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1A051 CDC Flashcards

1
Q

What is not a primary responsibility of the boom operator during ground duties?

A: Inspects flight control equipment
B: Inspects passenger equipment
C: checks air refueling systems
D: checks cargo equipment

A

A: Inspects flight control equipment

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2
Q

What is not a primary responsibility of the boom operator during ground duties?

A: Inspects flight control equipment
B: Inspects passenger equipment
C: checks air refueling systems
D: checks cargo equipment

A

A: Inspects flight control equipment

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3
Q

Which skill level does a boom operator maintain that evaluates personnel individually and as a group?

A: 3.
B: 5.
C: 7.
D: 9.

A

D: 9.

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4
Q

Where is the TACC headquarters?

A: Edwards AFB, California
B: Randolph AFB, Texas
C: Offuit AFB, Nebraska
D: Scott AFB, Illinois

A

D: Scott AFB, Illinois

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5
Q

Which function describes a temporarily deployed organization established at deployed locations where air mobility operational support is non-existent or insufficient?

A: Contingency support element (CSE)
B: Contingency response team (CRT)
C: Contingency communication team (CCT)
D: Contingency response element (CRE)

A

D: Contingency response element (CRE)

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6
Q

Which subject is not taught in phase 1 of the AMC affiliation training program?

A: Weight and balance procedures.
B: Weighing and marking procedures.
C: Basic center-of-balance calculations.
D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.

A

D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.

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7
Q

Which subject is not taught in phase 1 of the affiliation training program?

A: Weight and balance procedures.
B: Weighing and marking procedures.
C: Basic center-of-balance calculations.
D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.

A

D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.

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8
Q

Who can attend phase 2 of the AMC affiliation program?

A: Unit movement officers and team chiefs who will be traveling with their loads and personnel to the destination.
B: Unit movement officers and supervisory personnel (E-5 and above) who have completed phase 1 training.
C: Only unit movement officers who have completed phase 1 training.
D; Any person who graduates from phase 1.

A

B: Unit movement officers and supervisory personnel (E-5 and above) who have completed phase 1 training.

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9
Q

When you handed a contingency response element (CRE) load plan at the CRE airfield, when can you change the load plan to fit your needs?

A: Never.
B: Before you finalize the load plan.
C: Only when it affects safety of flight.
D: Anytime you want to speed the loading process.

A

C: Only when it affects safety of flight.

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10
Q

Why was the c-1 Fokker christened the “Question Mark”?

A: The way it looked refueling.
B: No one knew if it would take off.
C: They had more questions than answers.
D: No one knew how long it could remain aloft.

A

D: No one knew how long it could remain aloft.

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11
Q

What most clearly demonstrated the inadequacies of long-range American bombing?

A: European theater during World War 1
B: Attack on Chonju during Korean War.
C: Russian front during World War 2.
D: Pacific theater during World War 2.

A

D: Pacific theater during World War 2.

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12
Q

What squadrons became the first air refueling squadrons?

A: 2d and 40th.
B: 40th and 101st.
C: 43d and 402d.
D: 43d and 509th.

A

D: 43d and 509th.

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13
Q

A hanful of KB-29Ms were modified with the probe-and-drogue system to test in-flight refueling of combat aircraft during _______.

A: World War 1
B: World War 2
C: the Korean War
D: the Vietnam War

A

C: the Korean War

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14
Q

When Boeing modified the B-29 with the flying boom, the new design was designated the _______.

A: YKB-29T
B: KB-50J
C: KB-29M
D: KB-29P

A

D: KB-29P

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15
Q

What was one major problem encountered in the KC-97s?

A: Propeller metal fatigue.
B: Boom uncontrollability.
C: Leaking fuel tanks.
D: Instrument failures.

A

A: Propeller metal fatigue.

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16
Q

Why did Strategic Air Command (SAC) put its tankers on alert during the Cold War?

A: To support long-range bombers.
B: To cover fighters who were on alert.
C: Heated confrontations with the Soviets.
D: The Soviet intercontinental attack capability.

A

A: To support long-range bombers.

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17
Q

How many years did Operation Creek Party last?

A: 5.
B: 8.
C: 10.
D: 12.

A

C: 10.

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18
Q

What was the Chrome Dome mission?

A: KC-135 flying from Buenos Aires to Washington, DC.
B: B-52 force on continuous airborne alert.
C: B-52s being refueled by KB-50Js.
D: KC-135 refueling in Southeast Asia.

A

B: B-52 force on continuous airborne alert.

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19
Q

The real measure of success for the Young Tigers was the _____.

A: hundreds of aircrews and aircraft that they saved.
B: 9 billion pounds of fuel they off-loaded.
C: 813,878 refuelings they accomplished.
D: 194,687 sorties they flew.

A

A: hundreds of aircrews and aircraft that they saved.

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20
Q

The primary mission of the advanced tanker/cargo aircraft (ATCA) was to support ______.

A: Strategic Air Command (SAC) bombers
B: Tactical Air Command (TAC) fighters.
C: Pacific Air Force (PACAF) fighters.
D: Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) fighters.

A

B: Tactical Air Command (TAC) fighters.

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21
Q

What part of the body may an injury occur when you raise or lower the B-5 maintenance stand while standing on the ladder?

A: Hands.
B: Elbows.
C: Feet.
D: Fingers.

A

C: Feet.

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22
Q

Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard provides guidelines for the different areas of fire prevention on the flightline?

A: 91-29
B: 91-57
C: 91-66
D: 91-100

A

D: 91-100

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23
Q

How many feet must you be from an aircraft before smoking is allowed?

A: 25
B: 50
C: 200
D: 250

A

B: 50

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24
Q

What describes the characteristics of Halon 1211 agents that have not decomposed?

A: Colorless and odorless
B: Colorless and strong, acrid odor
C: Slightly white mist and odorless
D: Colorless and faintly sweet smelling

A

D: Colorless and faintly sweet smelling

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25
Q

Which safety identifier do you use to identify information that can result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed?

A: Note
B: Caution
C: Warning
D: A large red “S”

A

C: Warning

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26
Q

The act of sharing information with others to cause some kind of actions best defines _________.

A: Communication
B: Delegation
C: Managing
D: Directing

A

A: Communication

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27
Q

Where are bulk handguns stored upon arrival at the aircraft?

A: Plain sight of everyone
B: Aircraft gun box
C: With crew bags
D: On flight deck

A

B: Aircraft gun box

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28
Q

If an aircraft is hijacked and carrying passengers, what is the primary concern?

A: Safety of the passengers
B: Aircraft lands immediately
C: Demands of the hijackers
D: Length of time hijackers have control of the aircraft

A

A: Safety of the passengers

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29
Q

What is the United States policy concerning hijackers?

A: To trade demands for hostages
B: Not to give in to their demands
C: Not to let them leave the United states
D: To be concerned for the passenger safety

A

B: Not to give in to their demands

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30
Q

Infants may be transported on an aircraft if they are over the age of ______.

A: 6 weeks
B: 8 weeks
C: 10 weeks
D: 3 months

A

A: 6 weeks

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31
Q

If you expect a long delay in loading passengers to the aircraft, have them __________.

A: Returned to the terminal area
B: Wait on the bus until you are ready to load them
C: Wait outside the aircraft until you are ready for them
D: Loaded and have them remain seated with their seat belts fastened

A

A: Returned to the terminal area

32
Q

Within how many hours must you serve boxed lunches after removing them from refrigeration?

A: 6
B: 5
C: 4
D: 3

A

B: 5

33
Q

What percentage of ground emergency egress situations is unplanned?

A: 20 - 30
B: 50 - 60
C: 80 - 90
D: 90 - 100

A

C: 80 - 90

34
Q

What does the acronym T.E.S.T. mean during a planned emergency egress?

A: Taxi, escape, secure cargo, tell command post
B: to hurry, evacuate source of problem, and team up
C: Tell command post, evaluation, signal to evacuate, and team up
D: Type of emergency, evacuation necessary, signal to evacuate, and time available

A

D: Type of emergency, evacuation necessary, signal to evacuate, and time available

35
Q

As the aircraft taxi’s you should mentally review your ______.

A: primary and secondary exits
B: passenger brief
C: alarm bells
D: checklist

A

A: primary and secondary exits

36
Q

The US Bureau of Customs inspectors are responsible for controlling the ______.

A: personnel disinfecting the area
B: clearance of foreign nationals
C: importation of animal products
D: importation of wild animals and wild birds

A

D: importation of wild animals and wild birds

37
Q

The US Bureau of Agriculture is responsible for controlling the importation of _______.

A: poisonous rodents
B: wild animals
C: plants, domestic animals, and vegetables
D: wild birds and their plumage and eggs

A

C: plants, domestic animals, and vegetables

38
Q

A permit to proceed (PTP) is ______.

A: clearance that customs is not needed
B: good for as many stops as possible
C: good to the next station with no intermediate stops in between
D: clearance to load at an airport

A

C: good to the next station with no intermediate stops in between

39
Q

When you land in a foreign country and a local official wants to inspect your aircraft _____.

A: escort the official on the inspection
B: tell the aircraft commander so that individual can follow the inspector on the inspection
C: do not allow any inspection and seek aid from the senior US military representative at the site
D: allow that person to inspect everywhere except the flight deck due to classified equipment

A

C: do not allow any inspection and seek aid from the senior US military representative at the site

40
Q

Which is not an example of a nonexpendable item?

A: pillows
B: coffee pot
C: headrest covers
D: ice chests

A

C: headrest covers

41
Q

What name/s would you put in the “departure from” block of the Customs Form 7507, General Declaration (Outward/Inward)?

A: Airfield the cargo was loaded
B: Airfield that you started your return leg from
C: Airfield you departed from in the United States
D: Airfield and country you departed from prior to entering the United States

A

D: Airfield and country you departed from prior to entering the United States

42
Q

Who is responsible for delivering passenger and crew member meals called into the in-flight kitchen?

A: Loadmasters
B: fleet services
C: in-flight kitchen
D: passenger service

A

B: fleet service

43
Q

What four forces act on an airfoil?

A: Speed, weight, thrust, and gravity
B: speed, lift, drag, and gravity
C: weight, lift, drag, and thrust
D: Lift, drag, weight, and speed

A

C: weight, lift, drag, and thrust

44
Q

During a straight and level flight at a constant airspeed ______.

A: thrust and drag are equal
B: thrust always exceeds drag
C: drag always exceeds thrust
D: thrust momentarily exceeds drag

A

A: thrust and drag are equal

45
Q

The balance of an aircraft refers to a condition of stability that exists when all weights and forces are ______.

A: acting in a way as to prevent rotation on any axis
B: reacting in a way as to prevent rotation on any axis
C: acting in a way as to prevent counter-rotation on any axis
D: reacting in a way as to prevent counter-rotation on any axis

A

A: acting in a way as to prevent rotation on any axis

46
Q

The distance to the leading edge mean aerodynamic chord (LEMAC) is measured in inches from the _______.

A: beginning to the end of the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC)
B: reference datum line to the LEMAC
C: nose of the aircraft to the LEMAC
D: CG location of a piece of cargo’s arm to the LEMAC

A

B: reference datum line to the LEMAC

47
Q

Record the record of weight and balance personnel on a DD form _______.

A: 365
B: 365-1
C: 365-2
D: 365-3

A

B: 365-1

48
Q

Which law of physics is aircraft balance based?

A: law of the fulcrum
B: law of the lever
C: Newton’s second law
D: Charles’s law.

A

B: law of the lever

49
Q

Along what axis do we find the main shift in center of gravity (CG)?

A: longitudinal
B: vertical
C: diagonal
D: lateral

A

D: Lateral

50
Q

Which is the correct formula for computing a new center of gravity (CG) after you add weight?

A: (original moment + added moment) / (original weight + added weight) = new CG
B: (original moment - added moment) / (original weight - added weight) = new CG
C: (original moment + added moment) X (original weight + added weight) = new CG
D: (original moment + added moment) - (original weight + added weight) = new CG

A

A: (original moment + added moment) / (original weight + added weight) = new CG

51
Q

What must you consider as you load long items of cargo such as missiles, trucks, and trailers?

A: cargo winch
B: aircraft fuel load
C: internal cargo compartment dimensions
D: aircraft’s weight and balance before and after loading

A

C: internal cargo compartment dimensions

52
Q

If a vehicle has a missing load data plate or one that is unreadable, it still may be airlifted if ______.

A: a copy can be found
B: you use book weights
C: the only item exceeded is the cross-country weights
D: the vehicle does not exceed the limitations/procedures of the -9 TO

A

D: the vehicle does not exceed the limitations/procedures of the -9 TO

53
Q

On the KC-10, the secondary flight controls include inboard and outboard _______.

A: leading edge slats and adjustable horizontal stabilizer
B: leading edge slats and inboard and outboard pairs of elevators
C: pairs of elevators and an adjustable horizontal stabilizer
D: pairs of elevators and upper and lower two-segment rudders

A

A: leading edge slats and adjustable horizontal stabilizer

54
Q

How many seconds would the landing gear on the KC-135 retraction time be in extremely low temperatures?

A: 10
B: 20
C: 30
D: 40

A

C: 30

55
Q

When the entire yellow tip of the pointer falls within the yellow zone on the oleo fork for the KC-135 landing gear, how many degrees is the truck level within?

A: 2
B: 3
C: 4
D: 5

A

A: 2

56
Q

The KC-10’s FWD and AFT tanks are each comprised of _____.

A: longitudinally interconnected bladder sections
B: laterally interconnected bladder sections
C: conventional non-self sealing bladder
D: conventional self-sealing bladder

A

A: longitudinally interconnected bladder sections

57
Q

On the KC-10, which motor pump/s, recieves hydraulic pressure transfer from one system to another to support the low rudder, upper rudder, and horizontal stabilizer?

A: one non-reversible
B: two non-reversible
C: one reversible
D: two reversible

A

B: two non-reversible

58
Q

On the KC-135, the two transformer rectifier (TR) busses are normally connected together and individually allowed to power all direct current (DC) loads through ______.

A: current limiters
B: switched busses
C: parallel channels
D: battery/inverters

A

A: current limiters

59
Q

The KC-10’s primary and emergency sources of direct current (DC) power include ______.

A: two transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 1)
B: two transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 3)
C: four transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 1)
D: four transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 3)

A

D: four transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 3)

60
Q

When the KC-135 engines provide bleed air, what is accomplished?

A: hydraulic reservoir depressurization
B: emergency window defrost
C: cabin depressurization
D: engine starting

A

D: engine starting

61
Q

On the KC-10, pneumatic system supplies pneumatic power for ______.

A: wing anti-icing, galley and lavatory ventilation, and engine anti-icing
B: wing anti-icing, galley and lavatory ventilation, and engine reversing
C: engine anti-icing, engine reversing, and hydraulic reservoir pressurization
D: engine starting, air conditioning pressurization, and hydraulic reservoir pressurization

A

B: wing anti-icing, galley and lavatory ventilation, and engine reversing

62
Q

Every cabin door on the KC-10 can be opened _____.

A: electrically, pneumatically, or manually
B: hydraulically, or pneumatically only
C: manually or pneumatically only
D: electrically or hydraulically only

A

A: electrically, pneumatically, or manually

63
Q

On the KC-10, the door at position 1L can also be opened or closed ______.

A: 12 volt electrical power
B: explosive cartridges
C: no electrical power
D: electrically or hydraulically only

A

C: no electrical power

64
Q

How many different varieties of auxiliary power unit (APU) can be found on the KC-135?

A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4

A

D: 4

65
Q

The KC-135 auxiliary power unit (APU) starting system may be either ______.

A: electric or hydraulic
B: pneumatic or electric
C: hydraulic or pneumatic
D: electric or pneumatic

A

A: electric or hydraulic

66
Q

Normal fuel burn rates for the KC-135 auxiliary power unit (APU) vary between 55 and 275 pounds per hour depending on ______.

A: the load placed on the APU and model
B: operating mode and temperature
C: operating mode and APU model
D: APU model and temperature

A

A: the load placed on the APU and model

67
Q

Approximately how many pounds of thrust at sea level does the KC-135 engine develop?

A: 20,000
B: 21,000
C: 22,000
D: 23,000

A

C: 22,000

68
Q

Lubricate the Teflon seals by putting fuel into the KC-135 boom after every ______.

A: 4 dry contacts
B: 4 wet contacts
C: 5 dry contacts
D: 5 wet contacts

A

C: 5 dry contacts

69
Q

What direction does the lateral movement of the KC-135 ruddevator control stick causes the ruddevators to rotate?

A: side
B: left
C: same
D: opposite

A

D: opposite

70
Q

Where is the KC-135 boom telescope control unit located?

A: the electronic equipment cabinet
B: forward end of the boom and connected to the telescoping drive assembly
C: under the boom instrument panel and connected to the telescope indicator
D: under the boom instrument panel and connected to the telescoping drive assembly

A

B: forward end of the boom and connected to the telescoping drive assembly

71
Q

On the KC-135, the fuel bypass valve opens when the _______.

A: boom is retracted
B: fuel dump is complete
C: telescope lever is neutral
D: air refueling (AR) master switch is on

A

A: boom is retracted

72
Q

The KC-10 telescoping tube is supported by _______.

A: gimbal unit
B: outer fuel tube
C: rollers within the outer tube
D: rollers within the inner tube

A

C: rollers within the outer tube

73
Q

On the KC-10, what mode of flight control system is designed to partially alleviate nozzle loads and allow the boom to follow receiver movements?

A: automatic load alleviation system (ALAS)
B: COUPLED
C: RCVR DISC DELAY
d: EMER CONTACT MADE

A

A: automatic load alleviation system (ALAS)

74
Q

The HYD SEL lever on the KC-10 boom operator’s overhead panel provides hydraulic power to the ______.

A: boom only
B: boom or drogue as selected
C: wing pod drogue or boom as selected
D: boom or center line drogue as selected

A

B: boom or drogue as selected

75
Q

Which position indicators have adjustable limits on the Kc-10?

A: roll, telescope, and elevation
B: telescope and roll only
C: elevation (upper limit only) and roll
D: roll only

A

C: elevation (upper limit only) and roll

76
Q

The KC-10 air refeuling system routes fuel from the forward, _________.

A: aft, and wing tanks
B: aft, and wing tanks
C: center, and aft tanks
D: center, and wing tanks

A

C: center, and aft tanks

77
Q

Which emissions option do you normally use for qualification, requalification, category qualification, and difference training for tanker or receiver units?

A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4

A

A: 1

CDC (1 decks)

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