18 CEN: respiratory Flashcards

18 items on exam

1
Q

What are Kussmaul respirations? What condition causes it?

A

Rapid and deep breathing from DKA

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2
Q

What is the difference b/w dyspnea and orthopnea?

A

dyspnea is labored breathing, orthopnea is when it occurs laying down

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3
Q

What is stridor and what can cause it?

A

Upper airway obstruction

→croup LTB, epiglottitis, anaphylaxis

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4
Q

Where does wheezing occur? Causes?

A

Lower airway bronchial obstruction

→asthma, bronchiolitis

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5
Q

Why does NIPPV require the pt to be alert and hemodynamically stable?

A

Using CPAP and BiPAP decreases venous return to the heart.

Pt needs to be alert and able to swallow d/t aspiration risk.

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6
Q

What drugs are used in drug-assisted intubtion (DAI)?

A

→Succinylcholine: neuromuscular blocker

→Fentanyl: may cause chest wall rigidity

→Etomidate: short acting, doesn’t affect BP (so it’s a good choice for Trauma!)

→Propofol: lowers MAP

→Ketamine: increases secretions

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7
Q

When is succinylcholine contraindicated?

A

As a neuromuscular blocker, it should not be given to pts w/ Hx of malignant hyperthermia, conditions that precipitate hyperkalemia (burns, CRUSH INJURIES, renal failure), neuromuscular disorders like Guillain Barre, MS, myasthenia gravis.

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8
Q

How is ETT placement confirmed?

A

Auscultate epigastric first, then four lung fields, pulse ox, ETCO2, CXR

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9
Q

If a pt decompensates in mechanical ventialtion, what should the RN do?

A

manually ventilate.

DOPES:
Displaced? -
Obstruction?
Pneumothorax?
Equipment issue?
Stacked breaths?

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10
Q

Interpret ABGs.

A
  1. Look at pH
    →if outside 7.35-7.45, uncompensated.
    →if in range, normal or compensated
  2. Look at pH
    →acidic or alkalosis
  3. Look at CO2
    →if pH and CO2 are opposite directions it is a respiratory issue (pH <7.35, CO2 >45 Resp acidosis) OR
    (pH >7.45, CO2 <35 Resp alkalosis)
  4. Look at HCO3
    →if pH and HCO3 are in equal direction it is a metabolic issue
    →pH <7.35, HCO3 <22 Metabolic acidosis
    →pH >7.45, HCO3 >26 Metabolic alkalosis
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11
Q

Causes of metabolic acidosis?

A

-DKA, SHOCK
-alcoholic acidosis (high anion gap from ethylene glycol poisoning),
-renal disease
-diarrhea
-salicylate poisoning (vomiting, tinnitus, confusion, hyperthermia, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, and multiple organ failure)

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12
Q

When is risk for aspiration highest? How should the HOB be?

A

Obese, HEAD INJURY, intoxication, advanced pregnancy

HOB 30-45°

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13
Q

What is asthma?

A

CHRONIC reactive airway dz → airway hyper reactivity, inflammation, and bronchial constriction

Triggered by environmental factors like exercise, allergies, and seasonal changes

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14
Q

S/S of asthma?

A

chest tightness, dyspnea, TACHYPNEA, ↓ SpO2, ↑ WOB, cough, PROLONGED EXPIRATORY TIME, repiratory alkalosis to acidosis, WHEEZING EARLY TO SILENT CHEST.

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15
Q

What are the ominous signs of asthma?

A
  1. pulsus paradoxus (an exaggerated fall in a patient’s blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mmHg)
  2. silent chest
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16
Q

Which medications tx asthma?

A
  1. Albuterol (short-acting beta agonist) q20min x3- to relax smooth muscles (s/e tachycardia)
  2. Anticholinergics (Ipratropium) -to limit secretions of mucus and inhibit bronchial muscle contraction
  3. Corticosteroids- inhaled or oral to reduce inflammation
  4. Magnesium- inhibit bronchial muscle contraction

–Tx effective if ↑ in peak flow

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17
Q

Pt education for asthma.

A

Use spader or nebulizers to ↑ medication delivery, avoid allergens and NSAIDS, pretreat with meds before exercise, stop smoking

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18
Q

If an asthmatic needs to be intubated, which is best induction agent?

A

Ketamine b/c it is a bronchdilator.

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19
Q

What should inspiration:expiration (I:E ratio) be on the vent for asthmatic?

A

increase from 1:2 to 1:3-4

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20
Q

What is emphysema? S/S?

A

COPD- (Decreased lung capacity)
-Destruction of alveoli from toxins or alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

S/S: “pink puffer” (pink face from short, fast breaths), thin body, BARREL CHEST (A:P diameter larger), pursed-lip breathing, lung over inflation and low diaphragm on XR

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21
Q

What is chronic bronchitis? S/S?

A

COPD- (Decreased lung capacity)
-hacking cough with sputum production for at least 3 mo during 2 consecutive years

S/S: PURSED LIP BREATHING, ↑ WOB, “Blue bloater” (d/t ↓ O2), stocky build, polycythemia (thicker blood and ↑ Hgb leads to clots), Cor pulmonale (pulmonary HTN), enlarged heart on XR, rhonchi, and wheezes

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22
Q

How are COPD conditions treated?

A
  1. oxygen via NC or venturi mask (goal 88-92%, reduce O2 if RR ↓ )
  2. BiPAP
  3. bronchodilators
  4. Sit on edge of bed leaning forward with feet dangling

Pt should sleep upright, and get PNA immz

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23
Q

What does pulmonary HTN cause?

A

Cor pulmonale - Right sided HF d/t enlarged RV
→HF d/t lung condition

24
Q

What are S/S of pulmonary HTN? Treatment?

A

S/S: exertional dyspnea and fatigue, peripheral edema, hepatomegaly

Tx: oxygen, vasodilators like phosphodiesterase inhibitors (sildenafil or tadalafil), diuretics, anticoagulants, and DIGOXIN TO ↑ CONTRACTILITY

25
Q

How is pulmonary HTN diagnosed?

A

ECHO: RV hypertrophy
ECG: RBBB

26
Q

What is acute bronchitis?
S/S? Dx? Tx?

A

Acute bronchitis - Viral inflammation due to Influenza A or B, RSV, etc.

S/S: Non-productive DRY COUGH FOR > 5 days and worse at night, airway hyper reactivity, pleuritic chest pain, sore throat, stuffy nose, fatigue, low-grade fever.

DX: Chest x-ray to rule out pneumonia.

TX: Cough medication, bronchodilators, corticosteroids, NO ANTIBIOTICS needed.

27
Q

What is Bronchiolitis?
S/S? Dx? Tx?

A

Viral infection, usually RSV in premature infants, producing COPIOUS NASAL SECRETIONS (rhinitis)

“S/S: Respiratory distress, WHEEZING, CRACKLES, grunting, poor feeding.

DX: Nasopharyngeal culture to rule out influenza and chest x-ray.

TX: SUCTION NARES, bronchodilators, admission if RR > 70 breaths/min.

D/C education: Teach hand hygiene to reduce spread of RSV since most spread through direct contact.

28
Q

What is Epiglottitis?
S/S? Dx? Tx?

A

Epiglottitis - bacterial infection decreased since HIB vaccine.

  • S/S: Triad of Drooling, Dysphagia, and Distress; ABRUPT ONSET OF HIGH FEVER; tripod position; “turtle sign” (extend neck) to open airway. HOT POTATO VOICE

dX: thumbprint sign on lateral neck x-ray;

  • TX: Keep in caregiver’s arms and KEEP CHILD CALM (no IV or labs) and consult expert to secure airway STAT. →→”If they cry, they die.”
29
Q

What is Croup LTB? Age group?
S/S? Dx? Tx?

A

croup (Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis - LTB) - viral infection 6 months - 3 years

S/S: Gradual onset of URI; barky, seal-like cough; low-grade fever;
Dx: steeple sign on chest x-ray.
TX: Racemic nebulized epinephrine (wears off leaving rebound effect, so consider hospital admission), and dexamethasone.

30
Q

What is Pneumonia?
S/S? Dx? Tx?

A

Pneumonia - Viral or bacterial (faster onset) infection; community or hospital-acquired

S/S: Fever, chills, malaise, pleuritic CP, productive cough, egophony, increased fremitus (vibration) over the affected area with decreased breath sounds.

DX: Increased WBC, chest x-ray, blood cultures.

TX: Antibiotics, bronchodilators, oxygen, and fluids as indicated, pneumococcal vaccine recommended for under age 2 and above age 65.

Pleural effusion - same S/S. Thoracentesis to remove purulent empyema.

31
Q

S/S of Pleural effusion? Tx?

A

Pleural effusion - same S/S as PNA
S/S: Fever, chills, malaise, pleuritic CP, productive cough, egophony, increased fremitus (vibration) over the affected area with decreased breath sounds.

Thoracentesis to remove purulent empyema.

32
Q

When is intubation necessary immediately with inhalation injuries?

A

if oral burns, stridor, and/or carbonaceous sputum. 

33
Q

Why is SpO2 not reliable if pt has inhalation injury from smoke?

A

Combustible fumes from malfunctioning furnace, exhaust, etc. - CO poisoning - shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, impairing the ability of hemoglobin to release 02, so SpO, is 100% (unreliable); arterial PaO, reliable.

34
Q

Inhalation injuries. S/S? Dx? Tx?

A

S/S: headache, confusion, nausea/vomiting, cherry-red skin, ST segment depression on ECG due to hypoxia.

DX: Carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) level and airway evaluation.

TX: 100% oxygen until carboxyhemoglobin < 10%, Hyperbaric oxygenation (HBO) for pregnant female since fetus most vulnerable.
→Perform escharotomy if circumferential chest burn, and unable to ventilate.

35
Q

For what populations does Spontaneous Pneumothorax typically occur?

A

Spontaneous Pneumothorax - most common in males 20-40, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, smokers, Marfan’s.

36
Q

Spontaneous Pneumothorax S/S? Tx?

A

S/S: dyspnea, decreased or absent breath sounds on affected side, pleuritic chest pain, hyperresonance on percussion, subcutaneous emphysema if large pneumothorax.

TX: High-fowler position, supplemental oxygen, potential chest tube placement at 5-6th ICS, mid-axillary line (> 15% pneumothorax typically).

37
Q

What are causes of Non-cardiogenic Pulmonary Edema/Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)?

A
  1. Causes: submersion injury, rapid ascent while scuba diving, HAPE (high altitude pulmonary edema), inhalation of toxic gases, heroin overdose.
38
Q

What are S/S of Non-cardiogenic Pulmonary Edema/Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)?

A

S/S: severe dyspnea, tachypnea, cough, crackles, wheezing, PINK FROTHY SPUTUM, skin cool pale and

TX: NIPPV or intubation/ ventilation with LOW TIDAL VOLUMES (6 ml/kg due to sick lungs) and add PEEP to decrease chance of ARDS, IV NTG, diuretics.

39
Q

What is Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) and what is the Tx?

A

ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome) - severe hypoxemia that is refractory to high concentrations of oxygen, and loss of surfactant.

TX: Mechanical ventilation and prone positioning.

40
Q

How can a pulmonary embolus occur?

A
  1. Blood clot from DVT (Risk factors - Virchow triad of immobility, damage, or hypercoagulopathy),
  2. air emboli from diving, or
  3. amniotic fluid emboli.
41
Q

When do fat emboli typically present? Hallmark sign?

A

Fat emboli typically seen 12-48 hours post long-bone fracture

“hallmark sign” is chest and axilla petechiae, sudden onset of altered mental status, and hypoxia.


42
Q

What is Dx and Tx for PE?

A

DX: elevated D-dimer; new RBBB and right axis deviation, peaked P waves and cressed I waves on ECCa scan,
***pulmonary angiography definitive test,
ABG - low PaO, and low CO, - respiratory alkalosis and hypoxemia.

TX: Oxygen is the priority, anticoagulants and/or fibrinolytics (r-TPA) as indicated, embolectomy.

43
Q

What are conditions post chest trauma?

A

Rib fractures
Pulmonary contusion
Flail chest

44
Q

If there is an Impaled object like knife or ice pick, what should you do?

A

LEAVE IT IN PLACE

45
Q

What are 1st or 2nd rib fractures associated with?

A

great vessel (aortic dissection - widened mediastinum and obscured aortic knob on chest x-ray) and/or pneumothorax.

46
Q

Which ribs are most often fractured? What is risk?

A

4th to 9th ribs most often fractured -

risk is pulmonary contusion and blunt chest injury, so decrease IVF rate.

47
Q

What are 9th to 12th rib fractures associated with?

A

spleen (L) and liver (R) injury,
renal injury if posterior.

48
Q

Rib fractures in Peds vs Geriatrics?

A

Rib fractures demonstrate significant injury in pediatrics (pliable ribs) so suspect maltreatment and in geriatrics due to lack of pulmonary reserves.

49
Q

What is the Tx for rib fractures?

A

Pain management with NSAIDs, lidocaine patches, intercostal nerve blocks.
Aggressive pulmonary care cough and deep breath and incentive spirometry to prevent atelectasis

50
Q

What is pulmonary contusion?
S/S? Dx? Tx?

A

Lung injury and edema from chest trauma or barotrauma 24-48 hours after event.

S/S: Respiratory distress, chest wall bruising, increased work of breathing, restlessness, crackles, wheezes.

DX: Chest x-ray may not reveal infiltrates until 12 hours or later**

TX: Oxygen is the priority, patient in semi-fowlers position, NIPPV to intubation/mechanical ventilation, judicious use of fluid administration (euvolemia) to prevent ARDS (refractory hypoxemia).

51
Q

What is flail chest and the tx?

A

→Typically seen in high-speed MVC, sternal fracture from airbag.
→Two or more adjacent ribs fractured in two or more places resulting in a free-floating unstable segment with paradoxical chest wall motion (asymmetry) during respiration, muscle spasm obscures failing initially.

TX: Oxygen, intubation/ventilation with PEEP, prepare for surgery for rib fixation, judicious fluid administration since causes pulmonary contusion, monitor for associated pneumothorax or hemothorax (breath sounds, percussion).

52
Q

What are the S/S of a Simple pneumothorax (Air-leak syndrome)? Tx?

A
  • S/S: Decreased or absent breath sounds on affected side, hyperresonance (tympanic) to percussion, tachypnea, tachycardia.
  • TX: High-fowlers position, oxygen, potential small-bore chest tube or catheter placement at 5-6”h ICS, mid-axillary line (ML) for > 20% pneumothorax.
53
Q

What is an Open pneumothorax? Tx?
What if a tension pneumo develops?

A

Sucking chest wound from penetrating trauma, visible open chest wound with sucking sound and BUBBLING OF BLOOD around wound, with SQ emphysema.
*If impaled object like an ice pick still in chest, stabilize it in place.

TX: Cover wound with 3-SIDED OCCLUSIVE (non-porous) dressing AT END-EXHALATION and prepare for chest tube (ask patient to exhale fully).

***Remove dressing if tension pneumothorax develops (decreasing 02 saturation, tracheal deviation).

54
Q

What is a Tension pneumothorax? Tx?

A

LIFE-THREATENING pneumothorax with severe respiratory distress, absent or decreased breath sounds, jugular vein distention, hypotension due to impaired venous return to heart, and TRACHEA DEVIATED TO UNAFFECTED SIDE (→late sign along with cyanosis). X-ray shows mediastinal shift.

TX: Immediate needle decompression with 14-16-gauge 7 cc needle at 2nd ICS over 3rd rib (or 4-5th ICS), and immediate chest tube insertion. Treatment is effective if assisted ventilation become easier after decompression.

55
Q

What is a Hemothorax?
S/S? Dx? Tx?

A

Accumulation of blood in pleural space from tear of internal mammary artery.

S/S: Severe SOB, dullness to percussion, S/S of hemorrhagic shock (tachycardic, delated capillary refill, cool and clammy skin, hypotension).

DX: FAST bedside ultrasound.

TX: Two large-bore IVs, transfuse blood products, large-bore 32-36 Fr chest tube placement at 5-6th ICS, emergent surgery if initial drainage > 1500 ml, or 200 ml/hour over next 2-4 hours.

Consider autotransfusion for blunt injury less than 4-6 hours ago.
Advantages: Fresh, warm, whole blood without risk of transfusion reaction

Contraindicated if lower chest injury (risk of bowel injury) or ruptured diaphragm. Increased risk of contamination with penetrating injury.

Chest drainage system - tape all connections, keep upright below the level of the chest, no dependent loops, tidaling is normal.

56
Q

What occurs with a Ruptured diaphragm?
S/S? Tx?

A

Abdominal contents herniate into chest and compress the lungs, heart, and vessels, most on the left side from lateral impact MVC, unable to breathe.

S/S: Dyspnea, “gurgling” peristaltic sounds in lower left chest with progressive scaphoid abdomen (sunken in), abdominal pain radiating to left shoulder (KEHR’S SIGN), elevated left diaphragm on chest x-ray.

TX: ABC’s, prepare to intubate, emergent exploratory laparotomy.

57
Q

What is a Tracheobronchial Injury?
S/S? Tx?

A

Direct blow to neck (karate blows) or all-terrain vehicle (ATV) or snowmobile driver into suspended cable “clothesline injury”.

S/S: Dyspnea, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), odynophagia (painful swallowing), SQ emphysema, Hamman’s crunch synchronized with heartbeat, anterior neck pain, hemoptysis, hematoma.
-Fractured Larynx - dysphonia (hoarse voice), seen with tracheobronchial injury.
-Esophageal injury - food particles in chest tube, seen with tracheobronchial injury.

TX: Increase head of bed 30-45 degrees, fiberoptic bronchoscopy for intubation and prepare for surgery, positive pressure ventilation may worsen subcutaneous air.