1A051 CDC Flashcards by Rob Fuller

What is not a primary responsibility of the boom operator during ground duties?

A: Inspects flight control equipment
B: Inspects passenger equipment
C: checks air refueling systems
D: checks cargo equipment

A: Inspects flight control equipment

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What is not a primary responsibility of the boom operator during ground duties?

A: Inspects flight control equipment
B: Inspects passenger equipment
C: checks air refueling systems
D: checks cargo equipment

A: Inspects flight control equipment

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Which skill level does a boom operator maintain that evaluates personnel individually and as a group?

A: 3.
B: 5.
C: 7.
D: 9.

D: 9.

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Where is the TACC headquarters?

A: Edwards AFB, California
B: Randolph AFB, Texas
C: Offuit AFB, Nebraska
D: Scott AFB, Illinois

D: Scott AFB, Illinois

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Which function describes a temporarily deployed organization established at deployed locations where air mobility operational support is non-existent or insufficient?

A: Contingency support element (CSE)
B: Contingency response team (CRT)
C: Contingency communication team (CCT)
D: Contingency response element (CRE)

D: Contingency response element (CRE)

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Which subject is not taught in phase 1 of the AMC affiliation training program?

A: Weight and balance procedures.
B: Weighing and marking procedures.
C: Basic center-of-balance calculations.
D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.

D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.

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Which subject is not taught in phase 1 of the affiliation training program?

A: Weight and balance procedures.
B: Weighing and marking procedures.
C: Basic center-of-balance calculations.
D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.

D: Load planning and manifesting requirements.

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Who can attend phase 2 of the AMC affiliation program?

A: Unit movement officers and team chiefs who will be traveling with their loads and personnel to the destination.
B: Unit movement officers and supervisory personnel (E-5 and above) who have completed phase 1 training.
C: Only unit movement officers who have completed phase 1 training.
D; Any person who graduates from phase 1.

B: Unit movement officers and supervisory personnel (E-5 and above) who have completed phase 1 training.

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When you handed a contingency response element (CRE) load plan at the CRE airfield, when can you change the load plan to fit your needs?

A: Never.
B: Before you finalize the load plan.
C: Only when it affects safety of flight.
D: Anytime you want to speed the loading process.

C: Only when it affects safety of flight.

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Why was the c-1 Fokker christened the “Question Mark”?

A: The way it looked refueling.
B: No one knew if it would take off.
C: They had more questions than answers.
D: No one knew how long it could remain aloft.

D: No one knew how long it could remain aloft.

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What most clearly demonstrated the inadequacies of long-range American bombing?

A: European theater during World War 1
B: Attack on Chonju during Korean War.
C: Russian front during World War 2.
D: Pacific theater during World War 2.

D: Pacific theater during World War 2.

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What squadrons became the first air refueling squadrons?

A: 2d and 40th.
B: 40th and 101st.
C: 43d and 402d.
D: 43d and 509th.

D: 43d and 509th.

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A hanful of KB-29Ms were modified with the probe-and-drogue system to test in-flight refueling of combat aircraft during _______.

A: World War 1
B: World War 2
C: the Korean War
D: the Vietnam War

C: the Korean War

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When Boeing modified the B-29 with the flying boom, the new design was designated the _______.

A: YKB-29T
B: KB-50J
C: KB-29M
D: KB-29P

D: KB-29P

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What was one major problem encountered in the KC-97s?

A: Propeller metal fatigue.
B: Boom uncontrollability.
C: Leaking fuel tanks.
D: Instrument failures.

A: Propeller metal fatigue.

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Why did Strategic Air Command (SAC) put its tankers on alert during the Cold War?

A: To support long-range bombers.
B: To cover fighters who were on alert.
C: Heated confrontations with the Soviets.
D: The Soviet intercontinental attack capability.

A: To support long-range bombers.

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How many years did Operation Creek Party last?

A: 5.
B: 8.
C: 10.
D: 12.

C: 10.

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What was the Chrome Dome mission?

A: KC-135 flying from Buenos Aires to Washington, DC.
B: B-52 force on continuous airborne alert.
C: B-52s being refueled by KB-50Js.
D: KC-135 refueling in Southeast Asia.

B: B-52 force on continuous airborne alert.

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The real measure of success for the Young Tigers was the _____.

A: hundreds of aircrews and aircraft that they saved.
B: 9 billion pounds of fuel they off-loaded.
C: 813,878 refuelings they accomplished.
D: 194,687 sorties they flew.

A: hundreds of aircrews and aircraft that they saved.

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The primary mission of the advanced tanker/cargo aircraft (ATCA) was to support ______.

A: Strategic Air Command (SAC) bombers
B: Tactical Air Command (TAC) fighters.
C: Pacific Air Force (PACAF) fighters.
D: Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) fighters.

B: Tactical Air Command (TAC) fighters.

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What part of the body may an injury occur when you raise or lower the B-5 maintenance stand while standing on the ladder?

A: Hands.
B: Elbows.
C: Feet.
D: Fingers.

C: Feet.

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Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard provides guidelines for the different areas of fire prevention on the flightline?

A: 91-29
B: 91-57
C: 91-66
D: 91-100

D: 91-100

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How many feet must you be from an aircraft before smoking is allowed?

A: 25
B: 50
C: 200
D: 250

B: 50

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What describes the characteristics of Halon 1211 agents that have not decomposed?

A: Colorless and odorless
B: Colorless and strong, acrid odor
C: Slightly white mist and odorless
D: Colorless and faintly sweet smelling

D: Colorless and faintly sweet smelling

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Which safety identifier do you use to identify information that can result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed? A: Note B: Caution C: Warning D: A large red "S"

C: Warning

The act of sharing information with others to cause some kind of actions best defines _________. A: Communication B: Delegation C: Managing D: Directing

A: Communication

Where are bulk handguns stored upon arrival at the aircraft? A: Plain sight of everyone B: Aircraft gun box C: With crew bags D: On flight deck

B: Aircraft gun box

If an aircraft is hijacked and carrying passengers, what is the primary concern? A: Safety of the passengers B: Aircraft lands immediately C: Demands of the hijackers D: Length of time hijackers have control of the aircraft

A: Safety of the passengers

What is the United States policy concerning hijackers? A: To trade demands for hostages B: Not to give in to their demands C: Not to let them leave the United states D: To be concerned for the passenger safety

B: Not to give in to their demands

Infants may be transported on an aircraft if they are over the age of ______. A: 6 weeks B: 8 weeks C: 10 weeks D: 3 months

A: 6 weeks

If you expect a long delay in loading passengers to the aircraft, have them __________. A: Returned to the terminal area B: Wait on the bus until you are ready to load them C: Wait outside the aircraft until you are ready for them D: Loaded and have them remain seated with their seat belts fastened

A: Returned to the terminal area

Within how many hours must you serve boxed lunches after removing them from refrigeration? A: 6 B: 5 C: 4 D: 3

B: 5

What percentage of ground emergency egress situations is unplanned? A: 20 - 30 B: 50 - 60 C: 80 - 90 D: 90 - 100

C: 80 - 90

What does the acronym T.E.S.T. mean during a planned emergency egress? A: Taxi, escape, secure cargo, tell command post B: to hurry, evacuate source of problem, and team up C: Tell command post, evaluation, signal to evacuate, and team up D: Type of emergency, evacuation necessary, signal to evacuate, and time available

D: Type of emergency, evacuation necessary, signal to evacuate, and time available

As the aircraft taxi's you should mentally review your ______. A: primary and secondary exits B: passenger brief C: alarm bells D: checklist

A: primary and secondary exits

The US Bureau of Customs inspectors are responsible for controlling the ______. A: personnel disinfecting the area B: clearance of foreign nationals C: importation of animal products D: importation of wild animals and wild birds

D: importation of wild animals and wild birds

The US Bureau of Agriculture is responsible for controlling the importation of _______. A: poisonous rodents B: wild animals C: plants, domestic animals, and vegetables D: wild birds and their plumage and eggs

C: plants, domestic animals, and vegetables

A permit to proceed (PTP) is ______. A: clearance that customs is not needed B: good for as many stops as possible C: good to the next station with no intermediate stops in between D: clearance to load at an airport

C: good to the next station with no intermediate stops in between

When you land in a foreign country and a local official wants to inspect your aircraft _____. A: escort the official on the inspection B: tell the aircraft commander so that individual can follow the inspector on the inspection C: do not allow any inspection and seek aid from the senior US military representative at the site D: allow that person to inspect everywhere except the flight deck due to classified equipment

C: do not allow any inspection and seek aid from the senior US military representative at the site

Which is not an example of a nonexpendable item? A: pillows B: coffee pot C: headrest covers D: ice chests

C: headrest covers

What name/s would you put in the "departure from" block of the Customs Form 7507, General Declaration (Outward/Inward)? A: Airfield the cargo was loaded B: Airfield that you started your return leg from C: Airfield you departed from in the United States D: Airfield and country you departed from prior to entering the United States

D: Airfield and country you departed from prior to entering the United States

Who is responsible for delivering passenger and crew member meals called into the in-flight kitchen? A: Loadmasters B: fleet services C: in-flight kitchen D: passenger service

B: fleet service

What four forces act on an airfoil? A: Speed, weight, thrust, and gravity B: speed, lift, drag, and gravity C: weight, lift, drag, and thrust D: Lift, drag, weight, and speed

C: weight, lift, drag, and thrust

During a straight and level flight at a constant airspeed ______. A: thrust and drag are equal B: thrust always exceeds drag C: drag always exceeds thrust D: thrust momentarily exceeds drag

A: thrust and drag are equal

The balance of an aircraft refers to a condition of stability that exists when all weights and forces are ______. A: acting in a way as to prevent rotation on any axis B: reacting in a way as to prevent rotation on any axis C: acting in a way as to prevent counter-rotation on any axis D: reacting in a way as to prevent counter-rotation on any axis

A: acting in a way as to prevent rotation on any axis

The distance to the leading edge mean aerodynamic chord (LEMAC) is measured in inches from the _______. A: beginning to the end of the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) B: reference datum line to the LEMAC C: nose of the aircraft to the LEMAC D: CG location of a piece of cargo's arm to the LEMAC

B: reference datum line to the LEMAC

Record the record of weight and balance personnel on a DD form _______. A: 365 B: 365-1 C: 365-2 D: 365-3

B: 365-1

Which law of physics is aircraft balance based? A: law of the fulcrum B: law of the lever C: Newton's second law D: Charles's law.

B: law of the lever

Along what axis do we find the main shift in center of gravity (CG)? A: longitudinal B: vertical C: diagonal D: lateral

D: Lateral

Which is the correct formula for computing a new center of gravity (CG) after you add weight? A: (original moment + added moment) / (original weight + added weight) = new CG B: (original moment - added moment) / (original weight - added weight) = new CG C: (original moment + added moment) X (original weight + added weight) = new CG D: (original moment + added moment) - (original weight + added weight) = new CG

A: (original moment + added moment) / (original weight + added weight) = new CG

What must you consider as you load long items of cargo such as missiles, trucks, and trailers? A: cargo winch B: aircraft fuel load C: internal cargo compartment dimensions D: aircraft's weight and balance before and after loading

C: internal cargo compartment dimensions

If a vehicle has a missing load data plate or one that is unreadable, it still may be airlifted if ______. A: a copy can be found B: you use book weights C: the only item exceeded is the cross-country weights D: the vehicle does not exceed the limitations/procedures of the -9 TO

D: the vehicle does not exceed the limitations/procedures of the -9 TO

On the KC-10, the secondary flight controls include inboard and outboard _______. A: leading edge slats and adjustable horizontal stabilizer B: leading edge slats and inboard and outboard pairs of elevators C: pairs of elevators and an adjustable horizontal stabilizer D: pairs of elevators and upper and lower two-segment rudders

A: leading edge slats and adjustable horizontal stabilizer

How many seconds would the landing gear on the KC-135 retraction time be in extremely low temperatures? A: 10 B: 20 C: 30 D: 40

C: 30

When the entire yellow tip of the pointer falls within the yellow zone on the oleo fork for the KC-135 landing gear, how many degrees is the truck level within? A: 2 B: 3 C: 4 D: 5

A: 2

The KC-10's FWD and AFT tanks are each comprised of _____. A: longitudinally interconnected bladder sections B: laterally interconnected bladder sections C: conventional non-self sealing bladder D: conventional self-sealing bladder

A: longitudinally interconnected bladder sections

On the KC-10, which motor pump/s, recieves hydraulic pressure transfer from one system to another to support the low rudder, upper rudder, and horizontal stabilizer? A: one non-reversible B: two non-reversible C: one reversible D: two reversible

B: two non-reversible

On the KC-135, the two transformer rectifier (TR) busses are normally connected together and individually allowed to power all direct current (DC) loads through ______. A: current limiters B: switched busses C: parallel channels D: battery/inverters

A: current limiters

The KC-10's primary and emergency sources of direct current (DC) power include ______. A: two transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 1) B: two transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 3) C: four transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 1) D: four transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 3)

D: four transformer rectifiers, a battery, and/or the air-driven generator (ADG) (through TR 3)

When the KC-135 engines provide bleed air, what is accomplished? A: hydraulic reservoir depressurization B: emergency window defrost C: cabin depressurization D: engine starting

D: engine starting

On the KC-10, pneumatic system supplies pneumatic power for ______. A: wing anti-icing, galley and lavatory ventilation, and engine anti-icing B: wing anti-icing, galley and lavatory ventilation, and engine reversing C: engine anti-icing, engine reversing, and hydraulic reservoir pressurization D: engine starting, air conditioning pressurization, and hydraulic reservoir pressurization

B: wing anti-icing, galley and lavatory ventilation, and engine reversing

Every cabin door on the KC-10 can be opened _____. A: electrically, pneumatically, or manually B: hydraulically, or pneumatically only C: manually or pneumatically only D: electrically or hydraulically only

A: electrically, pneumatically, or manually

On the KC-10, the door at position 1L can also be opened or closed ______. A: 12 volt electrical power B: explosive cartridges C: no electrical power D: electrically or hydraulically only

C: no electrical power

How many different varieties of auxiliary power unit (APU) can be found on the KC-135? A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 D: 4

D: 4

The KC-135 auxiliary power unit (APU) starting system may be either ______. A: electric or hydraulic B: pneumatic or electric C: hydraulic or pneumatic D: electric or pneumatic

A: electric or hydraulic

Normal fuel burn rates for the KC-135 auxiliary power unit (APU) vary between 55 and 275 pounds per hour depending on ______. A: the load placed on the APU and model B: operating mode and temperature C: operating mode and APU model D: APU model and temperature

A: the load placed on the APU and model

Approximately how many pounds of thrust at sea level does the KC-135 engine develop? A: 20,000 B: 21,000 C: 22,000 D: 23,000

C: 22,000

Lubricate the Teflon seals by putting fuel into the KC-135 boom after every ______. A: 4 dry contacts B: 4 wet contacts C: 5 dry contacts D: 5 wet contacts

C: 5 dry contacts

What direction does the lateral movement of the KC-135 ruddevator control stick causes the ruddevators to rotate? A: side B: left C: same D: opposite

D: opposite

Where is the KC-135 boom telescope control unit located? A: the electronic equipment cabinet B: forward end of the boom and connected to the telescoping drive assembly C: under the boom instrument panel and connected to the telescope indicator D: under the boom instrument panel and connected to the telescoping drive assembly

B: forward end of the boom and connected to the telescoping drive assembly

On the KC-135, the fuel bypass valve opens when the _______. A: boom is retracted B: fuel dump is complete C: telescope lever is neutral D: air refueling (AR) master switch is on

A: boom is retracted

The KC-10 telescoping tube is supported by _______. A: gimbal unit B: outer fuel tube C: rollers within the outer tube D: rollers within the inner tube

C: rollers within the outer tube

On the KC-10, what mode of flight control system is designed to partially alleviate nozzle loads and allow the boom to follow receiver movements? A: automatic load alleviation system (ALAS) B: COUPLED C: RCVR DISC DELAY d: EMER CONTACT MADE

A: automatic load alleviation system (ALAS)

The HYD SEL lever on the KC-10 boom operator's overhead panel provides hydraulic power to the ______. A: boom only B: boom or drogue as selected C: wing pod drogue or boom as selected D: boom or center line drogue as selected

B: boom or drogue as selected

Which position indicators have adjustable limits on the Kc-10? A: roll, telescope, and elevation B: telescope and roll only C: elevation (upper limit only) and roll D: roll only

C: elevation (upper limit only) and roll

The KC-10 air refeuling system routes fuel from the forward, _________. A: aft, and wing tanks B: aft, and wing tanks C: center, and aft tanks D: center, and wing tanks

C: center, and aft tanks

Which emissions option do you normally use for qualification, requalification, category qualification, and difference training for tanker or receiver units? A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 D: 4

A: 1