19.2 Flashcards

1
Q

19.2 the anti-emetic action of aprepitant is via receptors for
a) serotonin
b) dopamine
c) Nmda
d) Neurokin A
e) Substance P

A
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2
Q

19.2 In patients with cephalosporin cross reactivity to penicillin, what is the causative component?
a) Thiazolidine ring
b) Beta lactam ring
c) R1 chain on the beta lactam ring
d) R2 chain on the thiazelidine ring
e) Dihydrothiazine ring

A
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3
Q

19.2 Commonest cause of peri-operative stroke
a) Hypotensive
b) Embolic
c) Thrombotic
d) Hypertensive
e) Haemorrhagic

A
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4
Q

19.2 Which has the highest capacity to absorb infrared radiation in the atmosphere?
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Sevoflurane
c) Desflurane
d) Isoflurane
e) CO2

A
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5
Q

19.2 When do spinal reflexes normally return after an acute spinal injury?

A. 1-3 days
B. 7 days
C. 28-40 days
D. 120 days
E. 365 days

A
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6
Q

19.2 What are the minimum PACU nurse to patient ratios?
a) 1 nurse of each patient that has not regained airway reflexes, 1 nurse for 2 awake patients who have regained airway reflexes
b) 1 nurse of each patient that has not regained airway reflexes, 1 nurse for 3 awake patients who have regained airway reflexes
c) 1 nurse of each patient that has not regained airway reflexes, 1 nurse for 4 awake patients who have regained airway reflexes
d) 1 nurse of 2 patients that has not regained airway reflexes, 1 nurse for 2 awake patients who have regained airway reflexes
e) 1 nurse of 2 patients that has not regained airway reflexes, 1 nurse for 3 awake patients who have regained airway reflexes

A
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7
Q

19.2 The backboard of the anaesthetic machine is on fire.
What is the best way to put it out?
a) CO2
b) Fire blanket
c) Wet chemical powder
d) Foam
e) Water

A
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8
Q

19.2 20 year old man has suffered a TBI. What SBP (mmHg) would you aim for?
a) 90
b) 100
c) 110
d) 120
e) 140

A
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9
Q

19.2 The substance that should be avoided in a patient with history of anaphylaxis to MMR vaccine is?
a) Penicillin
b) Gelofusin
c) Sulphonamides
d) Hydrolase

A
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10
Q

19.2 Thirteen year old boy playing sport collapses. Sweaty, abdominal pain, headache, palpitations and hyperglycaemic.
What is the most likely cause?
a) Phaeochromocytoma
b) Insulinoma
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Hypothyroidism
e) Carcinoid syndrome

A
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11
Q

19.2 What is the corrected QTc for someone with QT interval of 420ms at a rate of 60bpm?
a) 360 ms
b) 380 ms
c) 420 ms
d) 460 ms
e) 480 ms

A
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12
Q

19.2 What is the cause?
a) Hypothermia
b) Hypocalcaemia
c) Hypomagnesaemia
d) Hyponatraemia
e) Hypothyroid

A

Hypothermia J wave

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13
Q

19.2 An 80-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with respiratory failure. Her arterial blood gas on oxygen 4 litres per minute via a Hudson mask is as follows: Ph 7.2
P02 91
Pc02 84
BE 16
HCO3 43
NA 145

Which of the following most accurately describes this blood gas result?
a) Metabolic alkalosis, acute resp acidosis + normal AG
b) Metabolic alkalosis resp acidaemia + abnormal AG
c) Mixed acidaemia
d) Respiratory Acidosis with incomplete compensation
e) Compensated Respiratory acidosis

A
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14
Q

19.2 A 65 year old female is having a knee arthroplasty. What is the most predictive factor for chronic post operative pain?
a) Anxiety
b) Catastrophising
c) Depression
d) Female
e) Pain at other sites

A
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15
Q

19.2 A size 9 SLT is closest in external diameter to what size DLT?
a) 27Fr
b) 35Fr
c) 37Fr
d) 39Fr
e) 41Fr

A
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16
Q

19.2 Soon after a peribulbar block, the patient’s eye rapidly becomes proptosed and tense, and the visual acuity is markedly decreased. A lateral canthotomy is indicated to:
a) Allow globe to continue to swell
b) Drain blood from behind eyeball
c) Allow the eye to proptose
d) Reduce pressure on the optic nerve

A
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17
Q

19.2 Patient had a hysteroscopy and is now woken up in PACU. ABG done with Na 118, K 3.1. Patient is orientated to person but not to time and place. What is the best management?

A. Frusemide 40mg IV stat
B. Potassium 40mmol over 4 hours
C. 500ml normal saline
D. 100ml 3% saline
E. Fluid restrict

A
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18
Q

19.2 A stroke patient presenting for clot retrieval with a right hemisensory loss and right homonymous hemianopia most likely has occlusion of the left .
Most likely lesion is in right:
a.anterior cerebral artery
b.anterior inferior cerebellar artery
c.posterior cerebral artery
d.posterior inferior cerebellar artery
e.superior cerebral artery

A
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19
Q

19.2 If a women being treated for neuropathic pain becomes pregnant, what is the safest neuropathic analgesic to use in pregnancy?

A. Carbamazepine
B. Lamotrigine
C. Gabapentin
D. Sodium valproate
E. Phenytoin

A
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20
Q

19.2 When to medically intervene in seizure post ECT?

A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 90 seconds
D. 120 seconds
E. 150 seconds

A
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21
Q

19.2 WHO essential services criteria (i.e. procedure that is indication of provision…) Bellwether Procedure

A. Manual removal of placenta
B. Laparotomy
C. Cleft palate
D. Skin grafts
E. Cataracts

A
22
Q

19.2 When using ROTEM, the APTEM relates to:

A. Clotting factors
B. Hypofibrinoginaemia
C. Direct thrombin inhibition
D. Decreased platelets
E. Fibrinolysis

A
23
Q

19.2 Where is the tip of this PICC line?

A. Azygous vein
B. Coronary sinus
C. RA
D. LA
E. SVC

A
24
Q

19.2 Which brachial plexus block has the highest chance of a paralysed hemidiaphgram?

A. Interscalene
B. Supraclavicular
C. Infraclavicular
D. Axillary
E. Cervical

A
25
Q

19.2 69-year-old lady has a right heart catheter for new onset dyspnoea. PCWP 10mmHg.
[Waveform showing PAP 74/28 consistently throughout cycle]

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Emphysema

A
26
Q

19.2 Post scoliosis repair, decreased movement in legs bilaterally with decreased pain and temperature sensation. Spared proprioception and vibration sense. What is at fault?

A. Posterior spinal arteries
B. Anterior spinal arteries
C. Epidural haematoma
D. Misplaced pedicle screw
E. Lateral cord syndrome

A
27
Q

19.2 Which of the following drugs does not decrease mortality in heart failure?

A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta blockers
C. Angiotensin receptor blockers
D. Spironolactone
E. Digoxin

A
28
Q

19.2 ? year old male on digoxin 125mcg daily for AF having ?surgery. Bronchospasm post induction so given salbutamol via ETT successfully. Shortly thereafter in AF with rapid ventricular rate (or just ‘tachycardic’) rate of 120bpm BP 90/60mmHg with EtCO2 40mmHg. What do you use to treat?

a. Amiodarone 150/300 mg over 20 minutes then 0.5-1mg/minute
b. Cardioversion at 50J
c. Digoxin 250/500microg over 20 minutes
d. Esmolol 500 mcg and then run an infusion at 50mcg/kg/min
e. Metoprolol (something bolus and infusion rate)
f. Lignocaine also an option?

A
29
Q

19.2 A 29 year old otherwise fit healthy man has the following anaesthetic:
Propofol 180mg / Rocuronium 50mg / Cefazolin 2g / Morphine 8mg
Immediately after he develops tachycardia, hypotension, red rash on chest and lip swelling. Initial blood results:
Tryptase at 1 hour 321 >11
Tryptase at 3 hours 58 >11
RAST Morphine 29 >15
Serum IgE 88 <300

A. IgE mediated anaphylaxis to cefazolin
B. IgE mediated anaphylaxis to morphine
C. IgE mediated anaphylaxis to rocuronium
D. Opioid induced histamine release
E. Mastocytosis

A
30
Q

19.2 What is the outcome for early use of tranexamic acid in trauma patients?

A. No change in all-cause mortality, no change in transfusion rates
B. No change in all-cause mortality, decreased transfusion rates
C. Decreased mortality of all cause, no change in transfusion rates
D. Decreased mortality from bleeding but not all cause, no change in transfusion rates
E. Decreased mortality of all cause, decreased transfusion rates

A
31
Q

19.2 During endovascular repair of an aneurysm the proceduralist expresses concern about rupturing the aneurysm. Each of the following could be part of your management except?

A. Mannitol
B. Protamine
C. Mild induction of hypotension
D. Immediately transfer to theatre
E. Continue coiling

A
32
Q

19.2 Dental damage risk to be determined in your department. 100 cases reviewed, zero cases of dental damage. What is the 95% confidence interval?

A. 0/100
B. 1/100
C. 3/100
D. 5/100
E. 9/100

A
33
Q

19.2 What does this ECG show?

A. Viral myocarditis
B. HOCM
C. Acute inferior ischaemia

A
34
Q

19.2 What is the estimated RVSP? CVP is 5mmHg (Picture had velocity of 3 m/s)

A. 39 mmHg
B. 41 mmHg
C. 45 mmHg
D. 50 mmHg
E. 61 mmHg

A
35
Q

19.2 4-year-old having a tracheostomy – what structure is most likely to be damaged?
18B-099 What structure are you most likely to damage in elective tracheostomy in a 4 yo?

A. Brachiocephalic artery
B. Phrenic nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Vertebral artery
E. Thoracic duct

A
36
Q

19.2 Which of the following is associated with increased risk of AFE?

A. LSCS
B. Induction of labour
C. Oxytocin infusion
D. Forceps delivery
E. Pre-eclampsia

A
37
Q

19.2 When performing a breast block, what structure is marked X?

A. Pectoralis minor
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Serratus anterior
D. Pectoralis major
E. Teres major
F. Teres minor

A
38
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19.2

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48
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