stabilizing the pelvis during locomotion. This
involves contraction of what muscles?
A. Gluteus maximus and minimus muscles.
B. Gluteus minimus and medius muscles.
C. Gluteus maximus and medius muscles.
D. Gluteus minimus and piriformis muscles
B. Gluteus minimus and medius muscles.
What muscles constitute the floor of the femoral
triangle?
A. Iliopsoas, iliacus, pectineus
B. Iliopsoas, Sartorius, pectineus
C. Iliopsoas, adductor longus, pectineus
D. Iliopsoas, adductor brevis, pectineus
C. Iliopsoas, adductor longus, pectineus
Which of the following is NOT a deep lateral rotator muscle of the gluteal region? A. Quadratus femoris B. Gemellus superior C. Gemellus inferior D. Obturator externus
D. Obturator externus
Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the sacral plexus? A. Obturator internus B. Quadriceps femoris C. Gemellus superior D. Gemellus inferior
B. Quadriceps femoris
Which among the following is NOT a deep gluteal muscle? * A. Superior gemellus B. Obturator internus C. Inferior gemellus D. Quadriceps femoris
D. Quadriceps femoris
What muscle is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve? A. Gluteus medius B. Gluteus maximus C. Gluteus minimus D. Piriformis
B. Gluteus maximus
Which among the muscles in the anterior compartment of the thigh is NOT supplied by the femoral nerve? A. Iliacus B. Psoas C. Pectineus D. Quadratus femoris
B. Psoas
What muscle in the medial compartment of the thigh originates from the pubis? A. Adductor longus B. Gracilis C. Adductor brevis D. Obturator externus
A. Adductor longus
Which spinal nerve roots form the lumbar plexus? A. L1 – L5 B. L1 – L4 C. L2 – L5 D. L4 – L5
B. L1 – L4
Which among the following nerves of the lower limbs have motor function? A. Ilioinguinal and Iliohypogastric B. Femoral and iliohypogastric C. Femoral and obturator D. Genitofemoral and obturator
C. Femoral and obturator
The sacral plexus contains contributions from which spinal nerve roots? A. L1 – L4 B. L2 – S1 C. L4 – S4 D. L5 – S4
C. L4 – S4
Which nerve of the sacral plexus innervates the external urethral sphincter? A. Superior gluteal B. Sciatic C. Inferior gluteal D. Pudendal
D. Pudendal
Which among the following is NOT a branch of
the internal iliac artery that supplies the gluteal
and posterior thigh?
A. Superior gluteal artery
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Perforating arteries
D. Inferior gluteal artery
C. Perforating arteries
What is the most distal branch of the femoral
artery before it enters the obturator hiatus?
A. Lateral Circumflex Femoral Artery
B. Medial Circumflex Femoral Artery
C. Descending Genicular Artery
D. Obturator Artery
C. Descending Genicular Artery
Which among the following nerves of the Sacral
Plexus have both motor and sensory functions?
A. Superior Gluteal and Inferior Gluteal Nerves
B. Sciatic and Obturator Nerves
C. Superior Gluteal and Posterior Femoral
Cutaneous Nerves
D. Inferior Gluteal and Posterior Femoral
B. Sciatic and Obturator Nerves
Which among the following structures passes through the adductor hiatus? A. Saphenous Nerve B. Profunda femoral Artery C. Both A and B D. None of the above
C. Both A and B
After passing through the obturator canal, divisions of the obturator nerve (an anterior branch and a posterior branch) pass on either side of this muscle: A. Pectineus muscle B. Adductor brevis muscle C. Gracilis muscle D. Adductor magnus muscle
B. Adductor brevis muscle
Injury to the tibial nerve in the popliteal fossa
might result in:
A. Loss of eversion
B. (diminished sensation) on the dorsal aspect of
the foot
C. Inability to stand on one’s toes
D. Foot drop
C. Inability to stand on one’s toes
The fibular artery: A. Supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg B. Passes anterior to the interosseous membrane C. Usually becomes dorsalis pedis D. Courses through the deep posterior compartment of the leg
D. Courses through the deep posterior
compartment of the leg
What anatomical landmark marks the transition
from the femoral vein to the external iliac vein?
A. Adductor hiatus
B. Femoral triangle
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Anterior superior iliac spine
C. Inguinal ligament
Which of the following is the lateral border of the femoral triangle? A. Inguinal ligament B. Sartorius C. Adductor magnus D. Rectus femoris
B. Sartorius
Which of the following bony structures forms a posterior border of the femoral canal? A. Inferior pubic ramus B. Superior pubic ramus C. Ischial tuberosity D. Anterior inferior iliac spine
B. Superior pubic ramus
Which of the following is contained within the femoral canal? A. Femoral nerve B. Femoral artery C. Femoral vein D. Lacunar lymph node
D. Lacunar lymph node
Which muscle of the quadriceps crosses both the hip and the knee joints? A. Vastus medialis B. Vastus lateralis C. Rectus femoris D. Vastus intermedius
C. Rectus femoris
What are the nerve roots of the nerve which innervates the quadriceps muscles? * A. L1 – L3 B. L2 – L4 C. L3 – L5 D. L4 – S3
B. L2 – L4
A 43-year-old woman presents with a prolapsed
uterus. Repair of a prolapsed uterus requires
knowledge of the supporting structures of the
uterus. Which of the following structures plays
the most important role in the support of the
uterus?
A. Levator ani
B. Sphincter urethrae
C. Uterosacral ligament
D. Ovarian ligament
A. Levator ani
What is the anterior ‘anatomical’ border of the perineum? A. Tip of the coccyx B. Pubic symphysis C. Mons pubis D. Pubic tubercle
B. Pubic symphysis
Which surface marking represents the posterior
border of the perineum?
A. Mons pubis
B. Dimples of Venus
C. Superior end of the intergluteal cleft
D. Medial aspect the thigh
C. Superior end of the intergluteal cleft
Which of the following is NOT contained within the anal triangle? A. Anal aperture B. Ischioanal fossae C. External anal sphincter D. Bartholin’s glands
D. Bartholin’s glands
From where in the hip bone does the gluteus medius originate? A. Iliac fossa B. Anterior aspect of the iliac crest C. Greater sciatic notch D. External surface of the ileal wing
D. External surface of the ileal wing
Which of the following correctly describes the
apex of the sacrum?
A. Located laterally, it articulates with the ilium
B. Articulates with the fifth lumbar vertebra
C. Provide attachment for pelvic ligaments and
muscles
D. Articulates with the coccyx
D. Articulates with the coccyx
Which of the following is the remnant of the fused sacral intervertebral discs? Sacral cornu Posterior sacral foramen Transverse ridge Intermediate sacral crests
Transverse ridge
How many vertebrae normally/frequently comprise the coccyx? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
C. 4
What is the function of the anococcygeal raphe?
A. Support the urethra
B. Support the anus
C. Attach coccyx to sacrum
D. It has no function
B. Support the anus
Which of the following describes the urogenital
hiatus?
A. A centrally positioned gap which allows passage
of the anal canal
B. An anterior gap which allows passage of the
urethra
C. A funnel shaped muscular structure that
attaches to the walls of the lesser pelvis
D. A fibrous node that joins the pelvic floor to the
perineum
B. An anterior gap which allows passage of the
urethra
Which vessel crosses over the ureter at the level of the pelvic brim? A. Uterine artery B. Common iliac artery C. Ovarian artery D. Renal vein
C. Ovarian artery
A 75-year-old man is having a urinary catheter
inserted for urinary retention. Which part of the
urethra has the narrowest diameter?
A. Prostatic
B. Membranous
C. Penile
D. Bulbous
B. Membranous
The blood supply of Little’s area
(Kiesselbach’s plexus / anteroinferior part of the nasal septum) is best described by
A. Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries
from the ophthalmic artery
B. The sphenopalatine branch of the
maxillary artery
C. Sphenopalatine artery and septal branch of the superior labial branch of the facial artery
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
D. All of the above
The septum of the nasal cavity is innervated by A. nasopalatine nerve from cranial nerve V2 B. posterior ethmoidal nerve from V1 C. greater palatine nerve from V2 D. lesser palatine nerve from V2 E. none of the above
A. nasopalatine nerve from cranial nerve V2
The posterior cricoarytenoid muscles * A. Abduct the vocal cords B. Adduct the vocal cords C. Tensor of the vocal cords D. Relaxors of the vocal cords E. Act as a sphincter
A. Abduct the vocal cords
The superior laryngeal nerve A. Divides into internal and recurrent laryngeal nerves B. Supplies the cricothyroid muscle via an external laryngeal branch C. Supplies all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx D. Is sensory to larynx below the vocal cords E. None of the above
B. Supplies the cricothyroid muscle via
an external laryngeal branch
The surface markings of the trachea include A. Origin at lower end of the cricoid at C4 vertebra B. Origin at C6 vertebra level C. Termination at T2 at expiration D. Termination at T4 level at maximal inspiration E. 3rd to 5th rings covered anteriorly by isthmus of the thyroid
B. Origin at C6 vertebra level
What runs through the foramen spinosum? 1 point A. Internal carotid artery B. Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve C. Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve D. Middle meningeal artery E. Meningeal nerve
D. Middle meningeal artery
The internal jugular vein
A. Drains into the subclavian vein on the
left
B. Lies in the carotid sheath with the carotid
artery and the sympathetic trunk
C. Lies lateral to the internal carotid artery
at the base of the skull
D. Lies lateral to the carotid artery in the
lower neck
E. Lies anterior to the sternocleidomastoid
D. Lies lateral to the carotid artery in the
lower neck
The seventh cervical vertebra A. Is typical B. Has a bifid spinous process C. Transmits the vertebral artery through the foramen in the transverse process D. Has the supra-pleural membrane attached to the anterior tubercle E. Has a short spinous process
D. Has the supra-pleural membrane
attached to the anterior tubercle
The atlas A. Has no foramen in the transverse process B. Is the narrowest cervical vertebra C. Has a body D. Has a posterior arch grooved by the vertebral artery E. Has a short spinous process
D. Has a posterior arch grooved by the
vertebral artery
Branches of the carotid artery include *
A. Inferior thyroid artery B. Ascending pharyngeal artery C. Internal thoracic D. Superficial cervical E. Thymic artery
B. Ascending pharyngeal artery
The blood supply to the nasal cavity A. Is only from the external carotid B. Mainly enters through the nostril C. Does not communicate with intracranial vessels D. Mainly enters the sphenopalatine foramen E. Arrives to Little’s area from ophthalmic artery branches
D. Mainly enters the sphenopalatine
foramen
Protection of the airway during
swallowing is not facilitated by *
A. The sphincteric action of the aryepiglottic muscles
B. closure of the glottis
C. Elevation of the larynx
D. Contraction of the cricothyroid muscle
E. Posterior bulging of the tongue assisting
closure of the larynx
D. Contraction of the cricothyroid muscle
Structure of the larynx includes A. The inlet being bounded posteriorly by the epiglottis B. The posterior cricoarytenoid being an adductor of the vocal cords C. The aryepiglottic fold contains the cuneiform cartilage D. The rim of the vestibule being the fissure between the two vocal cords E. The cricoid cartilage not being circumferential
D. The rim of the vestibule being the
fissure between the two vocal cords
The trachea A. Commences below the cricoid at the level of C5 B. Enters the thoracic inlet slightly to the left C. Is marked at its lower end by the level of the sternal angle D. Is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve E. Drains to axillary lymph nodes
C. Is marked at its lower end by the level
of the sternal angle
All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery EXCEPT: A. Superior thyroid artery B. Hypoglossal artery C. Facial artery D. Lingual artery E. Ascending pharyngeal artery
B. Hypoglossal artery
Regarding triangles of the neck all of the
following structures are boundaries of the
triangle named: *
A. Submental triangle, mandible
B. Anterior triangle, mandible
C Digastric triangle, mandible
D. Carotid triangle, sternocleidomastoid
E. Anterior triangle, sternocleidomastoid
A. Submental triangle, mandible
All of the following are contents of the posterior triangle of the neck EXCEPT: A. Delphian node B. Accessory nerve C. Cervical plexus D. Inferior belly of omohyoid E. Transverse cervical vessels
A. Delphian node
Which one of the following opens into the inferior meatus of the nose A. Frontal sinus B. Ethmoidal sinus C. Maxillary sinus D. Nasolacrimal duct E. Auditory tube
D. Nasolacrimal duct
A fracture through the roof of the maxillary sinus might result in sensory loss to the A. Tympanic membrane B. Lacrimal gland C. Upper molar teeth D. Skin overlying the zygomatic bone E. Upper incisors and canine teeth
E. Upper incisors and canine teeth
All of the following structures pass through the jugular foramen EXCEPT: A. Jugular vein B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Accessory nerve E. Vagus nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
Regarding the basilar artery, all the below are true EXCEPT: A. Gives off branches to the anterior spinal artery B. Divides to give off both posterior cerebral arteries C. Supplies branches to the pons D. Formed by the union of the vertebral arteries E. Lies on the ventral aspect of the cerebral peduncle
A. Gives off branches to the anterior
spinal artery
In the circle of Willis
A. The basilar artery divides into right and
left posterior cerebellar arteries
B. The middle cerebral arteries branch off
and supply the motor but not sensory
cortex
C. The anterior communicating artery
unites the middle cerebral artery to the
internal cerebral artery
D. It encircles the inferior brainstem at C2-3 level
E. The internal carotid artery gives off
the ophthalmic artery before dividing
into anterior and middle cerebral
arteries
E. The internal carotid artery gives off
the ophthalmic artery before dividing
into anterior and middle cerebral
arteries
Regarding the facial vein, all of the following are true EXCEPT: A. It drains into the internal jugular vein B. It has no valves C. It communicates with the cavernous sinus via the ophthalmic vein D. It runs inferoposteriorly anterior to the facial artery E. It communicates with the pterygoid plexus via the deep facial vein
D. It runs inferoposteriorly anterior to
the facial artery
The 2nd cervical vertebra A. Has a very small spinous process B. Articulates with the occiput C. Has a bifid spinous process D. It referred to as the atlas E. Has a dens that occupies the posterior 1/3 of the canal
C. Has a bifid spinous process
Regarding the larynx
A. All muscles are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve B. Thyroarytenoid muscle alters the tension of the vocal cord C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve passes anterior to the cricothyroid joint D. During swallowing, the epiglottis acts as a passive flap E. All of the larynx is covered by pseudostratified columnar epithelium
B. Thyroarytenoid muscle alters the
tension of the vocal cord
Regarding the vertebral column all are
correct EXCEPT:
A. The facet joints in the lumbar spine lie in an anteroposterior plane
B. The vertebral arteries ascend through
the foramen in the transverse processes of the upper six cervical vertebrae
C. The spinous processes of the cervical
vertebrae are usually bifid
D. Thoracic vertebrae I, II and XII have
single costal facets on their pedicles
E. The sacrum has 5 sets of anterior and
posterior sacral foramina, one
corresponding to each of the sacral
segments
E. The sacrum has 5 sets of anterior and
posterior sacral foramina, one
corresponding to each of the sacral
segments
The internal jugular vein *
A. Is surrounded by the thickest portion of carotid sheath B. Receives drainage from all the parathyroid glands C. Is crossed posteriorly by the accessory nerve D. Is crossed anteriorly by the thoracic duct E. Contains valves within its lumen
C. Is crossed posteriorly by the
accessory nerve
Venous drainage of the face A. Is both deep and superficial B. Empties ultimately into the internal jugular vein alone C. Communicates indirectly with the cavernous sinus via the deep facial vein D. Communicates directly with the cavernous sinus via the supraorbital veins E. All of the above
C. Communicates indirectly with the
cavernous sinus via the deep facial vein
The larynx
A. Is a respiratory organ whose essential
function is phonation
B. Extends from the anterior upper
border of the epiglottis to the level of C6
C. Consists of two single cartilages, the
thyroid and cricoid
D. Is hauled up beneath the tongue with the epiglottis tilted anterior and upwards during swallowing
E. Is supplied by the external laryngeal
nerve except for the cricothyroid muscle
which is supplied by the recurrent laryngeal
nerve
B. Extends from the anterior upper
border of the epiglottis to the level of C6
Regarding the larynx
A. The external laryngeal nerve supplies
the posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
B. The internal laryngeal nerve supplies
cricothyroid
C. The blood supply above the vocal cords is by a branch of the internal carotid
D. Normal vocal cords are always
covered by stratified squamous epithelium
E. The recurrent laryngeal nerve lies
immediately behind the cricoarytenoid joint
D. Normal vocal cords are always
covered by stratified squamous epithelium
In the skull A. The anterior fontanelle usually closes by X 2 months – posterior; anterior 9- 18mos B. The pterion overlies the middle meningeal artery C. The round foramen transmits the mandibular branch of the fifth cranial nerve D. The cribriform plate is part of the sphenoid bone E. All of the above are correct
B. The pterion overlies the middle
meningeal artery
The orbit contains all of the following EXCEPT: A. Branches of the facial nerve B. The optic nerve C. The third cranial nerve D. Bulbar fascia E. The inferior rectus muscle
A. Branches of the facial nerve
Which is true of the trachea?
A. Begins at the level of C7
B. Isthmus of the thyroid lies anterior to
the 2nd, 3rd and 4th rings
C. Has 15-20 complete cartilaginous rings
D. Receives its blood supply from the
inferior thyroid artery alone
E. Pulmonary artery bifurcates anterior to
its lower end
B. Isthmus of the thyroid lies anterior to
the 2nd, 3rd and 4th rings
Which does not travel through the jugular foramen? A. Hypoglossal nerve B. Accessory nerve C. Inferior petrosal sinus D. Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Vagus nerve
A. Hypoglossal nerve
The nasal septum consists of: A. the maxilla B. the vomer and ethmoid bones C. the sphenoid and ethmoid bones D. the frontal, zygoma and maxilla E. the vomer and palatine bones
B. the vomer and ethmoid bones
The sensory innervation of the auricle of
the ear includes:
A. Auricolotermporal nerve (V3)
B. Great auricular nerve (C2)
C. Facial nerve via tympanic plexus (VII)
D. Auricular branch of vagus (X)
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Regarding the trigeminal nerve:
A. Branches emerge from the parotid gland
B. The mandibular nerve has three
cutaneous branches
C. The supratrochlear nerve supplies
midline forehead and scalp
D. The infratrochlear nerve is a branch of
the maxillary nerve
E. The bridge of the nose is supplied by the external nasal nerve
B. The mandibular nerve has three
cutaneous branches
Which of the following combinations is
correct regarding the paranasal sinuses and where they drain to?
A. Maxillary sinus; middle meatus
B. Anterior ethmoidal air cells; inferior
meatus
C. Posterior ethmoidal air cells; oral cavity
D. Sphenoid sinus; frontonasal recess
E. Frontal sinus; lacrimal duct
A. Maxillary sinus; middle meatus
Contents of the digastric triangle include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Facial artery B. Submandibular lymph nodes C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Nerve to mylohyoid
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
The internal carotid artery *
A. Is medial to the external carotid artery at its origin
B. Gives rise to the superior thyroid artery
C. Lies outside the carotid sheath
D. Passes through the carotid canal in
the base of the skull
E. Lies in the anterior part of the cavernous
sinus
D. Passes through the carotid canal in
the base of the skull
The C7 cervical vertebra is atypical in that A. It has bifid spinous process B. The foramen in the transverse process does not transmit the vertebral artery C. The anterior tubercle is large D. It has kidney shaped facets E. The posterior tubercle gives origin to scalenus anterior
B. The foramen in the transverse
process does not transmit the vertebral
artery
Regarding the mandible:
A. The coronoid process is the attachment
of temporalis and is posterior to the head of the mandible
B. It is a U-shaped bone without a
symphysis
C. The facial artery can be palpated
crossing the lower border just posterior to
masseter
D. It has a mandibular foramen on its
lateral surface
E. Buccinator is attached to its angle
E. Buccinator is attached to its angle
The thyroid gland
A. Is penetrated by the recurrent
laryngeal nerve
B. Is supplied by the middle thyroid
artery
C. Has its isthmus adherent to the 3rd, 4th
and 5th tracheal rings
D. Originates from the caudal end of the
thyroglossal duct
E. Is contained within the prevertebral fascia
A. Is penetrated by the recurrent
laryngeal nerve
Which of the following combinations is
correct regarding the paranasal sinuses and where they drain to?
A. Maxillary sinus; middle meatus
B. Anterior ethmoidal air cells; inferior
meatus
C. Posterior ethmoidal air cells; oral cavity
D. Sphenoid sinus; frontonasal recess
E. Frontal sinus; lacrimal duct
A. Maxillary sinus; middle meatus
The inferior oblique
A. Arises from the maxilla on the floor of
the orbit, near the anterior margin
B. Is attached to the posterosuperior medial
quadrant of the sclera
C. Is supplied by the abducent nerve (CN
VI)
D. Turns the eye upwards and in
E. Is supplied by the posterior ciliary artery
A. Arises from the maxilla on the floor of
the orbit, near the anterior margin
The most important mechanism for airway protection is A. Depression of larynx B. Adduction of vestibular folds C. Elevation of larynx D. Movement of epiglottis E. Abduction of vocal cords
C. Elevation of larynx
The recurrent laryngeal nerve
A. Lies in front of the pretracheal fascia
B. Approaches the thyroid gland from above
C. Runs in the groove between the
trachea and esophagus
D. Passes anterior the cricothyroid joint
E. Contains only sensory fibers
E. Contains only sensory fibers
Larynx A. Continues with the trachea at C6 B. Its major role is for vocalization C. Lies behind the thyroid gland D. All the muscles are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve E. Blood supply is from the inferior thyroid artery
A. Continues with the trachea at C6
Which muscle abducts the vocal cords? A. Transverse arytenoids B. Cricothyroid C. Lateral cricoarytenoid D. Posterior cricoarytenoid E. Thyroarytenoid
D. Posterior cricoarytenoid
The cricoid cartilage *
A. Articulates with the thyroid cartilage via
fibrocartilage joints
B. Is an incomplete cartilaginous ring
C. Projects anteriorly as a quadrangular flat part
D. Provides attachment for anterior
cricoarytenoid muscle
E. Articulates superiorly with the inferior
horn of the thyroid cartilage
E. Articulates superiorly with the inferior
horn of the thyroid cartilage
The carotid triangle contains A. Subclavian artery B. Omohyoid muscle C. Occipital artery D. Internal laryngeal nerve E. Anterior jugular vein
D. Internal laryngeal nerve
The cervical sympathetic trunk A. Descends from the upper posterior triangle to the first rib B. Runs lateral to the vertebral artery C. Lies behind the carotid sheath D. Lies behind the prevertebral fascia E. Ends at the inferior cervical ganglion
C. Lies behind the carotid sheath
The carotid sheath *
A. Extends from the base of the skull to the bifurcation of common carotid B. Contains the stylohyoid ligament C. Contains only three cranial nerves D. Is attached to the aorta E. Contains the sympathetic trunk
D. Is attached to the aorta
Regarding the vertebrae
A. Spinal nerves emerge through foramina between the vertebral laminae
B. The anterior longitudinal ligament extends from the anterior tubercle of the atlas to the upper part of the lumbar spine
C. Articular processes are joined to adjacent vertebrae by synovial joints
D. The ligamentum flavum joins borders of adjacent spinous processes
E. A typical thoracic vertebra has foramina
in the transverse processes
C. Articular processes are joined to adjacent vertebrae by synovial joints
When performing a lumbar puncture the spinal needle should not pass through the A. Ligamentum flavum B. Posterior longitudinal ligament C. Supraspinous ligament D. Interspinous ligament E. Skin
B. Posterior longitudinal ligament
All the following are branches of the external carotid artery EXCEPT: A. Lingual artery B. Facial artery C. Ascending pharyngeal artery D. Hypoglossal artery E. Superior thyroid artery
D. Hypoglossal artery
The alar ligaments connect the A. Bodies of the axis to foramen magnum B. Dens to foramen magnum C. Adjacent vertebral bodies posteriorly D. Tips of adjacent spinous processes E. Adjacent laminae
B. Dens to foramen magnum
All the following arebboundaries of the named triangle except: A. Mandible and submental triangle B. Mandible and anterior triangle C. Mandible and digastric triangle D. Sternocleidomastoid and carotid triangle E. Sternocleidomastoid and anterior
A. Mandible and submental triangle
All the following are contents of the posterior triangle EXCEPT: A. Accessory nerve B. Cervical plexus C. Inferior belly of omohyoid D. Transverse cervical vessels E. Occipital lymph nodes
E. Occipital lymph nodes
Which of the following enters into the inferior meatus of the nose? A. Frontal sinus B. Ethmoidal sinus C. Maxillary sinus D. Nasolacrimal duct E. Auditory tube
D. Nasolacrimal duct
A fracture through the roof of the maxillary sinus might result in sensory loss to the A. Tympanic membrane B. Lacrimal gland C. Upper molar teeth D. Upper incisors and canine teeth E. Skin overlying the zygomatic bone
D. Upper incisors and canine teeth
All the following structures pass through the jugular foramen: A. Jugular vein B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Accessory nerve E. Vagus nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
Which is true of swallowing?
A. It is entirely voluntary
B. The oropharyngeal portion is voluntary
C. Peristalsis speeds as the bolus descends
D. The voluntary stage commences as food enters the esophagus
E. It is initially voluntary then
involuntary
E. It is initially voluntary then
involuntary
Which muscle controls vocal cord abduction? A. Aryepiglottic B. Transverse arytenoids C. Lateral cricoarytenoid D. Posterior cricoarytenoid E. Cricothyroid
D. Posterior cricoarytenoid
What exits the stylomastoid foramen? A. Middle meningeal artery B. Accessory nerve C. Facial nerve D. Artery to stapedius E. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Facial nerve
Regarding the bones of the skull:
A. the middle cranial fossa does not extend to the posterior cranial vault
B. the temporal lobe rests on the bony rather than the membranous part of the
middle cranial fossa
C. the posterior cranial fossa contains the cerebella and lies superior to the tentorium
cerebelli
D. the floor of the anterior cranial fossa is formed from the orbital plate of the parietal bone
E. the cribriform plate lies in the midline and is formed from the roof of the sphenoid
B. the temporal lobe rests on the bony rather than the membranous part of the
middle cranial fossa
Regarding the bones of the skull:
A. the anterior clinoid processes are formed by the lesser wings of the sphenoid
B. the posterior clinoid processes are formed from the occipital bone
C. the dorsum sellae is formed from the
anterior part of the occipital bone
D. the petrous temporal bone forms the
floor of the middle cranial fossa, but not the wall of the posterior cranial fossa
E. the inferior orbital fissure separates the lesser and greater wings of the sphenoid
A. the anterior clinoid processes are formed by the lesser wings of the sphenoid
Regarding the cervical spine:
A. all seven cervicalvertebrae have spinous processes
B. rotatory movements of the head occur mostly at the atlanto-occipital joints
C. the odontoid process (peg) is encased by a bony canal in the axis
D. all seven cervical vertebrae have foramina transversaria for the vertebral
artery to pass through it
E. spinous processes, where present, are all bifid except for C7
E. spinous processes, where present, are all bifid except for C7
Regarding the triangles of the neck:
A. the posterior triangle is bound by trapezius, sternocleidomastoid and the
middle quarter of clavicle
B. the anterior triangle is further divided into two smaller triangles, the carotid and submandibular triangles
C. the posterior belly of digastric (and stylohyoid) separates the carotid and
submandibular triangles
D. the accessory nerve (CNXI) divides the posterior triangle into approximately two
halves, and of these the lower contains little of importance
E. the investing fascia splits to enclose the sternomastoid and trapezius, but the parotid and submandibular glands lie deep to the fascia, in the anterior triangle
C. the posterior belly of digastric (and stylohyoid) separates the carotid and
submandibular triangles
Regarding anatomy of the neck, landmarks:
A. the arch of the cricoid cartilage is palpable as it protrudes forward of the
trachea
B. the cricoid cartilage marks the level of C5
C. the transverse process of the axis is the most prominent of the cervical transverse processes, and is palpable between angle
of mandible and mastoid
D. the body of hyoid is not palpable because it is hidden behind the thyroid
cartilage
E. the coracoid process of scapula is palpable within the deltopectoral triangle
A. the arch of the cricoid cartilage is palpable as it protrudes forward of the
trachea
Regarding fascia and sheaths in the
neck:
A. the pretracheal fascia contains both trachea and esophagus, and also splits
to envelop the lobes of the thyroid gland
B. the prevertebral fascia encloses vertebrae and muscles acting on the
vertebrae, but does not contribute to the investment over the brachial plexus as it
passes between scalene muscles
C. the investing fascia encloses trapezius sternomastoid and platysma muscles
D. the structures contained within the carotid sheath include carotid artery,
sympathetic chain and jugular vein, but not phrenic nerve or vagus
E. infection may track in the pretracheal space to mediastinum
A. the pretracheal fascia contains both trachea and esophagus, and also splits
to envelop the lobes of the thyroid gland
Which is not considered a content of the posterior triangle of the neck? A. Subclavian artery B. Trunks of the brachial plexus C. Internal jugular vein D. Branches of the cervical plexus E. Accessory nerve
C. Internal jugular vein
For the thyroid, which is TRUE?
A. The thyroid isthmus crosses the thyroid cartilage
B. The superior thyroid arteries are branches off the internal carotid arteries
C. The posterior surface lies on the carotid sheaths
D. The inferior thyroid arteries are branches off the external carotid arteries
E. The recurrent laryngeal nerves pass anteriorly to each lateral lobe
C. The posterior surface lies on the carotid sheaths
For the great neck vessels, which is TRUE?
A. The carotid sheath contains the ansa cervicalis, vagus and recurrent laryngeal nerves
B. The external carotid artery has three branches
C. The internal carotid artery has six branches
D. The internal jugular vein lies lateral to the carotid artery throughout its course
E. The carotid sinus lies at the commencement of the common carotid artery
D. The internal jugular vein lies lateral to the carotid artery throughout its course
The cervical sympathetic trunk:
A. Lies anterior to scalenus anterior
B. Is enclosed in the carotid sheath
C. Is lateral to the vertebral artery
D. Each ganglion gives off a cardiac branch
E. Disruption causes meiosis, ptosis and
increased sweating
D. Each ganglion gives off a cardiac branch
. The oculomotor nerve:
A. Does not enter the cavernous sinus
B. Supplies the ciliary muscle
C. Emerges from the pons
D. Contains sympathetic fibres from the edinger-westphal nucleus
E. Does not pass through the tendinous ring
B. Supplies the ciliary muscle
The chorda tympani carries:
A. Taste fibres for the posterior third of the tongue
B. Ordinary sensation for the anterior two thirds of the tongue
C. Taste fibres for the anterior two thirds of the tongue
D. Cervical sympathetic fibres
E. Motor fibres to the muscles of mastication
C. Taste fibres for the anterior two thirds of the tongue
Which is NOT a branch of the facial nerve? A. Nerve to stapedius B. Chorda tympani C. Nerve to levator angili oris D. Greater superficial petrosal nerve E. Auriculotemporal nerve
E. Auriculotemporal nerve
Regarding lymph drainage of head and neck, which is INCORRECT?
A. superficial cervical nodes lie along the external jugular veins
B. submandibular nodes are lateral to submental nodes
C. the left jugular lymph trunk usually drains into the thoracic duct
D. the jugulodigastric nodes lie on/near the tendon of omohyoid
E. preauricular nodes are outside and within the capsule of the parotid gland
D. the jugulodigastric nodes lie on/near the tendon of omohyoid
The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the: A. Middle cerebral artery B. Anterior cerebral artery C. Internal carotid artery D. Maxillary artery E. Superficial temporal artery
D. Maxillary artery
Which is NOT a content of the posterior triangle of the neck? A. Subclavian artery B. Lymph nodes C. Transverse cervical vein D. Omohyoid muscle E. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
E. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
Which laryngeal muscle abducts the vocal cords? A. Posterior cricoarytenoid B. Cricothyroid C. Transverse arytenoid D. Vocalis E. Thyroarytenoid
A. Posterior cricoarytenoid
The parotid gland:
A. Is the largest of the major salivary glands
B. Is a mainly mucons gland
C. Is a well-organized, regular gland, clearly divided into lobes
D. Drains into the parotid duct on its posteromedial surface
E. Extends from the zygomatic arch to the
lower level of the earlobe
A. Is the largest of the major salivary glands
Cutaneous sensation to the upper lip is supplied by the: A. Zygomaticofacial nerve B. Buccal nerve C. Infraorbital nerve D. Mental nerve E. External nasal nerve
C. Infraorbital nerve
Skin over the upper lateral eyelid is supplied by the: A. Lacrimal nerve B. Supraorbital nerve C. Supratrochlear nerve D. Zygomaticofacial nerve E. Zygomaticotemporal nerve
A. Lacrimal nerve
The facial nerve:
A. Marginal mandibular branch supplies
muscles of the upper and lower lips
B. Emerges through the stylomastoid
foramen
C. Has four main branches that exit the parotid gland
D. Supplies the anterior belly of digastric
E. Divides into temporofacial and cervicofacial divisions just after it enters the
parotid gland
B. Emerges through the stylomastoid foramen
The facial artery:
A. Is a branch of the internal carotid artery
B. Crosses the angle of the jaw at the posterior border of masseter muscle
C. Courses along inferior margin of parotid duct
D. Lies in front of the facial vein
E. None of the above
D. Lies in front of the facial vein
Regarding the superior orbital fissure, which is INCORRECT?
A. Its common tendinous ring binds the SOF content of nerves and muscles to
the contents of the optic canal
B. The origin of levator palpebrae superioris is its bony upper margin
C. Lacrimal, frontal and trochlear nerves pass through it
D. The oculomotor, abducens and nasociliary nerves lie within the cone of the
extraocular muscles
A. Its common tendinous ring binds the SOF content of nerves and muscles to
the contents of the optic canal
Regarding the extraocular muscles:
A. They all arise from a common tendinous ring around the superior
orbital fissure
B. The rectus muscles all pass laterally to their point of insertion because of the angle of the orbital apex within the skull
C. The superior oblique muscle passes through the trochlear, a fibrocartilage loop attached to the frontal bone lateral margin,
just behind the orbital margin
D. Except for superior oblique, all nerve supply to muscles enter from their optic side
D. Except for superior oblique, all nerve
supply to muscles enter from their optic
side
Which structure does NOT pass through the parotid gland?
A. retromandibular vein
B. temporozygomatic branch of facial nerve
C. cervicofacial branch of facial nerve
D. internal jugular vein
E. external carotid artery
D. internal jugular vein
Which structure is NOT in the carotid sheath? A. Internal jugular vein B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. External jugular vein E. Internal carotid artery
D. External jugular vein
Which is an intrinsic muscle of the tongue? A. Superior longitudinal muscle B. Genioglossus muscle C. Hyoglossus muscle D. Styloglossus muscle E. Palatoglossus muscle
A. Superior longitudinal muscle
Which laryngeal muscle is NOT supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve? A. Thyroarytenoid B. Cricothyroid C. Aryepiglottic D. Oblique arytenoid E. Posterior cricoarytenoid
Cricothyroid
95. The internal laryngeal nerve supplies: A. Sensation to the vocal folds B. Cricothyroid muscle C. Sensation above the vocal folds D. Transverse arytenoid muscle E. Sensation below the vocal folds
C. Sensation above the vocal folds
Which structure passes through the tendinous ring of the orbit? A. Ophthalmic artery B. Inferior rectus muscle C. Lacrimal nerve D. Trochlear nerve E. Superior oblique muscle
A. Ophthalmic artery
Which bone is not part of the medial wall of the orbit? A. Maxilla B. Lacrimal bone C. Sphenoid D. Palatine bone E. Ethmoid
D. Palatine bone
The hyoid bone is at what level? A. C2 vertebra B. C3 vertebra C. C4 vertebra D. C5 vertebra E. C6 vertebra
B. C3 vertebra
The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the: A. Internal carotid artery B. Middle cerebral artery C. Maxillary artery D. Deep temporal artery E. Facial artery
C. Maxillary artery
Which muscle helps to open the jaw? A. Medial pterygoid B. Lateral pterygoid C. Masseter D. Temporalis E. Buccinator
B. Lateral pterygoid
What is the normal length of the vertebral column?
A. 71 cm
B. 70 cm
C. 65 cm
D. 60 cm
A. 71 cm
What do you call the cone shaped tapering end of the spinal cord? A. Cauda equine B. Filum terminale C. Conus medullaris D. Lumbosacral plexus
C. Conus medullaris
What is the prominent feature of the second cervical vertebra? A. Presence of Odontoid Process B. It has a Typical Cervical Vertebra C. It has a bifid spinous process D. It has Costal Facets
A. Presence of Odontoid Process
What is a prominent feature of a Lumbar Vertebra? A. It has costal facets B. It has a Massive Body C. It has transverse foramina D. It has Long Spinous Process
B. It has a Massive Body
A 72-year-old male, smoker,
previously diagnosed to have Stage 3 Lung CA,
underwent cervical lymph node biopsy. A few days
after he complained of inability to shrug his
shoulders, drooping of the right neckline and
limited motion in turning his head to the right.
Which superficial muscle of the back is important
in allowing a shrugging motion of the shoulders?
A. Trapezius
B. Rhomboid minor
C. Rhomboid major
D. Levator scapulae
A. Trapezius
A 72-year-old male, smoker,
previously diagnosed to have Stage 3 Lung CA,
underwent cervical lymph node biopsy. A few days
after he complained of inability to shrug his
shoulders, drooping of the right neckline and
limited motion in turning his head to the right.
Which superficial muscle of the back is important
in allowing a shrugging motion of the shoulders? What is the function of the inferior fibers of said
muscle?
A. Elevate the scapula
B. Pull the scapula inferiorly
C. Retract the scapula
D. Medially rotate the scapula
A. Elevate the scapula
A 72-year-old male, smoker,
previously diagnosed to have Stage 3 Lung CA,
underwent cervical lymph node biopsy. A few days
after he complained of inability to shrug his
shoulders, drooping of the right neckline and
limited motion in turning his head to the right.
What is the innervation for the muscle concerned? A. CN XI B. Long thoracic nerve C. Dorsal scapular nerve D. Thoracodorsal nerve
A. CN XI
Which of the following is a minor intrinsic deep muscle of the back? A. Splenius capitis B. Spinalis C. Semispinalis D. Intertransversarii
D. Intertransversarii
Which of the following deep back muscles has a proprioceptive function? A. Rotatores B. Interspinalis C. Intercostalis D. Intertransversarii
D. Intertransversarii
Which of the following back muscles extends
and contralaterally rotates the head and vertebral
column?
A. Iliocostalis
B. Semispinalis
C. Multifidus
D. Rotatores
B. Semispinalis
Which of the following deep back muscles has a proprioceptive function? A. Rotatores B. Interspinalis C. Intercostalis D. Intertransversarii
A. Rotatores
What do you call the thickenings of the spinal pia mater? A. Articulate ligaments B. Denticulate ligaments C. Intermeningeal ligaments D. Articular ligaments
B. Denticulate ligaments
Which meningeal covering(s) of the spine is continuous with the epineurium? A. Dura mater B. Arachnoid mater C. Pia mater D. They are fuse with the epineurium
A. Dura mater
Which of the following is NOT a “postvertebral muscles” A. Erector spinae B. Interspinalis C. Transversospinalis D. Levatores Costarum
D. Levatores Costarum
What is the other name for C7 vertebra? A. Bifid Spinous process B. Large and triangular vertebral Foramen C. Small and wide vertebral body D. Vertebra Prominens
D. Vertebra Prominens
- In a C6 nerve root injury, involving weakness of
the wrist extensors and brachioradialis reflex,
what part of the dermatomal map of the upper extremity exhibits this injury:
A. Middle Finger
B. Medial Aspect of the forearm
C. Lateral aspect of the forearm
D. Lower lateral aspect of the upper arm
C. Lateral aspect of the forearm
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding the Trapezius muscle:
A. It originates from the medial third of the superior
nuchal line of the occipital bone.
B. Its upper fibers are directed downward and laterally
into the lateral third of the clavicle.
C. It suspends the shoulder girdle from the skull and
the vertebral column.
D. It is innervated by CN X
D. It is innervated by CN X
What muscle assists the trapezius in rotating
the scapula when the arm is raised above the
head:
A. Levator scapulae
B. Serratus anterior
C. Rhomboid major
D. Latissimus dorsi
B. Serratus anterior
What are the primary curvatures of the
A. Thoracic and sacral ◊ concave anteriorly
B. Cervical and lumbar ◊ convex posteriorly
C. Thoracic and lumbar ◊ concave posteriorly
D. Lumbar and sacral ◊ convex anteriorly
vertebral column?
A. Thoracic and sacral ◊ concave anteriorly
A 24-year-old full term pregnant female G1P0
comes into the emergency in active labor. You noticed that she has an exaggerated convex curvature of the lumbar vertebrae. 21. What is this condition called?
A. Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Disc herniation
B. Lordosis
The anesthesiologist makes an imaginary line from
the superior border of the pelvic bone to the midline of the spine. What do you call this line/plane?
A. Midscapular line
B. Midspinal line
C. Supracristal line
D. Midpelvic line
C. Supracristal line
The anesthesiologist decides to do regional anesthesia. What intervertebral space is it safe to do a spinal anesthesia? * A. L3-L4 B. L2-L3 C. L1-L2 D. T12-L1
A. L3-L4
What ligament of the vertebral column is not
traversed by the spinal needle, when the
anesthesiologist does a lumbar tap?
A. Supraspinous ligament
B. Interspinous ligament
C. Ligamentum flavum
D. Intertransverse ligament
D. Intertransverse ligament
What do you call the portion of the spinal cord that gives rise to the rootlets and roots that ultimately form one bilateral pair of spinal nerves? A. Ganglion B. Plexus C. Spinal cord segment D. Fascicle
C. Spinal cord segment
What artery gives rise to sulcal arteries in the
spinal cord?
A. Anterior spinal artery
B. Posterior spinal artery
C. Vertebral artery
D. Posteroinferior cerebellar artery
A. Anterior spinal artery
What is the purpose of the lateral spinothalamic tract? *
A. For proprioception
B. For touch, pain and pressure
C. For coordinated limb movements
D. For visceral pain and vibratory sense
B. For touch, pain and pressure
What do you call the central portion of the intervertebral discs? A. Nucleus pulposus B. Centrum C. Annulus fibrosus D. Central canal
A. Nucleus pulposus
In the thoracic vertebrae, what is the direction
of the spinous processes?
A. Superiorly
B. Inferiorly
C. Anteriorly
D. Posteriorly
B. Inferiorly
A 56-year-old female complains of severe back
pain associated with radiating sensation on the
lateral part of lower leg and dorsum of the foot. What nerve root is probably involved?
A. S1
B. L5
C. L4
D. L3
A. S1
B. L5
This synovial pivot joint articulates between
the rounded head of the ulna and the ulnar notch
on the radius and its capsule encloses the joint
but is deficient superiorly. Where is this joint
located?
A. Humero-ulnar joint
B. Proximal radio-ulnar joint
C. Humero-radial joint
D. Distal radio-ulnar joint
D. Distal radio-ulnar joint
Which of the following small muscles of the hand DO NOT insert nor is it attached to the base of the proximal phalanx of the thumb: A. Abductor pollicis brevis B. Flexor pollicis brevis C. Opponens pollicis D. Adductor pollicis
C. Opponens pollicis
A 40-year-old woman complaints of “pins and
needles” and burning pain on lateral three and half
fingers and weakness of the thenar muscles. She was diagnosed with “Carpal Tunnel Syndrome”. Which among the following tendons passes through the carpal tunnel? *
A. Flexor Pollicis Longus and Flexor Digitorum
Superficialis
B. Flexor Pollicis Brevis and Flexor Digitorum
Superficialis
C. Flexor Pollicis Brevis and Flexor Digitorum
Profundus
D. Flexor Pollicis Longus and Flexor Pollicis Brevis
A. Flexor Pollicis Longus and Flexor Digitorum
What muscle at of the posterior compartment
of the forearm originates from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and inserts to the posterior surface of the base of the third metacarpal bone, where its movement is to extend and abduct the hand at the wrist joint? *
A. Extensor digitorum
B. Extensor carpi radialis longus
C. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
D. Extensor digiti minimi
C. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
What is the correct arrangement of proximal
carpal bones from lateral to medial?
A. Scaphoid, Lunate, Capitate, Pisiform
B. Scaphoid, Triquetrum, Lunate, Pisiform
C. Scaphoid, Lunate, Hamate, Pisiform
D. Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform
D. Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform
A 65-year-old, male, amateur golfer, complaints
of limitation of movement on his right shoulder after a game. On examination, positive apprehension test was positive on shoulder, right. MRI revealed a massive rotator cuff tear,
Right.What muscles composes the “Rotator
Cuff”? *
A. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus and Teres Major
B. Supraspinatus, Subscapularis and Teres major
C. Infraspinatus, Subscapularis and Teres Minor
D. Infraspinatus, Supraspinatus, Teres Major
C. Infraspinatus, Subscapularis and Teres Minor
The Quadrangular space is an intermuscular space located immediately below the glenohumeral joint, and its contents are the axillary nerve and vessels. Which of the following is true regarding its boundaries? *
A. Medially- long head of the triceps and laterally:
surgical neck of the humerus
B. Superiorly - capsule of the joint, Subscapularis
muscle and inferiorly by Teres minor muscle
C. Medial - short head of the biceps and lateral:
surgical neck of the humerus
D. Superiorly - Supraspinatus and capsule of the joint
and inferiorly by the Teres Major muscle
A. Medially- long head of the triceps and laterally:
These muscles connect the upper limb to the thoracic wall:
A. Trapezius and Pectoralis Major
B. Serratus Anterior and Pectoralis Major
C. Latissimus dorsi and Subclavius
D. Levator Scapulae and Pectoralis Minor
B. Serratus Anterior and Pectoralis Major
What muscle inserts at the lesser tuberosity of
the humerus, where its actions are to medially
rotate the arm and stabilizes shoulder joint:
A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres minor
D. Subscapularis
D. Subscapularis
What is the normal range of motion for lateral rotation of the arm? A. 30 degrees B. 40 degrees C. 50 degrees D. 60 degrees
B. 40 degrees
A 28-year-old weightlifter complains of a “sudden snap” at the distal biceps muscle while lifting a 20 kgs. dumbbell. What is the main function of long head biceps brachii muscle?
A. Arm flexion and weak adductor
B. Shoulder flexion and weak supinator of forearm
C. Forearm supinator, elbow flexion and weak
shoulder flexion
D. Weak shoulder Flexion, Weak Adduction
C. Forearm supinator, elbow flexion and weak
Which of the following statements is true about
the boundaries of the cubital fossa?
A. Brachioradialis muscle forms the medial border
B. Pronator teres muscle forms the lateral border
C. Supinator muscle forms the floor of the fossa
D. Imaginary line drawn between the two condyles of
the humerus
C. Supinator muscle forms the floor of the fossa
This structure unites the shaft of the radius
and ulna and provides attachment for the
neighboring muscles:
A. Interosseous Membrane
B. Extensor Retinaculum
C. Flexor retinaculum
D. Synovial sheath
A. Interosseous Membrane
What artery principally supplies the superficial palmar arterial arch? A. Ulnar artery B. Radial artery C. Palmar carpal artery D. Dorsal carpal artery
A. Ulnar artery
What blood vessel is a continuation of the ulnar end of the dorsal venous arch? A. Cephalic vein B. Median cubital vein C. Basilic vein D. Brachial vein
C. Basilic vein
What deep veins in the upper limbs accompany
the arteries?
A. Median cubital vein
B. Brachial Vein
C. Venae Comitantes
D. Axillary vein
C. Venae Comitantes
Which among the following is a branch from the root of the brachial plexus? A. Dorsal scapular nerve B. Lateral pectoral nerve C. Suprascapular nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve
A. Dorsal scapular nerve
What is the nerve supply of the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm? A. Musculocutaneous nerve B. Radial nerve C. Ulnar nerve D. Median nerve
A. Musculocutaneous nerve
Which of the following is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus? A. Lateral head of the median nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Medial head of the median nerve D. Radial nerve
D. Radial nerve
This nerve supplies all the muscles in the posterior compartments of the arm and forearm: A. Radial nerve B. Median nerve C. Musculocutaneous nerve D. Axillary nerve
A. Radial nerve
What nerve supplies most of the muscles of the anterior forearm compartment and the 3 ½ muscles of the hand? A. Median nerve B. Radial nerve C. Ulnar nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve
A. Median nerve
What is the nerve supply of the adductor pollicismuscle? A. Median nerve B. Radial nerve C. Ulnar nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
After breast surgery, a patient was noted to have “winging” of the scapula. What nerve was probably “damaged”? * A. Long thoracic nerve B. Axillary nerve C. Radial nerve D. Ulnar nerve
A. Long thoracic nerve
How many bones are present in the upper extremity? A. 28 B. 30 C. 32 D. 29
B. 30
Which of the following statements describes
the scapula best?
A. It is a flat triangular bone that lies on the posterior
chest wall between the 1st and 7th ribs
B. On its posterior surface, the spine of the scapula
projects forward.
C. The lateral end of the spine is free and forms
the acromion.
D. The inferolateral angle of the scapula forms the
glenoid cavity or fossa.
C. The lateral end of the spine is free and forms
the acromion.
What structure provides accommodation to the
radial nerve while passing through the middle
shaft of the humerus?
A. Lesser tuberosity
B. Spiral groove
C. Bicipital groove
D. Greater tuberosity
B. Spiral groove
What is the action of the Palmar interossei with
the line of reference passing through the center of the third digit?
A. Adduction of the digits
B. Abduction of the digits
C. Flexion
D. Extension
A. Adduction of the digits
What statement(s) is/are true regarding the walls of the axilla?
A. Anterior wall: Pectoralis major and minor,
subclavius. Post wall: Subscapularis, Latissimus dorsi, Teres Major
B. Medial wall: Upper 4th or 5th ribs and Intercostal space. Lateral wall: Coracobrachialis,
biceps mm. - bicipital groove,
C. A and B are correct
D. None of the above
B. Medial wall: Upper 4th or 5th ribs and Intercostal space. Lateral wall: Coracobrachialis,
biceps mm. - bicipital groove,
A phlebotomist was called to perform venipuncture. What vein that lies in the elbow is commonly used for venipuncture?
A. Axillary vein
B. Brachial vein
C. Median cubital vein
D. Radial vein
C. Median cubital vein
The Basilic veins joins which veins(s) to form the axillary vein? A. Cephalic vein B. Ulnar veins C. Radial veins D. Brachial vein
D. Brachial vein
What name is given to the arrangement of accompanying veins around an artery? * A. Vena comitantes B. Perforating veins C. Venous network D. Varicose veins
A. Vena comitantes
What structure(s) are the deep veins of the arm situated beneath? A. Biceps brachii B. Skin C. Deep fascia D. Superficial fascia
C. Deep fascia
Which vein does the cephalic vein drain into? A. Brachial vein B. Subclavian vein C. Axillary vein D. Basilic vein
C. Axillary vein
At what point does the Basilic vein move deep in the arm? A. Cubital fossa B. Border of teres major C. Axilla D. Between the heads of biceps brachii
B. Border of teres major
Through what anatomical area does the cephalic vein pass to reach the axillary vein? A. Cubital fossa B. Carpal tunnel C. Clavipectoral triangle D. Cervical outlet
C. Clavipectoral triangle
Which of the following arteries directly supplies blood to the hand? A. Brachial artery B. Profunda brachii C. Axillary artery D. Superficial palmar arch
D. Superficial palmar arch
A median plane:
A. Is a plane in which flexion and extension take place
B. Divides the body into anterior and posterior portions
C. Is a plane in which abduction and adduction take place
D. Is a plane which divides the body into equal
right and left halves
D. Is a plane which divides the body into equal
right and left halves
A plane which separates the body into an
anterior and posterior part is called a:
A. Median plane
B. Sagittal plane
C. Horizontal plane
D. Coronal plane
D. Coronal plane
A plane which separates the body into superior and inferior parts is a: A. Sagittal plane. B. Para-sagittal plane. C. Transverse plane. D. Coronal plane.
C. Transverse plane.
Distal with respect to the limbs, means: * A. Towards the head. B. Towards the feet. C. Nearer the mid-line of the body. D. Further away from the midline.
B. Towards the feet.
The dorsal body cavity contains components of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_system. * A. Reproductive B. Respiratory C. Nervous D. Digestive
C. Nervous
A study of the functions of living organisms is called? A. Physiology B. Biology C. Anatomy D. Biochemistr
A. Physiology
In the anatomical position.
A. The dorsal body cavity is posterior to the ventral body cavity
B. The palms face toward the back of the body
C. The penis is erect
D. The thumbs are directed medially
A. The dorsal body cavity is posterior to the ventral body cavity
The following describes the nomenclature in naming muscles? A. By shape B. By attachment C. By action D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Each spinal nerve is connected to the spinal
cord by two roots: the anterior root and the
posterior root. Which of the following statements
is true?
A. The dorsal root consists of bundles of nerve fibers carrying impulses to the central nervous system
B. Afferent fibers that go from the skeletal muscles and cause them to contract are called motor fibers
C. Afferent fibers carry impulses away from the
nervous system
D. Efferent fibers conveys information about
sensations of touch, pain, temperature, and vibration
A. The dorsal root consists of bundles of nerve fibers carrying impulses to the central nervous system
Which of the following describes the division of the body by a transverse plane? A. A front and a back B. A left and a right C. A top and a bottom D. Away or near a point of reference
C. A top and a bottom
A congenital anomaly involving the absence of
the dens of axis is most likely to affect which
ligament?
A. Transverse ligament of the atlas
B. Alar ligament
C. Ligamentum Nuchae
D. Tectorial ligament
A. Transverse ligament of the atlas
In Washington D.C. a condemned criminal was
hanged by his until he was pronounced dead.
Which vertebrae was fractures?
A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C4
B. C2
In delivering a caudal epidural anesthesia, what
anatomical space would you want to use to your
advantage?
A. L1/L2
B. L3/L4
C. Sacral posterior foramen
D. Sacral Hiatus
D. Sacral Hiatus
Where does the spinal cord end? A. End of Coccyx B. S5 C. Sacral Hiatus D. L1
D. L1
The statement is correct regarding external mammary nodes?
A. Belongs to level II group of nodes
B. Located laterally at border of latissimus dorsi
muscle, superiorly at inferior edge of axillary vein and
medially at medial border of subscapularis muscle.
C. Location of the group of nodes, superiorly at
inferior edge of axillary vein, medially at lateral
border of pectoralis minor muscle and laterally at
medial border of subscapularis
D. Located at the clavipectoral fascia
C. Location of the group of nodes, superiorly at
inferior edge of axillary vein, medially at lateral
border of pectoralis minor muscle and laterally at
medial border of subscapularis
A 40-year-old male is diagnosed with breast
tumor right. Lymph from the cancerous breast
drains primarily into which of the following
nodes?
A. Apical
B. Parasternal
C. Anterior
D. Supraclavicular
C. Anterior
A 45 y.o. male was diagnosed with invasive ductal carcinoma (breast cancer). During axillary dissection the surgeon was able to palpate enlarged group of nodes:
Located
behind the pectoralis minor muscle, the ribs medially and axillary vein superiorly.
A. Rotter’s nodes
B. Lateral nodes
C. Scapular nodes
D. Central nodes
D. Central nodes
Central node is what leve? A. Level I nodes B. Level II nodes C. Level III nodes D. Level IV nodes
B. Level II nodes
Located laterally at border of latissimus dorsi muscle, superiorly at inferior edge of axillary vein and medially at medial border of subscapularis muscle A. Rotter’s nodes B. Lateral nodes C. Scapular nodes D. Central nodes
B. Lateral nodes
what is the level of lateral group of nodes? A. Level I nodes B. Level II nodes C. Level III nodes D. Level IV nodes
A. Level I nodes
Located laterally at lateral border of subscapularis, superiorly at inferior edge of
axillary vein and medially at medial border of subscapularis muscle
A. Rotter’s nodes
B. Lateral nodes
C. Scapular nodes
D. Central nodes
C. Scapular nodes
what is the level of the scapular group of nodes? A. Level I nodes B. Level II nodes C. Level III nodes D. Level IV nodes
A. Level I nodes
How many lactiferous ducts drain into nipple of the mature female breast? A. 25-30 B. 35-40 C. 15-20 D. 5-10
C. 15-20
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Skin edema of breast cancer is only a result of
direct skin invasion by tumor
B. Lymph node metastasis first occur in Level II and III
of the axilla up to 20% of the time
C. Dimpling of the skin occurs as a result of glandular fibrosis and shortening of Cooper ligaments
D. None
C. Dimpling of the skin occurs as a result of glandular fibrosis and shortening of Cooper ligaments
The breast spans vertically between which costal cartilages? A. 1st and 5th B. 2nd and 6th C. 3rd and 7th D. 4th and 8th
B. 2nd and 6th
A clinically positive subclavian lymph node is A. Level I nodes B. Level II nodes C. Level III nodes D. Level IV nodes
C. Level III nodes
A clinically positive scapular lymph node is A. Level I nodes B. Level II nodes C. Level III nodes D. Level IV nodes
A. Level I nodes
A clinically positive central lymph node is A. Level I nodes B. Level II nodes C. Level III nodes D. Level IV nodes
B. Level II nodes
Which of the following nodes receives the majority of the breast tissue lymph? A. Posterior intercostal nodes B. Axillary nodes C. Parasternal nodes D. Infraclavicular nodes
B. Axillary nodes
Which is correct regarding the mammary gland?
A. It has 15-20 lobules.
B. It has 4-8 lactiferous ducts.
C. Its most lymph drains into the parasternal lymph
nodes.
D. Lateral border of the breast is between lateral
margin of latissimus dorsi and lateral margin of
pectoralis major
A. It has 15-20 lobules.
The lymphatics from upper part of mammary gland drain into:
A. The parasternal lymph nodes.
B. Subdiaphragmatic lymph nodes.
C. Apical group of axillary lymph nodes.
D. Pectoral group of axillary lymph nodes.
B. Subdiaphragmatic lymph nodes.
2/3 of the base of breast lies on what structure? A. Pectoralis minor B. Pectoralis major C. Serratus anterior D. External oblique muscle
B. Pectoralis major
A construction worker fell from a 2-storey building hitting his right axilla. A neurologic examination reveals that he has a lesion of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Which of the
following muscles is most likely weakened by this
injury?
A. Subscapularis
B. Pectoralis major
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Teres minor
B. Pectoralis major
A clinically positive Rotter’s lymph node is A. Level I nodes B. Level II nodes C. Level III nodes D. Level IV nodes
B. Level II nodes
At what vertebral level does the superior mesenteric artery arise? * L2 L1 T12 T11
L1
The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta at approximately which vertebral level? L4 L1 L3 L2
L3
While conducting an exploratory
laparotomy in a 25 y.o. male for a stab
wound at the right para umbilical area, the
senior resident noted intraperitoneal
spillage from a perforation of the small
bowel. How could he differentiate the
ileum from the jejunum?
A. The Ileum have longer vascular arcades
B. The jejunum is in the upper part of the
peritoneal cavity, coiled below the transverse
mesocolon
C. The jejunum has multiple arterial recta
D. The Ileum is wider bored, thicker walled, and
redder than the jejunum
A. The Ileum have longer vascular arcades
As an intern, you were instructed to insert a nasogastric tube (NGT) in a patient with gastric outlet obstruction due to duodenal ulcer cicatrization. When
inserting an NGT, which part of the esophagus DOES NOT have any narrowing that would resist NGT insertion?
A. At the beginning of the esophagus behind the
cricoid cartilage
B. Where the esophagus enters the stomach
C. Where the left bronchus and the arch of the
aorta cross in front of the esophagus
D. At the beginning of the esophagus behind the
thyroid cartilage
D. At the beginning of the esophagus behind the
thyroid cartilage
Which of the following does NOT provide blood supply to the stomach? Short Gastric Artery Right Gastric Artery Left Gastroduodenal Vein Right Gastroduodenal Artery
Left Gastroduodenal Vein
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of the duodenum? *
A. It is mostly located retroperitoneal
B. The ampulla of vater is found in its second
portion
C. Its venous drainage is directly to the splenic,
superior mesenteric, and portal vein
D. It measures approximately 20-25cm in length
C. Its venous drainage is directly to the splenic,
superior mesenteric, and portal vein
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the stomach?
A. It has five (5) major arterial supply
B. The vagus nerves are 80% motor and 20%
sensory for increasing gastric motility,
opening the pylorus and initiating secretions
C. Parasmpathetic nerve supply arises from the
T6-T9 spinal cord segments and passes to
the coeliac plexus via the greater splanchnic
nerve.
D. It also carries some pain transmitting
fibers..
B. The vagus nerves are 80% motor and 20%
sensory for increasing gastric motility,
opening the pylorus and initiating secretions
If the internal Spermatic Fascia arise from Transversalis fascia, the External Spermatic Fascia arise from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? Transversalis fascia Transverus Abdominus Aponeurosis External Oblique Aponeurosis Conjoint tendon
External Oblique Aponeurosis
Which of the following is TRUE
regarding the External intercostal muscle?
A. It extends as far forwards as the
costochondral junction.
B. It has an attachment to the neck of the
respective rib.
C. It is innervated by the posterior ramus of the
thoracic spinal nerve.
D. It has fibers directed downwards and
backwards.
D. It has fibers directed downwards and
backwards.
A patient was operated for Direct Inguinal Hernia and Mesh was placed. AFTER Mesh Placement in this patient, the Abdominal layers from Anterior to Posterior are now composed of the following?
- Fascia Transversalis,
- Campers Fascia,
- Parietal Peritoneum,
- Mesh,
- External Oblique Aponeurosis,
- Conjoint tendon,
- Spermatic Cord,
- Skin,
- Scarpa Fascia
8, 2, 9, 5, 7, 4, 6, 1, 3
8, 2, 9, 5, 4, 7, 6, 1, 3
8, 9, 2, 5, 7, 4, 6, 1, 3
8, 2, 9, 5, 7, 6, 1, 4, 3
8, 2, 9, 5, 7, 4, 6, 1, 3 Skin Campers Fascia Scarpa Fascia External Oblique Aponeurosis Spermatic Cord Mesh Conjoint tendon Fascia Transversalis Parietal Peritoneum
surgical intern is performing (with assistance!) a left hemicolectomy. How can she differentiate large bowel from small bowel? A. Tenia coli are present on large bowel B. Large bowel is located centrally in the abdominal cavity C. Small bowel has a much wider diameter D.Small bowel is marked by small pouches of peritoneum filled with fat
Tenia coli are present on large bowel
A patient is planned for an ileocecal resection. Which of the following arteries will we need to ligate to permit safe excision of the cecum? A. Middle colic artery B. Left colic artery C. Ileocolic artery D. Middle rectal artery
C. Ileocolic artery
The ureters descend through the abdomen, along the anterior surface of which of the muscles? * A. Transversus abdominis B. Psoas major C. Internal oblique D. Quadratus lumborum
B. Psoas major
Which structure encloses the kidney and the adrenal gland? A. Renal capsule B. Perirenal fat C. Gerota’s fascia (aka RENAL FASCIA) D. Peritoneum
C. Gerota’s fascia (aka RENAL FASCIA)
It is the most inferior aspect of the peritoneal cavity and therefore the first location where free fluid (e.g. blood, pus, ascitic fluid, etc) accumulates. A. Fornix B. Perineal pouch C. Pouch of Douglas D. Vesicouterine pouch
C. Pouch of Douglas
Which anatomical space does the spermatic cord travel through? A. Femoral triangle B. Femoral canal C. Inguinal canal D. Adductor hiatus
C. Inguinal canal
Inferior vena cava is formed by the union of: A. Right and left common iliac veins B. Portal vein and hepatic vein C. Right and left hepatic veins D. Superior and inferior mesenteric veins
A. Right and left common iliac veins
Which statement is true regarding adrenal glands? A. Has inner cortex, outer medulla B. At the inferior pole of kidneys C. Enclosed by renal fascia D. Suprarenal veins all drain into IVC
C. Enclosed by renal fascia
The renal artery is a branch of which of the following blood vessels? A. Celiac artery B. Superior mesenteric artery C. Inferior mesenteric artery D. Abdominal aorta
D. Abdominal aorta
Which of these arteries is a continuous arterial circle or arcade along the inner border of the colon formed by the anastomoses of the terminal branches of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) and inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)? A. Arc of Riolan B. Sudeck’s point C. Marginal artery of Drummond D. Griffith’s point
C. Marginal artery of Drummond
A 47-year-old woman has had a lumpectomy and axillary dissection to check for metastasis. She has come in for follow-up appointment, and her physician notices on her physical examination that the medial part of her scapula protrudes from her back and that she is not able to raise her arm above the horizontal level. Which of the following nerves has been damaged during her surgery? * A. Median nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Thoracodorsal nerve D. Long thoracic nerve
D. Long thoracic nerve
Pancreatic cancer has one of the highest mortality rates of all cancers because of the lack of symptoms until an advanced stage of disease. The one exception is the cancer that is slow growing and located in the head of the pancreas. This may present in an early stage by causing compression of which of the following structures? A. Duodenojejunal junction B. Gastroduodenal artery C. Bile duct D. Inferior mesenteric artery
C. Bile duct
Weightlifters in competition are often
concerned about muscle tone and
complications with hernias. In particular,
the most common hernia in this case is an
indirect inguinal hernia, which appears:
A. Lateral to the inferior epigastric artery
B. Between the inferior epigastric and
obliterated umbilical arteries
C. Medial to the obliterated umbilical arteries
D. Between the median and medial umbilical
folds
A. Lateral to the inferior epigastric artery
A 35-year-old man is suffering from an infected mediastinum (mediastinitis) after neck and chest injuries resulting from ahead-on automobile collision. He has been intubated since the accident and on broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics since admission; however, the infection continues to progress throughout the mediastinum. Which of the following structures is free from infection? * A. Thymus gland B. Esophagus C. Trachea D. Lungs
D. Lungs
A 20-year-old male, car driver is
brought to the trauma center ER after a high-speed crash in which is car spun out of control and struck the concrete embankment. He has blunt trauma to his
chest and undergoes extensive vascular studies to determine which blood vessels are still intact. The interventional radiologist recalls that one of the following veins drains directly into the superior vena cava. Which vein would this be?
A. Internal thoracic vein
B. Azygos vein
C. Hemiazygos vein
D. Right superior intercostal vein
B. Azygos vein
A young man is brought to the emergency room after being mugged. He was stabbed in the shoulder after refusing to give his wallet to his assailant. If the stab wound lacerated the posterior humeral circumflex artery passing through the quadrangular space on the
shoulder region, which of the following nerves might be injured? *
A. Radial nerve
B. Axillary nerve
C. Thoracodorsal nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
B. Axillary nerve
Ligamentum teres hepatis is a remnant of which of the following? A. Umbilical Vein B. Umbilical Artery C. Inferior Epigastric Artery D. Urachus
A. Umbilical Vein
Just Below the arcuate line of anterior abdominal wall, what is in direct contact with rectus abdominus muscle? A. Fascia Transversalis B. Visceral Peritoneum C. Parietal Peritoneum D. Posterior Layer of Rectus Sheath
A. Fascia Transversalis
After Inguinal Hernia Repair in a 10- year-old boy medial side of thigh is stimulated to check the cremasteric reflex, but it was found to be absent. Which nerve is responsible for contraction of cremasteric muscle? A. Ilioinguinal nerve B. Femoral Branch of Genitofemoral Nerve C. Genital Branch of Genitofemoral Nerve D. Pudendal Nerve
C. Genital Branch of Genitofemoral Nerve
The demarcation point where the posterior wall of the rectus sheath ends is called? A. Median Umbilical fold B. Medial Inguinal fold C. Linea alba D. Arcuate line
D. Arcuate line
The external iliac vein arises when the femoral vein crosses which structure? * A. Inguinal ligament B. Sartorius C. Femoral artery D. Ureter
A. Inguinal ligament
A fibrous structure that extends from the xiphoid process of the sternum to the pubic symphysis is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? A. Linea semilunaris B. Linea aponeurotica C. Linea albuginea D. Linea alba
D. Linea alba
Which organ is primarily retroperitoneal in location? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
Which of the following is the point of entry to the liver for hepatic arteries and portal vein, and point of exit for hepatic ducts? A. Bare area B. Hilum C. Fossa D. Porta hepatis
B. Hilum
The Triangle of Calot contains which of the following structures? A. Cystic artery B. Cystic duct C. Common hepatic duct D. Hepatic artery
B. Cystic duct
Which is a true statement regarding the course of portal vein? A. Crosses over duodenum B. Passes through hepatogastric ligament C. Empties into hepatic sinusoids D. Drains into inferior vena cava
A. Crosses over duodenum
Which statement is true regarding the kidneys?
A. Intraperitoneal
B. Left kidney slightly lower than right
C. Extend from vertebra T12 to vertebra L3
D. Pear-shaped
C. Extend from vertebra T12 to vertebra L3
The union of major calyces in the kidneys is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? A. Renal columns B. Renal pelvis C. Renal pyramids D. Renal sinus
B. Renal pelvis
How many lactiferous ducts drain into nipple of the mature female breast? A. 25-30 B. 35-40 C. 15-20 D. 5-10
C. 15-20
A 40-year-old male is diagnosed with breast tumor right. Lymph from the cancerous breast drains primarily into which of the following nodes? * A. Apical B. Parasternal C. Anterior D. Supraclavicular
C. Anterior
Which of the following statements is
true?
A. Skin edema of breast cancer is only a
result of direct skin invasion by tumor
B. Lymph node metastasis first occur in Level
II and III of the axilla up to 20% of the time
C. Dimpling of the skin occurs as a result of
glandular fibrosis and shortening of Cooper
ligaments
D. None
D. None
The breast spans vertically between which costal cartilages? A. 1st and 5th B. 2nd and 6th C. 3rd and 7th D. 4th and 8th
B. 2nd and 6th
A clinically positive subclavian lymph node is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? A. Level I nodes B. Level II nodes C. Level III nodes D. Level IV nodes
C. Level III nodes
A clinically positive scapular lymph node is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? A. Level I nodes B. Level II nodes C. Level III nodes D. Level IV nodes
A. Level I nodes
A clinically positive Rotter’s lymph node is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? A. Level I nodes B. Level II nodes C. Level III nodes D. Level IV nodes
B. Level II nodes
A clinically positive central lymph node is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? A. Level I nodes B. Level II nodes C. Level III nodes D. Level IV nodes
B. Level II nodes
Which of the following nodes receives majority of the breast tissue lymph? A. Posterior intercostal nodes B. Axillary nodes C. Parasternal nodes D. Infraclavicular nodes
B. Axillary nodes
A construction worker fell from a 2- storey building hitting his right axilla. A neurologic examination reveals that he has a lesion of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Which of the following muscles is most likely weakened by this injury? A. Subscapularis B. Pectoralis major C. Latissimus dorsi D. Teres minor
B. Pectoralis major
2/3 of the base of breast lies on what structure? * A. Pectoralis minor B. Pectoralis major C. Serratus anterior D. External oblique muscle
B. Pectoralis major
One of the blood supplies of the breast is the posterior intercostal artery (PIA) majority of which directly originate from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? A. Descending aorta B. Internal thoracic artery C. Musculophrenic artery D. Superior epigastric artery
A. Descending aorta
The sternal angle [angle of Louis: named after Antoine Louis, a French surgeon and physiologist, (1723 - 1792)] is an angle formed at the junction between the manubrium and sternum (manubriosternal joint). It lies at the level of the lower border of T4, it is used as landmark to identify \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? A. The 1st rib. B. The bifurcation of the trachea C. The bifurcation of the innominate vein D. The apex of the arch of the aorta
D. The apex of the arch of the aorta
This line of the thorax is formed by the pectoralis major muscle: A. Posterior median line B. Posterior axillary line C. Anterior axillary line D. Anterior median line
C. Anterior axillary line
Which typical rib landmark is the most common site of rib fracture? * A. Tubercle B. Head C. Shaft D. neck
C. Shaft
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the anatomy of the posterior intercostal artery? *
A. Travel anteriorly between the ribs
B. Descend along the anterior wall of the rib
cage
C. Travel between ribs and anastomose
with anterior intercostal arteries
D. Are provided by blood from the subclavian
arteries
C. Travel between ribs and anastomose
with anterior intercostal arteries
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the characteristics of the sternum?
A. The manubrium articulates with the
clavicle and first rib
B. The body of the sternum articulates
with the manubrium to form the subcostal
angle (Sternal angle)
C. The xiphoid process can be cartilaginous
or ossified
D. Palpation of the sternal angle is a guide for
the location of the 2nd rib
B. The body of the sternum articulates
with the manubrium to form the subcostal
angle (Sternal angle)
The lingula of the left lung is “similar” to which structure of the right lung? A. Superior lobe B. Inferior lobe C. Middle lobe D. Oblique fissure
C. Middle lobe
Which of the following is FALSE of the
right and left lung?
A. Both lungs divide into 10 bronchopulmonary segments
B. Both lungs have a superior and inferior lobe
C. The left lung differs from the right lung in that it has 2 lobes while the right has 3 lobes
D. The bronchopulmonary segment of the right lung includes 5 from the superior lobe, while in the left bronchopulmonary segments includes 2 from the superior lobe
D. The bronchopulmonary segment of the right lung includes 5 from the superior lobe, while in the left bronchopulmonary segments includes 2 from the superior lobe
Complete the sentence: The inferior border of the heart __________?
A. Is mainly formed by the right and left
ventricles.
B. Is primarily formed by the left ventricle.
C. Is primarily formed by the right ventricle.
D. Is primarily formed by the inferior surface
of the right atrium.
A. Is mainly formed by the right and left
ventricles.
The right ventricle can be examined along the 3 – 5th intercostal spaces of which surface of the heart? * A. Sternocostal / anterior surface B. Diaphragmatic / inferior surface C. Pulmonary / left surface D. Visceral / posterior surface
A. Sternocostal / anterior surface
Which of the following is NOT found in the normal adult right atrium? A. SVC opening B. Tricuspid valve C. Foramen ovale D. Fossa ovalis
C. Foramen ovale
What is the somatic innervation of the pericardium? A. Phrenic nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Superficial cardiac plexus D. Cardia sympathetic plexus
A. Phrenic nerve
What level does the inferior vena cava enter the pericardium as it passes through the diaphragm? A. T8 B. T10 C. T6 D. T12
A. T8
Which is NOT a direct a direct arterial branch from the arch of the aorta? A. Right subclavian artery B. Left common carotid artery C. Brachiocephalic trunk D. Left subclavian artery
A. Right subclavian artery
On cardiac auscultation, where can you find the apex beat of the heart in a healthy human adult? * A. Left 2nd ICS, sternal margin B. Right 2nd ICS, sternal margin C. Left 5th ICS, Midclavicular line D. Right/Left 5th ICS, sternal margin
C. Left 5th ICS, Midclavicular line
What artery supplies the right ventricle and apex of the heart? A. Right marginal artery B. Left coronary artery C. Right coronary artery D. Circumflex artery
A. Right marginal artery
Which of the following serves as the primary collector of cardiac venous blood? A. Great cardiac vein B. Coronary sinus C. Thebesian vein D. Left marginal vein
B. Coronary sinus
Which of the following correctly describes the conducting pathway of the heart?
A. SA node - AV bundle of His - AV node -
L/R bundle branch - Purkinje fibers
B. AV node - SA node - L/R bundle branch -
AV bundle of His - Purkinje fibers
C. SA node - AV node - AV bundle of His -
Purkinje fibers - AV bundle of His
D. SA node - AV node - AV bundle of His -
L/R bundle branch - Purkinje fibers
D. SA node - AV node - AV bundle of His -
L/R bundle branch - Purkinje fibers
What layer lies between the endocardium and myocardium? * A. Epicardium B. Purkinje layer C. Subendocardial layer D. Pericardium
C. Subendocardial layer
Which among the thoracic compartment cavities that contains the heart, esophagus, trachea, major nerves, and major systemic blood vessels? A. Left pleural cavity B. Right pleural cavity C. Mediastinal cavity D. Pericardial cavity
C. Mediastinal cavity
The pericardium and heart constitute which of the following? A. Posterior mediastinum B. Middle mediastinum C. Anterior mediastinum D. Superior mediastinum
B. Middle mediastinum
Where is the jugular notch is located? A. Fourth intercostal space. B. Articulation between the manubrium of sternum and the body of sternum. C. Superior extent of the manubrium sterni. D. Superior and lateral to the sternoclavicular joint.
C. Superior extent of the manubrium sterni.
A young man is brought to the emergency room after being mugged. He was stabbed in the shoulder after refusing to give his wallet to his assailant. If the
stab wound lacerated the posterior humeral circumflex artery passing through the quadrangular space on the shoulder region, which of the following nerves might be injured?
A. Radial nerve
B. Axillary nerve
C. Thoracodorsal nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
B. Axillary nerve
A 20-year-old male, car driver is brought to the trauma center ER after a high-speed crash in which is car spun out of control and struck the concrete
embankment. He has blunt trauma to his
chest and undergoes extensive vascular studies to determine which blood vessels are still intact. The interventional radiologist recalls that one of the following veins drains directly into the superior vena cava. Which vein would this be?
A. Internal thoracic vein
B. Azygos vein
C. Hemiazygos vein
D. Right superior intercostal vein
B. Azygos vein
A 35-year-old man is suffering from an infected mediastinum (mediastinitis) after neck and chest injuries resulting from ahead-on automobile collision. He has been intubated since the accident and on broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics since admission; however, the infection continues to = progress throughout the mediastinum. Which of the following structures is free from infection? *D. Lungs A. Thymus gland B. Esophagus C. Trachea D. Lungs
D. Lungs
Weightlifters in competition are often
concerned about muscle tone and complications with hernias. In particular, the most common hernia in this case is an indirect inguinal hernia, which appears:
A. Lateral to the inferior epigastric artery
B. Between the inferior epigastric and
obliterated umbilical arteries
C. Medial to the obliterated umbilical arteries
D. Between the median and medial umbilical
folds
A. Lateral to the inferior epigastric artery
A 47-year-old woman has had a lumpectomy and axillary dissection to check for metastasis. She has come in for follow-up appointment, and her physician notices on her physical examination that the medial part of her scapula protrudes from her back and that she is not able to raise her arm above the horizontal level. Which of the following nerves has been damaged during her surgery? A. Median nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Thoracodorsal nerve D. Long thoracic nerve
D. Long thoracic nerve
Pancreatic cancer has one of the highest mortality rates of all cancers because of the lack of symptoms until an advanced stage of disease. The one exception is the cancer that is slow growing and located in the head of the pancreas. This may present in an early stage by causing compression of which of the following structures? * A. Duodenojejunal junction B. Gastroduodenal artery C. Bile duct D. Inferior mesenteric artery
C. Bile duct
What structure support the atrioventricular valves to the free edges of the valve cusps? * A. Papillary muscles B. Lunula C. Chordae tendinae D. Interventricular septum
C. Chordae tendinae
How many papillary muscles are found on the inferior surface of the ventricles and aid during heart contraction? * A. 4 B. 2 C. 5 D. 3
C. 5
What structure separates the right atrium into two parts? A. Crista terminalis B. Interatrial septum C. Right auricle D. Left auricle
A. Crista terminalis
The following statements concerning
the right tracheobronchial lymph nodes
are correct except which?
A. They could become enlarged as the result
of invasion of malignant tumor cells from the
middle lobe of the right lung.
B. They could become enlarged as the result
of invasion of malignant tumor cells from the
inferior lobe of the right lung.
C. They are situated alongside the trachea
and the bronchi.
D. They drain lymph from the lower end of
the trachea.
E. They do not drain lymph from the heart.
E. They do not drain lymph from the heart.
The following structure(s) may press against the esophagus during the passage of a barium meal except which? A. Left ventricle B. Left principal bronchus and aorta C. Margins of the esophageal opening in the diaphragm D. Muscular fibers of the lower end of the pharynx E. Left atrium
A. Left ventricle
The following statements concerning
coarctation (narrowing) of the aorta are
correct except which? *
A. The third to the eleventh posterior
intercostal arteries have a diminished blood
flow.
B. The first and second posterior intercostal
arteries will have a diminished blood flow.
C. The narrowing of the aorta lies just
proximal, opposite, or distal to the site of
attachment of the ligamentum arteriosum.
D. The narrowing takes place after birth.
E. The condition is thought to result from
contraction of ductus arteriosus muscle
tissue.
B. The first and second posterior intercostal
arteries will have a diminished blood flow.
The following statements concerning
an intercostal space are correct except
which?
A. The anterior intercostal arteries of the
lower five intercostal spaces are branches of
the musculophrenic artery.
B. The sensory fibers in the lower five
intercostal nerves supply the skin of the
lateral thoracic and anterior abdominal walls.
C. The posterior intercostal arteries of the
lower nine spaces are branches of the
thoracic aorta.
D. Throughout an intercostal space, the
intercostal nerves and blood vessels lie close
to the upper border of the lower rib.
E. The intercostal nerves and blood vessels
run between the internal and the innermost
intercostal muscles.
D. Throughout an intercostal space, the
intercostal nerves and blood vessels lie close
to the upper border of the lower rib.
The following statements concerning
the positions of thoracic structures at
different phases of respiration are correct
except which?
A. The trachea bifurcates opposite the
manubriosternal angle in the mid-respiratory
position.
B. On full inspiration, the lower margin of the
left lung could extend down the midclavicular
line to the eighth costal cartilage.
C. The lower margin of the right lung in the
midclavicular line could cross the sixth rib in
the mid-respiratory position.
D. The apex of the heart can usually be felt in
the sixth left intercostal space in the midrespiratory
position.
E. On full expiration the right dome of the
diaphragm may extend up as far as or
beyond the upper border of the fifth rib.
D. The apex of the heart can usually be felt in
the sixth left intercostal space in the midrespiratory
position.
The following statements concerning
the heart are correct except which?
A. The first sound of the heart is lu¯b and is
produced by the contraction of the ventricles
and the closure of the tricuspid and mitral
valves.
B. The second shorter sound of the heart is
du˘ p, which is produced by the sharp closure
of the aortic and pulmonary valves.
C. The pulmonary valve has two semilunar
cusps.
D. The left atrium lies posterior to the right
atrium.
E. The apex beat of the heart is best felt by
asking the patient to sit up and lean forward.
C. The pulmonary valve has two semilunar
cusps.
The following statements concerning
the structure of the heart are correct
except which? *
A. The trabeculae carneae are internal
surface structures of both the left and the
right ventricles.
B. The pericardial cavity is the potential
space between the fibrous and the serous
pericardia.
C. The coronary arteries are functional end
arteries
D. The sinoatrial node is supplied by the right
and sometimes the left coronary artery.
E. The four pulmonary veins open through
the posterior wall of the left atrium and there
are no valves.
B. The pericardial cavity is the potential
space between the fibrous and the serous
pericardia.
The following statements regarding the innervation of thoracic structures are correct except which? *
A. The lung and visceral pleura are
innervated by the autonomic nerves and are
not sensitive to sensations of temperature,
touch, and pressure.
B. The motor innervation of the diaphragm is
provided by the third, fourth, and fifth cervical
spinal nerves and by the lower six intercostal
nerves.
C. The sensory nerve supply to the mucous
membrane of the lower part of the trachea is
from the vagus and the recurrent laryngeal
nerves.
D. The nerve supply of the pericardium is the
phrenic nerves.
E. The sinoatrial node is supplied by
sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves via
the cardiac plexuses.
B. The motor innervation of the diaphragm is
provided by the third, fourth, and fifth cervical
spinal nerves and by the lower six intercostal
nerves.
The following statements concerning thoracic structures are correct except which? *
A. The carina is the name given to the site of
bifurcation of the trachea.
B. The ligamentum arteriosum is the remains
of the ductus arteriosus.
C. The ductus arteriosus is formed from the
sixth left pharyngeal arch.
D. The thymus lies in the middle
mediastinum.
E. The thymus receives its arterial supply
mainly from the internal thoracic arteries
D. The thymus lies in the middle
mediastinum.
The following events occur on inhalation except which?
A. The diaphragm descends.
B. The external intercostal muscles contract.
C. The abdominal muscles contract and push
the abdominal viscera cranially.
D. The ribs are raised.
E. The vertical dimension of the thoracic
cavity increases.
C. The abdominal muscles contract and push
the abdominal viscera cranially.
When passing a needle through the chest wall and into the pleural cavity in the midaxillary line, the following structures will be pierced except which? * A. The external intercostal muscle B. The skin C. The parietal pleura D. The levator costarum E. The internal intercostal muscle
D. The levator costarum
The following statements concerning
the bronchopulmonary segments are correct except which?
A. It is a subdivision of a lung lobe.
B. It is pyramidal in shape, with its apex
toward the lung surface.
C. It is surrounded by connective tissue.
D. It has a segmental bronchus, a segmental
artery, lymph vessels, and autonomic nerves.
E. When diseased, it can be removed
surgically as a structural unit.
B. It is pyramidal in shape, with its apex
toward the lung surface.
The following statements concerning
the main bronchi are correct except
which?
A. The right main bronchus is wider than the
left main bronchus.
B. The right main bronchus is shorter than
the left main bronchus.
C. The right main bronchus is more vertical in
position than the left main bronchus.
D. The left main bronchus passes to the left
in front of the esophagus.
E. The left main bronchus gives off the
superior lobar bronchus before entering the
hilum of the lung.
E. The left main bronchus gives off the
superior lobar bronchus before entering the
hilum of the lung.
The following statements concerning the diaphragm are correct except which?
A. The diaphragm is a thin musculotendinous
sheet that can be ruptured by extreme
pressure applied from below.
B. On contraction, the diaphragm increases
the intrathoracic pressure.
C. The right crus provides a sphincter-like
mechanism for the esophagus.
D. On contraction, the diaphragm assists in
the return of venous blood to the right atrium
and of lymph to the thoracic duct.
E. When viewed from in front, the central
tendon of the diaphragm lies behind the
xiphisternal joint.
B. On contraction, the diaphragm increases
the intrathoracic pressure.
The following statements concerning the lungs are correct except which?
A. Each lung is very elastic, and should the
thoracic cavity be opened by a stab wound,
the lung shrinks to one third or less in
volume.
B. The cardiac notch lies in the lower lobe of
the left lung.
C. The visceral pleura covering each lung
lines the fissures that are situated between
the lobes.
D. The apex of each lung extends up into the
root of the neck and lies anterior to the lower
roots of the brachial plexus.
E. The bronchi, connective tissue, and
visceral pleura of the lungs are supplied by
the bronchial arteries.
B. The cardiac notch lies in the lower lobe of
the left lung.
With aging, the following detrimental
changes occur in the thorax except which?
A. The ribs and the costal cartilages become
more rigid.
B. The elastic tissue in the lungs tends to
degenerate.
C. The manubriosternal joint becomes more
mobile.
D. The thoracic and the abdominal muscles
tend to atrophy.
E. The xiphoid process becomes ossified.
C. The manubriosternal joint becomes more
mobile.
The following anatomic events occur
at the level of the sternal angle (angle of
Louis) except which?
A. The right and the left pulmonary arteries
enter the lungs.
B. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve arises
from the right vagus nerve.
C. The trachea bifurcates.
D. The ascending aorta becomes continuous
with the arch of the aorta.
E. The second costal cartilages articulate
with the sternum
B. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve arises
from the right vagus nerve.
The following structures open into the right atrium except which? A. The superior vena cava B. The coronary sinus C. The anterior cardiac vein D. The inferior vena cava E. The right pulmonary veins
E. The right pulmonary veins
The conducting system of the heart is composed of the following structures except which? A. The Purkinje plexus B. The deep cardiac plexus C. The sinoatrial node D. The atrioventricular bundle E. The atrioventricular node
B. The deep cardiac plexus
The following anatomic facts regarding the right coronary artery are correct except which?
A. It gives rise to a marginal branch.
B. It passes forward between the right auricle
and the pulmonary trunk.
C. It gives rise to an anterior interventricular
branch.
D. It arises from the anterior aortic sinus.
E. It descends in the right atrioventricular
groove.
B. It passes forward between the right auricle
and the pulmonary trunk.
