1A051 CDC Flashcards
What is not a primary responsibility of the boom operator during ground duties?
A: Inspects flight control equipment
B: Inspects passenger equipment
C: checks air refueling systems
D: checks cargo equipment
A: Inspects flight control equipment
What is not a primary responsibility of the boom operator during ground duties?
A: Inspects flight control equipment
B: Inspects passenger equipment
C: checks air refueling systems
D: checks cargo equipment
A: Inspects flight control equipment
Which skill level does a boom operator maintain that evaluates personnel individually and as a group?
A: 3.
B: 5.
C: 7.
D: 9.
D: 9.
Where is the TACC headquarters?
A: Edwards AFB, California
B: Randolph AFB, Texas
C: Offuit AFB, Nebraska
D: Scott AFB, Illinois
D: Scott AFB, Illinois
Which function describes a temporarily deployed organization established at deployed locations where air mobility operational support is non-existent or insufficient?
A: Contingency support element (CSE)
B: Contingency response team (CRT)
C: Contingency communication team (CCT)
D: Contingency response element (CRE)
D: Contingency response element (CRE)
Which subject is not taught in phase 1 of the AMC affiliation training program?
A: Weight and balance procedures.
B: Weighing and marking procedures.
C: Basic center-of-balance calculations.
D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.
D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.
Which subject is not taught in phase 1 of the affiliation training program?
A: Weight and balance procedures.
B: Weighing and marking procedures.
C: Basic center-of-balance calculations.
D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.
D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.
Who can attend phase 2 of the AMC affiliation program?
A: Unit movement officers and team chiefs who will be traveling with their loads and personnel to the destination.
B: Unit movement officers and supervisory personnel (E-5 and above) who have completed phase 1 training.
C: Only unit movement officers who have completed phase 1 training.
D; Any person who graduates from phase 1.
B: Unit movement officers and supervisory personnel (E-5 and above) who have completed phase 1 training.
When you handed a contingency response element (CRE) load plan at the CRE airfield, when can you change the load plan to fit your needs?
A: Never.
B: Before you finalize the load plan.
C: Only when it affects safety of flight.
D: Anytime you want to speed the loading process.
C: Only when it affects safety of flight.
Why was the c-1 Fokker christened the “Question Mark”?
A: The way it looked refueling.
B: No one knew if it would take off.
C: They had more questions than answers.
D: No one knew how long it could remain aloft.
D: No one knew how long it could remain aloft.
What most clearly demonstrated the inadequacies of long-range American bombing?
A: European theater during World War 1
B: Attack on Chonju during Korean War.
C: Russian front during World War 2.
D: Pacific theater during World War 2.
D: Pacific theater during World War 2.
What squadrons became the first air refueling squadrons?
A: 2d and 40th.
B: 40th and 101st.
C: 43d and 402d.
D: 43d and 509th.
D: 43d and 509th.
A hanful of KB-29Ms were modified with the probe-and-drogue system to test in-flight refueling of combat aircraft during _______.
A: World War 1
B: World War 2
C: the Korean War
D: the Vietnam War
C: the Korean War
When Boeing modified the B-29 with the flying boom, the new design was designated the _______.
A: YKB-29T
B: KB-50J
C: KB-29M
D: KB-29P
D: KB-29P
What was one major problem encountered in the KC-97s?
A: Propeller metal fatigue.
B: Boom uncontrollability.
C: Leaking fuel tanks.
D: Instrument failures.
A: Propeller metal fatigue.
Why did Strategic Air Command (SAC) put its tankers on alert during the Cold War?
A: To support long-range bombers.
B: To cover fighters who were on alert.
C: Heated confrontations with the Soviets.
D: The Soviet intercontinental attack capability.
A: To support long-range bombers.
How many years did Operation Creek Party last?
A: 5.
B: 8.
C: 10.
D: 12.
C: 10.
What was the Chrome Dome mission?
A: KC-135 flying from Buenos Aires to Washington, DC.
B: B-52 force on continuous airborne alert.
C: B-52s being refueled by KB-50Js.
D: KC-135 refueling in Southeast Asia.
B: B-52 force on continuous airborne alert.
The real measure of success for the Young Tigers was the _____.
A: hundreds of aircrews and aircraft that they saved.
B: 9 billion pounds of fuel they off-loaded.
C: 813,878 refuelings they accomplished.
D: 194,687 sorties they flew.
A: hundreds of aircrews and aircraft that they saved.
The primary mission of the advanced tanker/cargo aircraft (ATCA) was to support ______.
A: Strategic Air Command (SAC) bombers
B: Tactical Air Command (TAC) fighters.
C: Pacific Air Force (PACAF) fighters.
D: Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) fighters.
B: Tactical Air Command (TAC) fighters.
What part of the body may an injury occur when you raise or lower the B-5 maintenance stand while standing on the ladder?
A: Hands.
B: Elbows.
C: Feet.
D: Fingers.
C: Feet.
Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard provides guidelines for the different areas of fire prevention on the flightline?
A: 91-29
B: 91-57
C: 91-66
D: 91-100
D: 91-100
How many feet must you be from an aircraft before smoking is allowed?
A: 25
B: 50
C: 200
D: 250
B: 50
What describes the characteristics of Halon 1211 agents that have not decomposed?
A: Colorless and odorless
B: Colorless and strong, acrid odor
C: Slightly white mist and odorless
D: Colorless and faintly sweet smelling
D: Colorless and faintly sweet smelling
Which safety identifier do you use to identify information that can result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed?
A: Note
B: Caution
C: Warning
D: A large red “S”
C: Warning
The act of sharing information with others to cause some kind of actions best defines _________.
A: Communication
B: Delegation
C: Managing
D: Directing
A: Communication
Where are bulk handguns stored upon arrival at the aircraft?
A: Plain sight of everyone
B: Aircraft gun box
C: With crew bags
D: On flight deck
B: Aircraft gun box
If an aircraft is hijacked and carrying passengers, what is the primary concern?
A: Safety of the passengers
B: Aircraft lands immediately
C: Demands of the hijackers
D: Length of time hijackers have control of the aircraft
A: Safety of the passengers
What is the United States policy concerning hijackers?
A: To trade demands for hostages
B: Not to give in to their demands
C: Not to let them leave the United states
D: To be concerned for the passenger safety
B: Not to give in to their demands
Infants may be transported on an aircraft if they are over the age of ______.
A: 6 weeks
B: 8 weeks
C: 10 weeks
D: 3 months
A: 6 weeks
If you expect a long delay in loading passengers to the aircraft, have them __________.
A: Returned to the terminal area
B: Wait on the bus until you are ready to load them
C: Wait outside the aircraft until you are ready for them
D: Loaded and have them remain seated with their seat belts fastened
A: Returned to the terminal area
Within how many hours must you serve boxed lunches after removing them from refrigeration?
A: 6
B: 5
C: 4
D: 3
B: 5
What percentage of ground emergency egress situations is unplanned?
A: 20 - 30
B: 50 - 60
C: 80 - 90
D: 90 - 100
C: 80 - 90
What does the acronym T.E.S.T. mean during a planned emergency egress?
A: Taxi, escape, secure cargo, tell command post
B: to hurry, evacuate source of problem, and team up
C: Tell command post, evaluation, signal to evacuate, and team up
D: Type of emergency, evacuation necessary, signal to evacuate, and time available
D: Type of emergency, evacuation necessary, signal to evacuate, and time available
As the aircraft taxi’s you should mentally review your ______.
A: primary and secondary exits
B: passenger brief
C: alarm bells
D: checklist
A: primary and secondary exits
The US Bureau of Customs inspectors are responsible for controlling the ______.
A: personnel disinfecting the area
B: clearance of foreign nationals
C: importation of animal products
D: importation of wild animals and wild birds
D: importation of wild animals and wild birds
The US Bureau of Agriculture is responsible for controlling the importation of _______.
A: poisonous rodents
B: wild animals
C: plants, domestic animals, and vegetables
D: wild birds and their plumage and eggs
C: plants, domestic animals, and vegetables
A permit to proceed (PTP) is ______.
A: clearance that customs is not needed
B: good for as many stops as possible
C: good to the next station with no intermediate stops in between
D: clearance to load at an airport
C: good to the next station with no intermediate stops in between
When you land in a foreign country and a local official wants to inspect your aircraft _____.
A: escort the official on the inspection
B: tell the aircraft commander so that individual can follow the inspector on the inspection
C: do not allow any inspection and seek aid from the senior US military representative at the site
D: allow that person to inspect everywhere except the flight deck due to classified equipment
C: do not allow any inspection and seek aid from the senior US military representative at the site
Which is not an example of a nonexpendable item?
A: pillows
B: coffee pot
C: headrest covers
D: ice chests
C: headrest covers
What name/s would you put in the “departure from” block of the Customs Form 7507, General Declaration (Outward/Inward)?
A: Airfield the cargo was loaded
B: Airfield that you started your return leg from
C: Airfield you departed from in the United States
D: Airfield and country you departed from prior to entering the United States
D: Airfield and country you departed from prior to entering the United States
Who is responsible for delivering passenger and crew member meals called into the in-flight kitchen?
A: Loadmasters
B: fleet services
C: in-flight kitchen
D: passenger service
B: fleet service
What four forces act on an airfoil?
A: Speed, weight, thrust, and gravity
B: speed, lift, drag, and gravity
C: weight, lift, drag, and thrust
D: Lift, drag, weight, and speed
C: weight, lift, drag, and thrust
During a straight and level flight at a constant airspeed ______.
A: thrust and drag are equal
B: thrust always exceeds drag
C: drag always exceeds thrust
D: thrust momentarily exceeds drag
A: thrust and drag are equal
The balance of an aircraft refers to a condition of stability that exists when all weights and forces are ______.
A: acting in a way as to prevent rotation on any axis
B: reacting in a way as to prevent rotation on any axis
C: acting in a way as to prevent counter-rotation on any axis
D: reacting in a way as to prevent counter-rotation on any axis
A: acting in a way as to prevent rotation on any axis
The distance to the leading edge mean aerodynamic chord (LEMAC) is measured in inches from the _______.
A: beginning to the end of the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC)
B: reference datum line to the LEMAC
C: nose of the aircraft to the LEMAC
D: CG location of a piece of cargo’s arm to the LEMAC
B: reference datum line to the LEMAC
Record the record of weight and balance personnel on a DD form _______.
A: 365
B: 365-1
C: 365-2
D: 365-3
B: 365-1
Which law of physics is aircraft balance based?
A: law of the fulcrum
B: law of the lever
C: Newton’s second law
D: Charles’s law.
B: law of the lever
Along what axis do we find the main shift in center of gravity (CG)?
A: longitudinal
B: vertical
C: diagonal
D: lateral
D: Lateral
Which is the correct formula for computing a new center of gravity (CG) after you add weight?
A: (original moment + added moment) / (original weight + added weight) = new CG
B: (original moment - added moment) / (original weight - added weight) = new CG
C: (original moment + added moment) X (original weight + added weight) = new CG
D: (original moment + added moment) - (original weight + added weight) = new CG
A: (original moment + added moment) / (original weight + added weight) = new CG
What must you consider as you load long items of cargo such as missiles, trucks, and trailers?
A: cargo winch
B: aircraft fuel load
C: internal cargo compartment dimensions
D: aircraft’s weight and balance before and after loading
C: internal cargo compartment dimensions
If a vehicle has a missing load data plate or one that is unreadable, it still may be airlifted if ______.
A: a copy can be found
B: you use book weights
C: the only item exceeded is the cross-country weights
D: the vehicle does not exceed the limitations/procedures of the -9 TO
D: the vehicle does not exceed the limitations/procedures of the -9 TO
On the KC-10, the secondary flight controls include inboard and outboard _______.
A: leading edge slats and adjustable horizontal stabilizer
B: leading edge slats and inboard and outboard pairs of elevators
C: pairs of elevators and an adjustable horizontal stabilizer
D: pairs of elevators and upper and lower two-segment rudders
A: leading edge slats and adjustable horizontal stabilizer
How many seconds would the landing gear on the KC-135 retraction time be in extremely low temperatures?
A: 10
B: 20
C: 30
D: 40
C: 30
When the entire yellow tip of the pointer falls within the yellow zone on the oleo fork for the KC-135 landing gear, how many degrees is the truck level within?
A: 2
B: 3
C: 4
D: 5
A: 2
The KC-10’s FWD and AFT tanks are each comprised of _____.
A: longitudinally interconnected bladder sections
B: laterally interconnected bladder sections
C: conventional non-self sealing bladder
D: conventional self-sealing bladder
A: longitudinally interconnected bladder sections
On the KC-10, which motor pump/s, recieves hydraulic pressure transfer from one system to another to support the low rudder, upper rudder, and horizontal stabilizer?
A: one non-reversible
B: two non-reversible
C: one reversible
D: two reversible
B: two non-reversible
On the KC-135, the two transformer rectifier (TR) busses are normally connected together and individually allowed to power all direct current (DC) loads through ______.
A: current limiters
B: switched busses
C: parallel channels
D: battery/inverters
A: current limiters
The KC-10’s primary and emergency sources of direct current (DC) power include ______.
A: two transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 1)
B: two transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 3)
C: four transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 1)
D: four transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 3)
D: four transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 3)
When the KC-135 engines provide bleed air, what is accomplished?
A: hydraulic reservoir depressurization
B: emergency window defrost
C: cabin depressurization
D: engine starting
D: engine starting
On the KC-10, pneumatic system supplies pneumatic power for ______.
A: wing anti-icing, galley and lavatory ventilation, and engine anti-icing
B: wing anti-icing, galley and lavatory ventilation, and engine reversing
C: engine anti-icing, engine reversing, and hydraulic reservoir pressurization
D: engine starting, air conditioning pressurization, and hydraulic reservoir pressurization
B: wing anti-icing, galley and lavatory ventilation, and engine reversing
Every cabin door on the KC-10 can be opened _____.
A: electrically, pneumatically, or manually
B: hydraulically, or pneumatically only
C: manually or pneumatically only
D: electrically or hydraulically only
A: electrically, pneumatically, or manually
On the KC-10, the door at position 1L can also be opened or closed ______.
A: 12 volt electrical power
B: explosive cartridges
C: no electrical power
D: electrically or hydraulically only
C: no electrical power
How many different varieties of auxiliary power unit (APU) can be found on the KC-135?
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4
D: 4
The KC-135 auxiliary power unit (APU) starting system may be either ______.
A: electric or hydraulic
B: pneumatic or electric
C: hydraulic or pneumatic
D: electric or pneumatic
A: electric or hydraulic
Normal fuel burn rates for the KC-135 auxiliary power unit (APU) vary between 55 and 275 pounds per hour depending on ______.
A: the load placed on the APU and model
B: operating mode and temperature
C: operating mode and APU model
D: APU model and temperature
A: the load placed on the APU and model
Approximately how many pounds of thrust at sea level does the KC-135 engine develop?
A: 20,000
B: 21,000
C: 22,000
D: 23,000
C: 22,000
Lubricate the Teflon seals by putting fuel into the KC-135 boom after every ______.
A: 4 dry contacts
B: 4 wet contacts
C: 5 dry contacts
D: 5 wet contacts
C: 5 dry contacts
What direction does the lateral movement of the KC-135 ruddevator control stick causes the ruddevators to rotate?
A: side
B: left
C: same
D: opposite
D: opposite
Where is the KC-135 boom telescope control unit located?
A: the electronic equipment cabinet
B: forward end of the boom and connected to the telescoping drive assembly
C: under the boom instrument panel and connected to the telescope indicator
D: under the boom instrument panel and connected to the telescoping drive assembly
B: forward end of the boom and connected to the telescoping drive assembly
On the KC-135, the fuel bypass valve opens when the _______.
A: boom is retracted
B: fuel dump is complete
C: telescope lever is neutral
D: air refueling (AR) master switch is on
A: boom is retracted
The KC-10 telescoping tube is supported by _______.
A: gimbal unit
B: outer fuel tube
C: rollers within the outer tube
D: rollers within the inner tube
C: rollers within the outer tube
On the KC-10, what mode of flight control system is designed to partially alleviate nozzle loads and allow the boom to follow receiver movements?
A: automatic load alleviation system (ALAS)
B: COUPLED
C: RCVR DISC DELAY
d: EMER CONTACT MADE
A: automatic load alleviation system (ALAS)
The HYD SEL lever on the KC-10 boom operator’s overhead panel provides hydraulic power to the ______.
A: boom only
B: boom or drogue as selected
C: wing pod drogue or boom as selected
D: boom or center line drogue as selected
B: boom or drogue as selected
Which position indicators have adjustable limits on the Kc-10?
A: roll, telescope, and elevation
B: telescope and roll only
C: elevation (upper limit only) and roll
D: roll only
C: elevation (upper limit only) and roll
The KC-10 air refeuling system routes fuel from the forward, _________.
A: aft, and wing tanks
B: aft, and wing tanks
C: center, and aft tanks
D: center, and wing tanks
C: center, and aft tanks
Which emissions option do you normally use for qualification, requalification, category qualification, and difference training for tanker or receiver units?
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4
A: 1
