1st Flashcards
How many O-rings are on the top of the wash foamer?
3
What is the wash foamer tank’s capacity?
45 gallons
The PSD60-1AF operates on ____C batteries
18
What does CCFD stand for?
Combined Contaminated Fuel Detector
Are PSD60 versions 1AF, 2, and 2R interchangeable among different types of aircraft?
yes
What is the PSD60-1AF?
fuel quantity test set
How many miles of shoreline does the US have?
95k miles
Type 5 materiel: what is it and what value?
consumable avionics, less than $800
What materiel type is support equipment?
6
Type 4 materiel: What is it and what value?
repairable avionics, greater than $800
Type 2 and 4 materiel are _______ supplied
commercially
Type 3 and 5 materiel are bout using _______ funds
AFC-30
Type 3 materiel: what is it and what value?
consumable aeronautical, less than $250
Type 2 materiel: what is it and what value?
repairable aeronautical, greater than $250
Which two materiel types deal with avionics?
4 and 5
What is type 1 materiel?
Engine
The LCI team is comprised of members from what two units?
CG-41 and ALC
Ground checks that require a qualified pilot to be at the controls will require the entry of the check in_______.
ALMIS in the mission schedule
With the exception of deployed aircraft, no deferred maintenance shall remain open for more than 30 days without the approval of the _____.
EO
When was the CG transferred to DHS?
Mar 1, 2003
What officer rank leads areas?
3star(Vice Admiral)
What officer rank leads MLC’s and districts?
1 or 2 star (Rear Admiral upper or lower half)
Should you attempt to rewarm body parts frozen by LOX?
no
Do not allows LOX to contact _____products.
petroleum
What is a 60CU24?
Hobart
What is a CCFD capable of detecting?
water and contaminants in fuel
What power (KVA and amps) is a 60CU24 rated at?
60KVA, 174 amps
What is an MDU-300
Mobile Dehumidification Unit
An MDU-300 maintains humidity at ______%
30-40%
What are aviation medical classes 1,2, and 3?
1-pilots, 2-flights surgeons, 3-aircrew
How long is an initial FDME good for?
12months
Who provides funding for JOAP?
CG-41
What units participate in JOAP?
All aviation facilities
What determines the success or failure of JOAP?
attitude toward the program
T/F: A spark is required to ignite oxygen.
false
How can you identify aviator’s breathing oxygen?
green bottle with a 3” white band
Do not deplete an oxygen bottle below _____ psi.
50
What is vital when checking for oxygen leaks?
cleanliness
How many personnel are required to service gaseous oxygen?
2
Oxygen cannot be serviced during ______ operations.
fueling/defueling
Ensure a _____-type fire extinguisher is stationed within ____’ of LOX servicing.
PKP, 50
allow LOX systems to stabilize/vent for ____ prior to take off.
30 minutes
How long should you wait to dip a tank after pressure refueling is complete?
3 minutes
T/F: Power connection during fuel draining is authorized.
false
Radar antennae should not be operated within ____’ of fueling operations
300
What pins on the AC external power plug are for the interlock circuit?
E and F
An external power interlock circuit shall determine the presence of a ______ signal.
28 VDC feedback
For C-130s there shall be at least _______ people in the cockpit for all engine starts.
2
Who may authorize taxiing without a signalman?
CO
Where should a taximan stand?
slightly ahead but in line with the pilot’s side wing tip
Coast Guard planes shall never be taxied within _____’ of any obstruction
5
What specification is used for numbering of chapters in ACMS?
$1000D
What color is the paper version of the flight generated maintenance record?
pink
What does a grounded aircraft require before it can be released for flight?
maintenance release
When a discrepancy is open for more than 24 hours, what 3 things can the discrepancy be assigned?
PP, CF, squawk
When utilizing paper forms CFs and PPs are transferred to what record?
deferred maintenance
All cannibalization records shall be authorized by the _____ or his designed representative.
EO
What is the most important signature on a PR?
certification of funds availability
If a sole source PR is submitted it must be accompanied by a _______
JOTFOC (Justification for Other Than Full and Open Competition)
Correspondence: what serves as the file number?
SSIC
What shall be included if a member is not recommend for advancement?
supporting remarks
Who is eligible for CG Foundation grants?
E-2 through E-9 with >2 years in service
For property with value less than $500 is a report of survey required?
no
What is a SWAMP area?
severe wind and moisture problem area
What tools does one use to perform a wiring inspection?
flashlight and mirror
Examine wiring for a minimum of _____” clearance from structures and equipment. If that cannot be maintained, _____” is acceptable with the use of anti-chafing material.
1/2” 3/8”
A minimum of _____” clearance between wiring and non-flammable fuel-carting lines shall be maintained. If that is not possible, _____” is acceptable with the use of clamps.
2”, 1/2”
Wire insulation maybe vulnerable to cracking if it is within _____” of clamps.
1/2”
A flight crew member shall be relieved from duty at least once during any _____ consecutive days.
8
Flight time limits: 7days, 30 days, and 365 day?
50, 125, 1100
Flight hours and crew mission time are cumulative until _____ hours of rest are completed between sorties.
10
A flight crew member must have ____ hours off before assuming alert duty.
10
How long are PAX manifests retained?
7 years
How long are copies of flight plans retained?
90 days
How many flight plans must be submitted for VFR formation flying (lead plane is IFR)?
1
Who is responsible for closing out active flight plans?
PIC
How long do we retain weight and balance forms?
90days
Fuel carried on departure will be at least _____% more than is required to reach the alternate.
10
Fuel reserves after reaching alternate: FW? RW?
45 min, 20 min
How long do we retain flight planning weather information?
90days
Who may authorize assigned personnel to fly aboard non-CG aircraft for operational reasons?
CO/OiC
CG auxiliary aircraft may not enter the _______
FRZ
What does ESCAT stand for?
Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic
Can civilian pilots be assigned to operational missions?
no
How low in a command can tactical control of an aircraft be delegated?
ops officer
For spade solder terminals wrap wire how many degrees?
90 or 180
For general use a soldering tip ______” diameter is suggested
1/4 - 3/8”
Soldering irons with voltage ratings of ______ are recommended for general use.
60W, 100W, 120W
For size #20-16 wire, use a ____W soldering iron.
60W
Do not tin wires to be attached to __________ connectors
class K (fireproof)
What mishaps warrant a formal MAB?
A and B
Is suicide or intentional damage reportable?
no
Is a contractor injury reportable?
yes (only no if they’re working on an asset NOT at a CG facility when the CG is NOT present)
If a CG reservist dies off duty, is it reportable?
only if they’re active at the time
Is damage from storms a reportable mishap?
no
What are 2 methods the CG uses to assess risk?
SPE and GAR
What does SPE stand for?
severity/probability/exposure
What are the 7 steps in the ORM process?
- define mission tasks,
- identify hazards,
- assess risk,
- identify options,
- evaluate risk vs. gain,
- execute decisions,
- monitorsituation
If you SDC symbol is not authorized for distribution, prepare CG Form _____.
5323
What is CG Form 4428?
request for directives
The DPRI consists of _____ chapters.
7
What % qualifies a person for disability?
30%
0.020” safety wire is intended for parts with a hole of what size?
0.045” or smaller
When must marks be submitted to the marking official?
9 days prior to the end of the month
Under No circumstances will the double twist method of safety wirebe used for ________
shear wire
Q: Forward osmosis filtration system: Membrane pore size? Removes_____% salt. One 4 oz syrup packet provide _____ oz of water from_____ oz of seawater in _____ hours.
A: 0.0003 microns, 97%, 17 oz, 60 oz, 5 hours
Q: Sea dye powder is exhausted in _____ minutes and is no longer a good target after __hour(s).
A: 20-30, 1
Q: You can see sea dye markers from _____ miles and _____’.
A: 2, 3000
Q: For best results, use the sea dye marker in __________ seas.
A: calm to moderate
Q: Is the sea dye marker effective at night?
A: no
Q: Nylon cord carried in life rafts: How long? Breaking strength?
A: 50’ lengths, 100 lbs.
Q:Who can approve personal survival equipment?
A: EO
Q: ADS: Chute size for 40-70 lbs? 70-250 lbs?
A: 12’, 28’
Q: Aviation personnel are duty standers with a _____-hour workweek.
A: 68
Q: The staffing of a unit is equal to the greater of what two calculations?
A: staffing to maintain aircraft, staffing to maintain flight operations
Q: What is the primary purpose of an LCI visit?
A: ensure a direct flow of communication from unit and ASE structure
Q: The SE manager reports directly to whom?
A: EO
Q: How long does one remain in a unit support equipment manager position?
A: 2 years
Q: Who provides policy guidance for the ASE program?
A: CG-41
Q: What are the 2 basic types of support equipment?
A: peculiar, common
Q: What is the aviation inventory control point for ASE?
A: ALC’s CO
Q: Cutters are _____’ long are under the control of areas.
A: 180
Q: How many junks were boarded by the CG in Vietnam?
A: 250k
Q: When wiring must be routed parallel to flammable liquid lines, maintain at least _____” of separation.
A: 6”
Q: Never support any wire from a plumbing line carrying __________.
A: flammable liquids
Q: Do not install fuel quantity wiring alongside what other type of wiring?
A: power distribution
Q: Does the CG prefer open or protected harnesses? Why?
A: open for ease of maintenance
Q: Never use what tool to cut coax? Why?
A: diagonal cutters, you’ll ruin the dielectric
Q: Do not use __________ to cute wire as conductor will be deformed.
A: diagonal cutters
Q: What do you need to ensure when cutting thermocouple wiring?
A: same amount cut off each matched wire
Q: Insulation emits __________ during thermal stripping.
A: toxic fumes
Q: What will supersede all active TOPS?
A: revision
Q: Where is the list of effective pages listed in a TO?
A: back of title page
Q: A new __________ will be issued with each TO change.
A: title page
Q: Each unit will conduct a pubs audit in what two months? Which one is for QA and shops?
A: April and October; QA is April
Q: How are AF/Navy/Army publications obtained?
A: TIMOS
Q: What does TIMOS stand for?
A: Technical Instruction Manual Ordering System
Q: What are the 5 training branches available to auxiliarists?
A: seaman, artificer (radio), artificer (engine room), aviation, special
Q: Reportable: CG members injured or killed, __________ duty.
A: on or off
Q: Reportable: CG reserve members injured or killed on __________ status, __________ duty.
A: on or off
Q: Reportable: CG civilian employees injured or killed __________.
A: while performing official CG duties
Q: Reportable: CG auxiliarists injured or killed while __________.
A: under orders
Q: Reportable: Visitors to CG stations harmed as a result of _________.
A: CG operations
Q:Reportable: Civilian contractors working __________.
A:on CG assets
Q: Reportable: A CG member who develops an illness due to acute or chronic __________.
A: occupational exposure
Q: A human relations council must exist at units of _____ or more.
A: 50
Q: A flotilla consists of _____ or more qualified individuals.
A: 15
Q: What is the collection of physical and emotional responses that disrupts a person’s equilibrium?
A: stress
Q: The more specific the thoughts of suicide the __________ the risk.
A: greater
Q: In order for a PR to be valid it must be _____ properly, contain ____data, and have a valid signature.
A: numbered, accounting
Q: Class A and B mishap boards are appointed by __________.
A: CG-113
Q: Romantic relationships are unacceptable between CG members when they are assigned to the same __________ or __________.
A: small shore unit (60 or less), cutter
Q: Block _____ of DD-214 (certificate of release from active duty) listsall your military education.
A: 14
Q: Who may order a report of survey even if one is not required?
A: CO
Q: Can a message contain tabs?
A: no
Q: What are the 4 message SOSO codes?
A: flash (Z),
immediate (O),
priority (P),
routine (R)
Q: What does SOSO stand for?
A: Speed Of Service Objective
Q: Confined spaces are either __________ or permit required.
A: non-permit
Q: What is an Army E-1, E-2, and E-3?
A: Private, Private 2, Private First Class
Q: What is an Army E-4, E-5, and E-6?
A: Specialist/Corporal, Sergeant, Staff Sergeant
Q: What is an Army E-7, E-8, and E-9?
A: Sergeant First Class, Master Sergeant/First Sergeant, Sergeant Major
Q: Who issues a gas free certificate?
A: gas free engineer
Q: You are grounded for how many hours following immunizations?
A: 12
Q: What class of medicine is always grounding?
A: 4
Q: What type of medication does NOT require a waiver when used under the supervision of a flight surgeon?
A: 2
Q: What type of medication is OTC?
A: 1
Q: Class _____ medications require a waiver.
A: 3
Q: What are the 2 types of aeromedical waivers?
A: temporary and permanent
Q: What is an AF E-1, E-2, and E-3?
A: Airman Basic, Airman, Airman First Class
Q: What is an AF E-4, E-5, and E-6?
A: Senior Airman, Staff Sergeant, Tech Sergeant
Q: What is an AF E-7, E-8, and E-9?
A: Master Sergeant, Senior Master Sergeant, Chief Master Sergeant
Q: What is a CG-6020?
A: recommendation for flying duty
Q: What is the minimum height for aircrew?
A: 60”
Q: What is the maximum aviator height?
A: 78”
Q: Is a flight physical required for separating personnel?
A: no
Q: Any crewmember is a class __________ mishap must undergo a flight physical.
A: A or B
Q: Upon reaching age 50, an FDME must be completed __________.
A: annually
Q: How are flight physicals submitted?
A: AERO
Q: An FDHS is performed in conjunction with a what?
A: PHA
Q: Are potted connectors exempt from using drip loops?
A: yes
Q: Are spliced and ties allowed inside conduit?
A: no
Q: Conduit: The wire bundle diameter must not exceed _____% of the internal diameter of the conduit.
A: 80%
Q: Where are addiction prevention specialists stationed?
A: MLCs
Q: Can addiction preventions specialists be assigned CDAR duties?
A: no
Q: Is alcohol a causative factor in an alcohol situation?
A: no
Q: How is an alcohol situation documented?
A: CG-3307
Q: What are the 3 levels of alcohol prevention and rehab programs?
A: awareness, inpatient (residential rehab), outpatient
Q: Can a CPO have a relationship with junior enlisted?
A: no
Q: What manual prohibits hazing?
A: COMDTINST M5000.3, article 4-1-15
Q: What is the CG Equal Opportunity Manual?
A: COMDTINST M5350.4
Q: The collateral duty civil rights officer is…?
A: a commissioned officer serving as department head or higher
Q: All units with >_____ billets is mandated to have a human relations counsel.
A: 50
Q: What is the ready reserve?
A: essential to initial contingency requirements
Q: What is the individual ready reserve?
A: has had formal training, previously in active or selected reserve
Q: What is the standby reserve?
A: liable for involuntary recall
Q: Membership in the standby reserve is limited to those people with what potential?
A: mobilization
Q: What are RET-1 and RET-2?
A: RET-1 receives retirement pay, RET-2 does not
Q: What is the max age to apply for the CG Academy?
A: 22
Q: Title _____ of US Code cites the CG as a military service.
A: 14
Q: When are 1-time special reviews conducted?
A: advancement to E-7 (>184 days), [PCS, intra-command reassignments, detachment of AO (
Q: Each line of a message is limited to _____ characters.
A: 69
Q: Does the term rate or rating refer to pay grade?
A: rate
Q: How many leadership competencies are there?
A: 28
Q: What are the 4 categories of leadership competency?
A: leading self, leading others, leading performance and change, leading the CG
Q: You can search CG Forms by __________ and __________.
A: alphabetically, numerically
Q: How many HQ units are there?
A: 35
Q: How hot can the flameless ration heater (MREs) get?
A: 200 Fahrenheit or 250 if proper moisture was not added
Q: How many calories in an MRE? How long will they last at 80 degrees? 100 degrees?
A: 800-1200, 3 years, 6 months
Q: What is the audible range of the emergency whistle?
A: 1k yards
Q: Emergency signal mirror: brightness (candlepower)? visibility?
A: 8M candlepower, 40 miles
Q: Chemical light duration: 4” _____, 6” _____
A: 6 hours, 12 hours
Q: What is the aircrew folding knife carried in?
A: LPU-27/PE
Q: What % of the aircrew survival knife is serrated?
A: 80%
Q: How long is the blade of the aircrew survival knife?
A: 3 and 11/16”
Q: What is CGTO 12R2-4C4ISR-2?
A: Aviation C4ISR Systems Manual
Q: What is the tactical level?
A: operational activity
Q: How large are battle streamers?
A: 2.75”x4’
Q: What does AMVER stand for?
A: Automated Mutual Assistance Vessel Rescue
Q: What are the 2 business letter formats in USCG Macros II?
A: standard business letter, business letter for window envelopes
Q: What are the 2 main reasons for writing a business letter?
A: correspondence with a different government agency, more personal letter
Q: What is USCG Macros II?
A: used to create official business correspondence
Q: Are flight plans and wreckage Cat I or Cat II?
A: Cat II (unprivileged)
Q: How long must a confined space be ventilated?
A: at least 24 hours
Q: At what level are single and double hearing protection required?
A: greater than or equal to 85, greater than or equal to 104
Q: Reporting times: Z? O? P? R?
A: ASAP (10 min), 30 min, 3 hours, 6 hours
Q: What is the purpose of mishap investigations?
A: to prevent similar mishaps from happening in the future
Q: Should adverse marking entries deal with one-time minor infractions?
A: no
Q: At what level are CG officers assigned to oversee Auxiliary programs?
A: district regions
Q: An Auxiliary division is composed of _____ or more flotillas.
A: 5
Q: A flotilla consists of _____+ qualified members.
A: 15
Q: What is the Courtesy Marine Examination Program?
A: administered by Auxiliary, important function
Q: ALC has LIMITED responsibility for ASE costing how much?
A: $250-3k
Q: ALC has full responsibility for type 6 materiel costing over $_____.
A: 3k
Q: ASE is type _____ materiel.
A: 6
Q: A major support equipment discrepancy affects __________.
A: safety of operation
Q: What is the life cycle for fuel trucks? Tow tractors? Hobarts? Hangar scrubbers?
A: 15 years, 15 years, 15 years, 10 years
Q: All requests for ALC technical assistance should be made via ________.
A: message traffic
Q: Who comprises the SE technical element?
A: ALC and prime unit
Q: Who has primary responsibility for the SE maintenance element?
A: CG-41
Q: What are the prime results of a successful maintenance program?
A: reliability and safety
Q: Aircraft cannot be within _____’ of a building during hot refueling.
A: 100’
Q: Notify the FD _____ minutes before hot refueling.
A: 15
Q: Hot refueling requires at least _____ people.
A: 4
Q: Can you use night vision goggles while hot fueling?
A: no
Q: Do not service __________ during overwing refueling.
A: oxygen
Q: Overwing refueling require _____ people.
A: 3
Q: What is the radar and HF range for fueling operations?
A: 300’
Q: A minimum of _____ people if required for every fuel transfer operation.
A: 2
Q: Do CG aircraft use static dissipater additive?
A: no
Q: What is the only FSII authorized?
A: diEGME
Q: Commercial fuels are not to be stored longer than __________.
A: 3 months
Q: How long can you store JP fuels?
A: indefinitely provided they are properly maintained
Q: Fueling: no lightning storms within _____ miles.
A: 5
Q: Fuel API gravity tests are most accurate at what temperature?
A: 60 degrees Fahrenheit
Q: The AEL Mk I detects _____. What does the Mk III detect?
A: water, contaminants
Q: How long are 1 gallon sampled obtained at receipt of fuel shipment s retained?
A: until the fuel is used or 60 days
Q: No smoking, flames, sparks, or radio transmissions within _____’ of fuel sampling.
A: 50
Q: When you release a deadman control, the flow rate must decrease to within _____%.
A: 5%
Q: What is the maximum fueling pressure for CG aircraft?
A: 60 psig for C-130s, 55 psig for the rest
Q: How many extinguishers must fuel trucks carry?
A: 2x #20 dry chemical
Q: Fuel nozzles must have _____ mesh or finer screens installed.
A: 100
Q: When is the use of automatic drain vales used in fuel farms?
A: never
Q: For ground points and terminal lugs, use test leads equipped with __________.
A: alligator clamps
Q: Do not use __________ to count conductors in plugs.
A: pencils
Q: Bonding for static charge shall be ______ ohms or less.
A: 1 ohm
Q: Bonding of _____ ohms or less is required for conduit carrying electrical wiring.
A: 0.1 ohms
Q: _________ structures shall not be used as a current path return.
A: Magnesium alloy
Q: Each ground for separate power sources shall be connected to ________.
A: separate ground points
Q: How many areas are there in the CG? What 3 groups fall under areas?
A: 2 (LANT and PAC), cutters/districts and sectors/MLCs
Q: Where are addiction prevention specialists attached?
A: MLCs
Q: Who is the standby reserve composed of?
A: people who are able to be involuntarily recalled
Q: What is the selected reserve?
A: it has priority over all other reserve components and is designated as essential to contingency ops
Q: True or false: Alcohol must be consumed to be considered an alcohol incident.
A: T
Q: Is a man overboard reportable?
A: yes, as class D
Q: What class of mishap is an accidental firearm discharge or electric shock?
A: D
Q: Can EMI interfere with normal liberty?
A: no
Q: What are the two different methods of assessing risk?
A: GAR and SPE
Q: Members involved in an alcohol situation are to be __________ and given a ______.
A: screened, 3307
Q: When do we use hotstamp wiring marking?
A: never
Q: Direct wire marking: every _____” along length of wire
A: 3”
Q: Indirect wire marking: within _____” of termination
A: 12”
Q: Critical wire routing points for clamps can be identified by _________markers.
A: 1” white or yellow
Q: Wire gage # may be omitted from what wires?
A: coax and thermocouple
Q: A wire harness ID number never has more than _____ digits.
A: 4
Q: Wire harnesses are identified by the letter _____.
A: “W”
Q: An ungrounded wire on a single phase system is labeled with the letter _____.
A: “V”
Q: Wire circuit function:
A:
C - flight Controls
E - Engine instrument
F - Flight instrument
G - landing Gear
H - heating/de-icing
I - not used
J - ignition
K - engine control
O - not used
P - DC Power
R - Radio
S - radar
X - AC power
Wire numbers __________ are reserved for service modifications.
A: 2000-4999
Q: E^3 classifications:
A:
X - Special
E - Emit interference
P - Power
S - Susceptible to interference
Y – passive
Q: What does E^3 mean?
A: Electromagnetic Environmental Effects
Q: How long are CG-22s kept on file?
A: 1 year
Q: What is AFTO Form 103?
A: used to document any unusual work required for C-130s which are scheduled for PDM
Q: What is Standard Form 368?
A: quality deficiency report
Q: When a component is enrolled, convert OPNAV 4790 info to a _____.
A: SCHR
Q: What is DD 2027?
A: oil analysis record
Q: What is DD 2026?
A: oil analysis request
Q: What is DD 1574?
A: serviceable tag
Q: What is a DD 1577-2?
A: unserviceable tag
Q: What is a CG 1577-A?
A: UR tag
Q: Keep talc away from what areas?
A: packing and fabric
Q: How much must cargo weigh to drop in an ADS configuration?
A: 40-250 lbs.
Q: What are the two types of data bus coupling?
A: direct, transformer
Q: If an aircraft external power system loses the 28VDC signal from the interlock circuit, power will be shut off within _____ seconds.
A: 2
Q: An interlock circuit shall draw no more than __________ from the aircraft’s circuit.
A: 20 mA
Q: Hot fueling operations are not permitted within _____’ of any occupied building.
A: 200’
Q: For LOX bottle servicing, the operator is required to only wear __________.
A: eye protection
Q: Oxygen servicing control valves shall not be opened more than _______.
A: 3/4 turn
Q: Adele (cushion) clamps must be marked with a “_____” and be __________ type.
A: “W” and wedge
Q: Ensure plastic clamps are not located in zones where temperature is greater than or equal to_.
A: 185 degrees Fahrenheit
Q: How many threads should show on an adele clamp?
A: 3-5
Q: When can you use pliers or a hemostat to re-bend a contact?
A: when you use a plastic protective sheath
Q: What are the 7 common types of aircraft corrosion?
A: uniform surface attack, pitting, dissimilar metals (galvanic), crevice, inter-granular, stress, erosion
Q: No more than _____ ground wires shall be attached to a common ground stud.
A: 4
Q: A report of survey is prepared on form __________.
A: 5269
Q: Direct Access discrepancies should be passed to __________.
A: SPO
Q: What are the 2 types of CG training?
A: resident, non-resident
Q: Requests to attend C schools must be formally submitted by the _____.
A: TO
Q: Who is responsible for source selection on a PR?
A: KO
Q: What is the most important signature on a PR?
A: certification of funds availability
Q: If electrolyte gets into the eyes, flush with water for at least _____minutes.
A: 15
Q: How can you insulate tools to work on batteries?
A: heat shrink
Q: What gas is generated by NiCad Batteries?
A: hydrogen
Q: After a battery is charged, let it sit for __________ before checking the electrolyte level.
A: 2 hours
Q: While charging NiCad batteries, if the case reaches 115 degrees Fahrenheit, you may have to add __________.
A: water
Q: Can you add water to a vented NiCad battery in an unknown state of charge?
A: no
Q: Gassing and chance for electrolyte overflow increase or decrease with higher temps?
A: increase
Q: Vented lead acid batteries shall be located in what type of room?
A: vented, fireproof
Q: SLABs require little maintenance. Only a __________ check is required once per year.
A: capacitance
Q: All equipment that comes in contact with metal-oxide semiconductors (MOS) shall be what?
A: grounded
Q: May EMI be used as a punishment?
A: no
Q: During annual maintenance, circuit breakers should be cycled _____times.
A: 3
Q: Who gives the PIC clearance for a flight?
A: CO
Q: Who develops standardized flight procedures?
A: ATC Mobile
Q: For FW units, _____% of hours should be for training. RW?
A: 20%, 40%
Q: The highest mission priority is given to what?
A: emergent threats
Q: If possible, make airspace reservations for planned missions _____hours in advance.
A: 24
Q: What manual covers rates for reimbursable flights?
A: COMDTINST 7310.1 (series)
Q: Where is the bearing compass stored?
A: life rafts
Q: Rescue swimmer radio: output power, length of operation, and channels available?
A: 5W hi and 1W lo, 15-16 hours, 9 and 16
Q: Drop radios: output power?
A: 5W
Q: Does the 406 PLB float?
A: no
Q: PLB transmission:
A: 406 MHz for _____ hours every _____ seconds, 121.5 MHz for _____ hours 24, 52.5, 48
Q: Can PLBs transfer between units?
A: no, they’re registered to units
Q: If a PLB inadvertently goes off, whom should you contact?
A: ARFCC
Q: What 3 types of survival kits do we use?
A: Arctic/Antarctic Survival Kit, Cold Weather Survival Kit, Aerial Delivery Survival Kit
Q: Do members incur a service obligation for TA funds?
A: no
Q: Aluminum lugs shall have the tongues ___________.
A: sandwiched between 2 flat washers
Q: Cadmium plating on connectors can corrode and cause __________.
A: cancer
Q: An increase in temperature around circuit breakers will _____ its trip level
A: lower
Q: If a tripped circuit breaker has a yellow sleeve exposed, what has it detected?
A: an arc event
Q: What letter identifies a high vibration circuit breaker?
A: “V”
Q: The __________ side of a circuit breaker is connected to the power source.
A: line
Q: What may be used external of circuit breakers to make multiple circuit breakers pop at the same time?
A: trip bar
Q: What is MINIMIZE?
A: an operational condition declared by command to clear all military circuits
Q: Is the procurement and use of 800 MHz (public safety) radios typically authorized?
A: no
Q: What is the frequency for Channel 23?
A: 157.150 MHz
Q: What is Channel 83 also used for?
A: fog sounding devices (also interferes with Canadian stuff)
Q: What 3 things go into an NMCT calculation?
A: NMCM, NMCS, NMCD
Q: All modifications to aircraft must be approved by what process?
A: ACCB
Q: What is CG-41?
A: Office of Aeronautical Engineering
Q: What is CG-912?
A: Office of Contract Operations
Q: Who manages PDM programs?
A: CG-41
Q: What is the ALSE prime unit?
A: ATC Mobile
Q: Who develops, reviews, and updates MPCs?
A: prime unit
Q: Who is a unit’s most senior safety representative?
A: XO
Q: If you work on composites, what program must you be enrolled in?
A: occupational medical monitoring
Q: Who is typically the gas free engineer?
A: AEO, MX officer, or QA officer
Q: An aviation gas free engineering tech must be a member of what department?
A: QA
Q: Circuit breakers have a life expectancy of __________% or less than that of a switch.
A: 10%
Q: Fuse characteristics: A? B? C?
A: fast blow, time lag, normal
Q: A current limited is designed specifically for use in __________ systems.
A: power distribution
Q: T/F: Temporary substitutions of fast blow circuit breakers for slow blows is allowed.
A: T
Q: What are the 2 basic types of splices?
A: in-line (butt), end
Q: In a __________ splice both wires enter the same side of the splice.
A: end
Q: In a __________ spice, wires enter from both sides.
A: in-line (butt)
Q: Splices shall not be used to repair wire in a ____________ or within _____” of one.
A: fuel tank, 12”
Q: When attaching a wire to a pigtail, does the splice that connects the two count toward the 1/segment limit?
A: no
Q: What is a property survey?
A: investigates damaged/lost equipment >$500
Q: What is the most important component of effective instruction?
A: attitude
Q: For courses >18 weeks, how is TA paid?
A: reimbursed
Q: What grade must be achieved for TA?
A: D
Q: Use __________ glass for fuel samples.
A: clear
Q: Fuel sample bottles should be filled to within _____” of the cap line.
A: 1/2”
Q: Delta-P records shall be taken daily and maintained for __________.
A: 12
Q: What is Delta-P?
A: differential pressure
Q: Refueler tanks shall comply with __________.
A: NFPA 407
Q: FSII % by volume?
A: .07-0.15
Q: If fuel is not procured via ___________ or __________ the flash point must be tested.
A: DLA or DESC
Q: What is thermoplastic wire insulation best known for?
A: good electrical properties, low cost
Q: aluminum conductors are typically used in size _____ or larger due to their light weight.
A: 8
Q: The procedure for selecting supply priority is governed by __________.
A: uniform materiel movement and issue priority system
Q: How many SE spares are units authorized?
A: 0
Q: Who is the source of supply for all type 6 items?
A: ALC
Q: Type 6 materiel is requisitioned through ALC via __________.
A: AMMIS
Q: What is a DD250?
A: purchase order
Q: Who is the sole authority for ASE transfer between CG units?
A: CO of ALC
Q: Equipment transfers will be accomplished using what form?
A: 1149
Q: Allowance change requests are processed through __________.
A: AMMIS
Q: Who can authorize changes or modifications to SE?
A: CG-41
Q: Who determines the mode of publication distribution?
A: sponsor
Q: Who has approved accreditation of the CG Institute?
A: National Home Study Council
Q: The primary type of letter used in the CG is the __________.
A: business letter
Q: Can the CG medal be awarded for acts not involving the enemy?
A: yes
Q: When standards of conduct come into question, what 3 limitations can we use?
A: withholding of privileges, EMI, search and seizure
Q: What is the maximum recommended caffeine intake?
A: 450 mg
Q: Bone marrow donation: minimum of _____ days grounded
A: 7
Q: For 1 week after donating blood, remain under _______’ altitude and perform no____ flying.
A: 35,000’, night flying
Q: To donate blood you must receive permission from whom?
A: CO
Q: Donating blood: 200+ ccs = __________ days, 500+ ccs = _________ days.
A: 3, 7
Q: Where is a 3307 filed?
A: PERSRU PDR
Q: Who is responsible for the overall administration of the advancement system?
A: CG personnel command
Q: E-8 advancement requires _____ years of active duty.
A: 10
Q: E-9 advancement requires _____ years of active duty.
A: 12
Q: Who can grant advancement waivers?
A: PSC (adv)
Q: Who has sole authority to frock?
A: CGPC-epm-2
Q: Where can you find advancement requirements?
A: COMDTINST M1000.6, Chapter 5, Section C
Q: What is a CG 1650?
A: award recommendation
Q: Is a summary of action required for achievement and commendation medals?
A: no
Q: A standard allowance gives an air station a __________ part supply based on _____ years of historical data. What about for OCONUS or OTH?
A: 90 day, 2, 120 day
Q: arts will be shipped to ALC within __________ of removal from service with a max of_____.
A: 15 days, 30 days
Q: What are the 4 JOAP manuals?
A: NAVAIR 17-15-50.1, .2, .3, .4
Q: What is SOAP and who performs it?
A: HU-25 spectrometric oil analysis program, Honeywell
Q: Who performs oil analysis for 65 engines?
A: Turbomecca
Q: What program monitors the performance of equipment and identifies deteriorating trends?
A: RCM
Q: What is the RCM process guide?
A: 30
Q: How much fuel is taken in a clear and bright fuel sample?
A: 1 pint
Q: How long are fuel samples kept?
A: 24 hours or until another is taken
Q: All tanks shall be drained when?
A: Before the first flight of every day
Q: FSII lowers the flash point of JP-5 by how many degrees?
A: 4 degrees Fahrenheit
Q: What is the aviation fuels process guide?
A: 170
Q: Attach no more than _____ lugs to a terminal board stud that will be used for cover mounting.
A: 2
Q: What is the IRR primarily composed of?
A: people who were formally active duty or in the selected reserve
Q: CWOs under __________ years of age may apply to OCS.
A: 40
Q: When identifying hazards, what 3 types of hazards are considered?
A: personnel, environmental, equipment
Q: A 1-page summary of action is required for the __________ Medal.
A: Meritorious Service
Q: Drug and alcohol abuse undermines…?
A: morale, mission performance, safety, health
Q: When are price quotes required on a PR?
A: when the cost exceeds the micropurchase cost
Q: A micropurchase for services shall not exceed $__________.
A: 2500
Q: A micropurchase for supplies shall not exceed $__________.
A: 3000
Q: If you use sole source on a PR, what must accompany it?
A: JOTFOC
Q: Survival suits typically increase survival time by __________.
A: 2-10x
Q: Fatal results from hypothermia occur __________x more often on water than on land.
A: 4
Q: Can CG radar provide deconfliction during due regard operations?
A: no
Q: When flying over environmentally sensitive areas, maintain at least ________’ AGL.
A: 2000
Q: If you get lased, should you rub your eyes?
A: no
Q: Aircraft using GPS as the sole source of navigation shall use databases certified by whom?
A: NGA
Q: Category __________ and __________ ILS approaches are not authorized.
A: II and III
Q: What is the only view-limiting device authorized for RW aircraft?
A: visor sticker
Q: What are we authorized to squawk on VFR SAR missions?
A: 1277
Q: __________ are required to be maintained on all components listed on the config report.
A: SCHRs
Q: MORPT: This report is due not later than the __________ day following the end of the report period.
A: 7th
Q: What does MORPT stand for?
A: Monthly Operating Report
Q: What is a CG-22?
A: Aeronautical Publication Change Recommendation
Q: What is AF Form 847?
A: Recommendation for Change of Publication (used for flight pubs)
Q: Can married people apply to the Academy?
A: no
Q: Requests to attend C schools are submitted by trainings officers via_________ or __________.
A: ETR or STTR
Q: What is the maximum wind speed for jacking?
A: 15 mph
Q: When is a post PDM letter sent?
A: within the first 14 days of operational availability, up to 30 calendar days max
Q: How are URs numbered?
A: consecutively starting anew at the beginning of each calendar year
Q: How many days do you have to enter a doc number for a PP?
A: 3 days
Q: ALC decals: white sticker?
A: overhauled
Q: ALC decals: yellow sticker
A: repaired and or inspected as necessary
Q: What is a 4377A?
A: flight record
Q: Where is the FSC in a NIIN?
A: first 4 numbers (the ones we typically don’t write out)
Q: When do we do physical property inspections?
A: new custodian, new command, anually
Q: How do you pack a MOSFET?
A: stored in a conductive package so that all leads are grounded
Q: What is the tolerance of a resistor with a silver band?
A: 10%
Q: What is the tolerance of a resistor with a gold band?
A: 5%
Q: In an AC generator, voltage is controlled by the strength of what?
A: magnetic field
Q: What is the drying time for equipment immersed in salt water?
A: 24 hours at 150 degrees Fahrenheit
Q: What happens to cell plates during discharge?
A: increased gassing
Q: UHF lower frequency range was changed to what by the Coast Guard?
A: 225 MHz
Q: What is the impedance of a TNC connector?
A: 50 ohms nominal
Q: What frequencies are most readily absorbed by the human body?
A: 30-300 MHz
Q: What is most dangerous about strobe lights?
A: Capacitor holds high AC voltage, wait 3 minutes for it to bleed off
Q: NT9000 heat gun: What is the normal and max PSI?
A: 5-7, 200
Q: How do you extinguish NiCad overheats and fires?
A: overheat - water fog, fire - CO2 extinguisher
Q: What is the max allowable current leakage between battery terminals and the case?
A: 150 mA
Q: At what PSI do battery vent caps release pressure?
A: 6 +/- 4 PSI
Q: Does a battery’s specific gravity change during charging or discharging?
A: no
Q: What do you use to clean circuit boards?
A: isopropyl alcohol
Q: MSDS sections:
A:
1- identification
2 - ingredients
3 - hazards
4 - first aid
5 - fire fighting
6 - accidental release (environmental)
7 - handling and storage
Q: A megger produces _____ power.
A: DC
Q: What is F-35 fuel?
A: Jet A
Q: What is the form number used for deferred maintenance?
A: 4377B
Q: TACAN is in what frequency range?
A: UHF
Q: What is the IFF transmit frequency?
A: 1090 MHz
Q: How long should salt water immersed gear soak?
A: 4 hours; change the water manually every hour unless water is continually circulating
Q: 1553 data bus: what is the function of bus 1? bus 2?
A: control; monitor
Q: What color is the inside of an electric box?
A: orange
Q: When is TIMOS audited?
A: April
Q: ASD specification __________ provides a standard for the presentation of technical data for aircraft.
A: S1000D
Q: What color is the flight record?
A: blue
Q: All squawk deferred discrepancies shall be transferred to what paper document?
A: maintenance discrepancy record
