1a Flashcards by Aristo vH

2-B Describe the function of the AHRS

To provide attitude , heading, rate of turn, and slip/skid information, integrated flight displays use an attitude and heading reference system (AHRS). AHRS uses inertial sensors such as electronic gyroscopes and accelerometers to determine the aircraft’s attitude relative ti the horizon. An electronic magnetometer provides magnetic heading data.

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2-B The true statement regarding the digital attitude indicator is

In a slip, the trapezoid fo the slip/skid indicator located beneath the roll pointer moves the inside of the turn.

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2-B What information is provided by the trend vector on the HSI?

The trend end of the trend vectorshows what the airplane’s heading will be in six seconds if the turn continues at the same rate, Index marks 18 degrees either side of center on the turn rate indicator provide a reference for standard rate turns.

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2-B if the AHRS detects a problem with the integrity of the sensor information, what occurs?

A red X is placed over the display of the affected instrument(attitude indicator or HIS).

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2-B A true statement about the ADC

The pitot tube, static source, and outside air temperature probe provide information to the ADC.

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2-B What is true about the indications on the altimeter?

The trend indicator shows where the plane will be in six seconds.

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2-B Describe how the electronic flight display compensates for a screen failure of the PFD.

The integrated flight display is configured so that the functions of the PFD can be transferred to the MFD screen and vice versa. If the PFD screen turns black, the PFD display should automatically switch to the MFD in reversionary mode. In the event that the PFD does not appear on the MFD most systems enable yo to manually switdh to reversionary mode.

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2-B An enhanced flight vision system (EFVS)can be displayed on a PFD.

FALSE

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2-B Describe at least three functions of a typical MFD.

*Moving Map Display, show data, your position, route of flighttopography, terrain proximity, weather and traffic. * Waypoint, find airport, runways, navaids, IFR info/charts. *Aux display settings, verify GPS,checklists, planning. * Nearest if need to divert, obtain airports, navaids, ARTCC, FSS, airspace info

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2-B Select the true statement regarding autopilot operation.

After engaging the autopilot, you should verify that the selected modes appear on the annunciator panel.

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2-A What flight instruments are required for flight under IFR?

All VFR, Gyroscopic rate of turn indicator, slip-skid , sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure, Clock with seconds, gyroscopic pitch and bank (artificial horizon), gyroscopic direction

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2-A Name the gyroscopic flight instruments. What are the two principles that are characteristic of all gyroscopes?

Attitude indicator, heading , turn coordinator. Two Principles: rigidity in space and precession

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2-A Which flight instruments gives you an instantaneous display of both pitch and bank information?

attitude indicator.

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2-A The gyroscopic instrument are the only flight instruments that provide bank information.

TRUE

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2-A Why is the turn coordinator a good back up for the attitude and heading indicators in most small airplanes?

Turn coordinator is electric, attitude and heading indicators are vacuum. Either fails still have turn information.

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2-Awhat is the approximate bank angle required to maintain a standard rate turn at 90 knots?

14 degrees

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2-A How long soes it that to make a 360 standard rate turn?

two minutes

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2-A Which turn coordinator shows too much rudder pressurebeing used for the amount of bank?

2-28

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2-A Which turn coordinator shows too little rudder pressure being used for the amount of bank?

2-28

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2-A What conditions leads to unreliable operation of the heading indicatior and attitude indicator?

Low vacuum

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2-A What should you use to correct for magnetic deviation?

Compass correction card

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2-A During a compass turn, what heading should you use for roll-out if making a right turn to a heading of 360 at a latitude of 45 North? Assume you are using 16 bank angle.

12 degrees

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2-A V speeds are Va is? Vlo is? Vs1 is?

Va = Design manuevering, Vlo = Max landing gear operating, Vs1 Stall speed in specified configuration

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2-A Define these terms: indicated altitude, pressure altitude, density altitude and true altitude.

indicated altitude = is altitude read from altimeter set to current. pressure altitude = Reading when altimeter is set to 29.92. density = pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature. true altitude = is actual height above mean sea level

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2-A 17 How does colder than standard temperature affect the relationship between indicated altitude and true altitude?

Indicated altitude is higher that true altitude when the temperature is lower than standard, resulting in less terrain and obstruction clearance during cold weather operations.

2-A 18 A blocked static source affects which instruments and how?

Airspeed and vertical speed indicators, and altimeter. Airspeed indicator will continue to react to changes, not correctly. Whe operating above the altitude where blockage occurred airspeed reads lower, lower altitude speed will show higher. Blockage of the static port will freeze alimeter in place, unusable. VSI freezes at zero.

2-A 19 How is the airspeed indicator affected if the pitot tube's ram air input and drain hole are blocked?

Causes the airspeed to react opposite of normal showing and increase of speed as you climb and a decrease as you descend.

2-B 1 Describe the Function of the AHRS .

To provide attitude , heading, rate of turn, and slip/skid information, integrated flight displays use an attitude and heading reference system (AHRS). AHRS uses inertial sensors such as electronic gyroscopes and accelerometers to determine the aircraft's attitude relative ti the horizon. An electronic magnetometer provides magnetic heading data.

2-B 2 The true statement regarding the digital attitude indicator.

2-B 3 What information is provided by the trend indicator on the HSI?

2-B 4 If the AHRS detects a problem with the integrity of the sensor information, what occurs?

2-B 5 True statement about the ADC

Pitot tube, static source, and outside air temperature provide data to ADC.

2-B 6 What is true about the indications on the altimeter?

In six seconds , the airplane will reachaltitude of ___ if it contunues to climb at the same rate.

2-B 7 Describe how the electronic flight display compensates for a screen failure of the PFD.

Puts RED X's over the diplays of the affected instruments

2-B 8 An enhanced flight vision system (EFVS) can be displayed on a PFD? T/F

False

2-B 9 Describe at least three functions of a typical MDD.

Moving map, Waypoint- find airport, runway, navaid, and waypoint infom including IFR charts

2-B 10 True statemen regarding autopilot operation.

After engaging autopilot, you should verify that the selected modes appear on the annunciator panel

2-C 1 In the correct sequence, name the three fundamental skills of attitude flying.

Instrument cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control

2-C 2 Describe the three common instrument cross-check errors.

Fixation, Omission, Emphasis on one instrument -- due to comfort?

2-C 3 Explain the importance of properly trimming the airplane during attitude instrument flying.

Control effort is minimized, hard to be precise using excessive controls pressure. Improper trimmed can be a distraction, causing tension, interupting cross check, and can cause abrubt or erratic control

2-C 4 Describe the two methods of attitude instument flying.

Control and performance, Primary and Supporting

2-C 5 As a rule fo thumb, how should you correct an altitude discrepancies of less than 100 feet?

Use one half bar width correction on the atitude indicator

2-C 6 What action(s) should you take to maintain altitude if you reduce power to decrease airspeed in a level turn?

Increase angle of attack

2-C 7 If you are cruising at 120 kts and want to establish a climb at 85 kts, you should make your initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until you observe what indications?

The atitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 85 knot climb

2-C 8 What actions should you take to enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruisig flight and maintain cruising airspeed?

Simultaneously reduce power and adjst the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed

2-C 9 True statement regarding rate and radius of turn.

An increase in bank angle with a constant airspeed increases the rate of turn and decreases the radius of turn.

2-C 10 If leveling off from a 700 ft/min descent, begin the leveloff at approximately 70 ft before you reach the desired altitude.

True

2-C 11 List at least two common errors and their solutions that apply to maintaining altitude during attitude instrument flying.

Not correcting for pitch after turn roll-out, loss of altitude at entry to turns, gain in altitude rolling out of turn, chasing VSI , applying excessive pitch corrections, maintain good corrections

2-C 12 Page 2-72

2-C 13 page 2-73

2-D 1 What displacement from course is indicated by this instrument when used in cinjunction with a VOR? Page 2-105

2-D 2 Why is it impossible for a horizontal situation indicator to provide reverse sensing when tuned to a VOR?

An HSSI always provides proper sensingwhen tuned to a VOR. The CDI is mounted on a compass card which rotates to the correct heading.

2-D 3 Station passage is indicated when the TO/FROM indicator first starts fluctuating?

False

2-D 4 Assume that you are 15 nautical miles from the VOR. Using these HSI indications and a 6,000ft nautical mile, how far off course are you in degrees and NM ?

2-D 5 page 2-106

2-D 6 What is the maximum distance at which you can expect a reliable signal from a high altitude VOR? At what altitudes does this maximum range occur?

130 nm, 18,000 to 45,000 feet

2-D 7 Maximum allowable error on a VOR check is 4 deg?

FALSE

2-D 8 What is the maximum allowable difference when chcking two VORs against each other?

4 degrees

2-D 9 Whe tuning a VOR and hearing the correct 1,020Hz Morse code identifier signal, you are assured that both the VOR and DME are properly tuned and usablefor navigation.

False

2-D 10 What is required navigation performance (RNP)?

Required navigation performance(RNP) is a of standards applying to airspece and navigation.

2-D 11 To comply with RNP standards, you must operate within what distance of the centerline of a route, path, or procedure?

2 nm for enroute operations; 1 nm for terminal operations; 0.3 nm for approach operations

2-D 12 What is a flight management system?

An FMS automates the tasks of managing the navigation equipment. FMS acts as the I/O device for navigational data from navaids-VOR/DME, localizers, and GPS/INS

2-D 13 What is the wide area augmentation system (WAAS)?

WAAS enhances the accuracy of GPS by using a series of ground stations to generate a corrective message, trasmitted to th airpllane by a geostationary stellite. This message accounts for the positional drift of the satellites and signal delays caused by the ionoshphere and other atmospheric factors.

2-D 14 The true statement regarding the requirements to use GPS equipment for IFR operations?

Determine if the a GPS is approved for IFR enroute and approach operations by referring to the airplane flight manual (AFM) or AFM supplement.

2-D 15 For domestic inroute and terminal IFR flights with a GPS receiver certified according to TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 , the airplane must be equipped with alternate avionics necessary to receive the ground based facilities appropriate for the route to the destination and to any required alternate. T/F

True

2-D 16 Prior to using GPS for IFR operations, what actions must you take?

For non-WAAS GPS equipment, you ust verify that RAIM will be available for the intended oute and duration of the flight and ensure that your GPS navigational database is current

2-D 17 Page 2-108

1.0 miles

2-D 18 What does auto-sequencing mean?

When you program a departure, arriva, approach or other route, the receiver senses whe the airplane passes a waypoint and automatically cycles to the next waypoint.

2-D 19 To comply with AIM guidelines , you should plan any random routes to begin and end over arrival and departure transition fixes or navaids that are appropriate for the altitude that you will be flying. You should also define your route with a minimun of one waypoint for each air route traffic control center area that you pass through.

True

2-D 20 pg 2-108

You are 8.5 miles northwest of BRK

2-D 21 pg 2-108

2-D 22 pg 2-108

3-B 1 True statement regarding ADS-B.

To receive the signal and display traffic information the plane must have ADS-B In capability.

3-B 2 What services do ARTCCs provide for aircaft flying under IFR.

Separation from IFR traffic, iFR clearances, Process IFR flight plans, report VFR traffic might affect flight, info regarding convective activity (including vectors if requested)

3-B 3 Within a given area, what facility is the central authority for processing an IFR plan?

Air Route Traffic Control Center = ARTCC

3-B 4 At least how many minutes prior to your planned departure should yo file your IFR flight plan?

30 minutes

3-B 5 What requirements do you have to meet to enter controlled airspace when the weather conditions are below VFR minimums?

Must have IFR rating and meet currency to fly IFR. Aircraft must meet equipment and inspection requirements. If weather below VFR, must file IFR flight plan and obtain clearance before departing from, or prior to entering controlled airspace.

3-B 6 IFR flight plans filed in the ARTCC computer are usually deleted if they are not activated within what time period?

One hour

3-B 7 When does ATC issue a terrain or obstruction alert?

ATC issues a terrain or obstruction alert when Mode C altitude readout indicates altitude is below minimum safe altitude for that area.

3-B 8 When does ATC issue an aircraft conflict alert?

ATC issues an aircraft conflict alert when the controller determines that the minimum separation between two aircraft could be compromised .

3-B 9 What is the name of the service that enables you to receive an IFR clearance before you contact ground control for taxi?

Clearance Delivery

3-B 10 Controls traffic on and in the vicinity of a controlled airport?

control tower

3-B 11 Transitions aircraft between the control tower and ARTCC?

TRACON

3-B 12 Controls surface movement on the airport other than on active runways?

Gound Control

3-B 13 Broadcasts a prerecorded message of airport information?

ATIS

3-B 14 Issues IFR clearances at large airports?

Clearance Delivery

3-B 15 controls all enroute IFR air traffic?

ARTCC

3-B 16 Name at least three services that ATC provides VFR traffic?

Traffic advisories alert you to other traffic, safety alerts warn you if unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions or other aircraft. Vectors provide navigational guidance on an advisory, sequencing provides a safe and orderly flow of arriving aircraft into the traffic pattern, separation from both IFR and VFR aircraft is provided in Class Band from IFR in Class C

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3-A 6 Runway holding positions signs are black and yellow inscriptions and yellow borders.

False

3-A 7 Name the high intensity white strobe lights located laterally, one on each side of the runway threshold.

Runway end identifier lights

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3-A 12 As you approach for landing, what color are the runway threshold lights? What color are they when departing the runway?

Green , Red

3-A 13 How many feet of runway remain when the centerline lights change from white to alternating red and white light?

3,000 feet

3-A 14 What is indicated when the airport beacon is illuminated during daylight hours?

Might indicate that fround visibility is less than three miles and or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.

3-A 15

3-A 16When should you turn on your aircraft's anti-collision lights?

Whenever the engine is operating.

3-A 17 Excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 ft AGL, ADS-B/Mode C transponder is is required in all airspace(controlled or uncontrolled) of the contiguous states and DC at and above what altitude?

10,000 MSL

3-A 18

3-A 19 That portion of the airspace that ATC does not control.

G class

3-A 20 Airspace at and above 14.500 ft MSL over the contiguous states, DC, and Alaska east of 160 west longitude, but not including the airspace within 1,500 ft of the surface.

E Class

3-A 21 An airspace segment that is normally 8 nautical miles wide and extends from 1,200 ft AGL (or in some cases higher) up to but not including 18,000ft MSL

? ? ? ?

3-A 22 Airspace within which the requirements include an operating altitude-encoding transponder, and instrument rated pilot, an IFR fight plan, and altimeters set to indicate pressure altitude.

A class

3-A 23 Airspace within which euipment requirements include an operable VOR (for IFR operations), two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC, an ATC clearance, and a transponder with Mode C automatic altitude reporting.

Class B

3-A 24 Airspace generally consisting of circular areas exteding to 4,000 ft above the primary airport where the shelf area has a radius of 10 NM, the core area has a radius of 5 NM miles, and 2-way radio is required.

Class C

3-A 25 Airspace outside Class B or Class C airspace that normally extends from the surface up to 2,300 ft above the elevation of the airport and having charted, but possibly irregular, lateral dimensions at which a control tower is operating

Class D

3-A 26 What is the maximum indicated aircraft speed limit below 2,500 ft when within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C airspace area?

200 knots

3-A 27 Military training route flights are generally limited to operations under VFR

False

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3-A 33 Select the information that you can obtain by referencing the AIM

ATC srvices and procedures for instrument departure, enroute, arrical, and approach operations

3-A 34 Explain the differences between NOTAMS(D) and FDC NOTAMS

NOTAM(D) information si disseminnated for all navigational facilities which are part of the US airspace system, all public use airports, seaplane bases, and heliports listed in the Chart Supp. FDC NOTAMs, issued by the National Flight Data Center, contain reulatory information such as TFRs or amendments to instrument approach procedures and other current aeronautical charts.

3-A 35 In what section of a Chart Supp can you find information regarding runway incursion hot spots?

Ariport Diagrams

3-C 1 an ATC clearance is an authorization to proceed under specified conditions within what type of airspace?

Controlled

3-C 2 If you deviate from a clearance due to an ememrgency, when must you notify ATC?

ASAP ! ! !

3-C 3 If ATC provides you with priority service because of an ememrgency, you may be required to submit a written report to the manager of that ATC facility within what time frame?

48 hours

3-C 4 Whe are required to see and avoid other aircraft?

When operating in VFR conditions, even on an IFR flight plan.

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3-C 13 To operate under IFR within controlled airspace, you must file an IFR flight plan and obtain and ATC clearance.

True

3-C 14 Regardless of weather conditions, you required to file an IFR flight plan before you can legally fly within what class of airspace?

Class A

3-C 15 When will ATC issue a standard instrument departure - SID?

As appropriate, without request

3-C 16 When ATC issues a clearance with significant changes to your requested routing, you can expect a abbreviated clearance.

False

3-C 17 What is the significance of the following clearance: "cruise 5,000"?

You can conduct your flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including 5,00 ft MSL.

3-C 18 Before a conac approach is approved, the reported ground visibilty must be at least what?

One Statute mile

3-C 19 When cleared to fly VFR on top of an IFR Flight?

You are required to comply with VFR cruising altitude rules.

3-C 20 When ATC issues a clearance void time in conjunction with a departure clearance, in what time frame must you depart?

No later that the clearance void time

3-C 21 You should read back all pertions of an ATC clearance that contain what items?

Specific instructions, such as altitude assignments of radar vectors.

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