164 EXAM REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse explains that the health-illness continuum is based on:

A

Variation in degree of health or illness

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2
Q

In performing a pain assessment, the LPN would follow which steps?

A

Assess location, quality, and intensity on an identified scale

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3
Q

The nurse has assessed that prolonged and unrelieved pain will:

A

Lower the pain threshold

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4
Q

Everytime the right arm is raised, the patient reports to the nurse that pain is triggered in the right shoulder. To chart this description as a:

A

Aggrevating factor

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5
Q

Because malignant hyperthermia is a potential postop complication, the nurse should ask:

A

Has anyone in your family ever had problems with general anesthesia

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6
Q

The nurse attempts to evaluate the presence of pain in a patient who is cognitively impaired by assessing for:

A

Increasing confusion

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7
Q

The patient scheduled for liver biopsy has given the nurse a list of medications taken at home, the nurse should be concerned about the:

A

Aspirin

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8
Q

A patient just returned to the surgical unit after varicose vein stripping and ligation. To evaluate pain relief, the best technique for the nurse is to:

A

Ask the patient to rate the severity of pain on a scale of 1-10

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9
Q

The nurse is alert for sympathetic responses to pain such as:

A

Increase bp, increased pulse, and increased respiratory rate

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10
Q

To prevent DVT in the postop patient, the nurse plans to ensure the patient:

A

Ambulates frequently

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11
Q

The sensation of pain defined by the International Association for the Study of Pain as:

A

Unpleasant sensory and emotional experience

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12
Q

A nurse is assisting in the transfer of a postop patient from the post anesthesia care unit to the surgical nursing unit. To ensure safety of the patient the nurse would:

A

Put the side rails up after moving the patient from the stretcher to the bed

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13
Q

When the patient with sciatica seats himself in a chair, he gasps and complains of burning and shooting pain in his hip, the nurse assesses that this is________pain:

A

Neuropathic

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14
Q

The nurse assesses the patient’s limbs and position frequently after regional anesthesia because:

A

Pain is not perceived although motion is possible

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15
Q

To perform a nursing assessment correctly, the nurse must remember that pain perception involves several CNS processes such as:

A

Efferent pathways stimulate the spinal cord to recognize the location of pain

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16
Q

The nurse is notified when the patient, newly admitted with liver and gallbladder disease, complains of pain in the right middle back and asks for pain meds. As the basis for the assessment, the nurse uses knowledge of pain to determine that the patient:

A

Has referred pain sensations. The nurse should follow orders for administering pain medications

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17
Q

Two patients are hospitilized with the same diagnosis. One is 23 years old, with acute recent pain from an injury, and the other is 64 years old with pain of long-standing duration of several years. The difference in anticipated assessment is what?

A

Older patients with chronic pain usually report lower levels of pain much less severe than they really are

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18
Q

A postop patient is complaining of incisional pain. An order has been given for morphine every 4-6hours PRN. The first assessment by the nurse should be:

A

Determine when the patient last received pain medication

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19
Q

The postop patient with no previous medical conditions is difficult to arouse when transferred from surgical unit to postanesthesia unit. The nurse monitors the pulse ox and gets a reading of 85%, the nurse’s next action should be:

A

Arouse the patient, have him cough and encourage deep breathing

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20
Q

Gate-control theory of pain claims that pain is perceived as a stimulation of receptors in the:

A

Small nerve fibers

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21
Q

During the gathering of data, a patient reveals that he has a weight loss of 17lbs since the death of his spouse 5 weeks earlier. He has no appetite and is not sleeping. According to Maslow, the nurse assesses that the unmet needs are in the category of:

A

Physiologic

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22
Q

The patient returning from surgery complains of incisional pain that is now rated 7 on 1-10 scale. As a nurse, you know that pain is an example of:

A

Local adaptation syndrome

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23
Q

The large, heavy older adult patient after a stroke develops a decubitus on the sacrum during the hospital stay. 2 weeks later the patient returns to the hospital with PNA. The distinction between the two are:

A

Decubitus = Health-care associated infection PNA=community acquired infection

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24
Q

When an individual becomes frightened and experinece increased heart rate and mental activity along with increased blood flow to the skeletal muscles and dilated pupils, the person is experiencing an alarm reaction that helps the body defend against stressors. This alarm reaction is the:

A

Fight or flight response

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25
Q

The patient on enteral feeding suddenly complains of feeling faint and is sweating. The DBP dropped 20 points. The nurse recognizes dumping syndrome, which is caused by:

A

Hypertonic fluid entering the jejunum and pulling large amounts of water from the circulating volume

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26
Q

Major advantage in using Maslow’s Hierarchy when planning nursing care is to:

A

Prioritize patient care

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27
Q

Diagnosis of DKA, the nurse anticipates that the patient will exhibit VS of:

A

Temp: 97.4 Pulse 100 BPM Respirations 20/min and deep

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28
Q

DI classic symptoms:

A

Diuresis, tachycardia, and weakness

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29
Q

Sandostatin (Octreotide) for acromegaly will:

A

Suppress the growth hormone

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30
Q

Addison disease Hydrocortisone will:

A

Regulate the excretion of K+ and Na+

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31
Q

DKA results in:

A

Inability of carbs, fats, and protein to be metabolized

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32
Q

T3 and T4 tests for a patient complaining of fatigue, weight gain, muscle aches, pain, and constipation. These lab tests will confirm the DX of hypothyroidism when:

A

Both tests show decreases

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33
Q

Addisonian crisis can be brought on by:

A

Infection

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34
Q

Nephrogenic DI:

A

Does not respond to ADH

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35
Q

Chvostek sign:

A

Tap the face over the facial nerve, and watch for spasm of facial muscle

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36
Q

CHF has JVD, crackles bilaterally, and dyspnea. Diagnosis with highest priority would be:

A

Excess fluid volume

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37
Q

Patient’s with arterial insufficiency should be instructed to:

A

Frequently allow the legs to dangle dependently

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38
Q

Burning aching pain in the legs when walking, symptoms relieved by rest. The nurse would suspect:

A

Claudication

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39
Q

Vasotec (ACE Inhibitor) what is a positive outcome:

A

Decreased BP

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40
Q

Age related change making them susceptible to cardiovascular disease:

A

Stiff peripheral vessels

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41
Q

Stasis dermatitis for a pt with PVD. This indicates the presence of:

A

Brownish discoloration on lower legs

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42
Q

Older persons adapt more slowly to changes in the peripheral vascular system because of:

A

Aorta thickening, decreasing cardiac output, stiffening of blood vessels, and slowing heart rate

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43
Q

TPN running 20 ml and is an hour behind schedule. The initial intervention would be:

A

Document the event and inform the charge nurse

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44
Q

Why can’t a TPN be placed in the arm?

A

Subclavian artery allows for rapid dilution

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45
Q

While on TPN, include in the care plan

A

Assess I&O, monitor for hypo/hyperglycemia, assess temp

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46
Q

TPN feeding indicates hyperglycemia when what occurs:

A

Increase of urine output

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47
Q

Patient with intestinal obstruction has achieved normal hydration when:

A

Pulse and BP are within patient’s norms, mucous membranes are moist, and fluid I&O are equal

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48
Q

In a patient with hepatitis, a dropping billirubin level indicates:

A

Liver function is improving

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49
Q

Assess acites on a daily basis by:

A

Measuring abdominal girth and daily weights

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50
Q

High ammonia level contributes to hepatic encephalopathy. As the level increases the implimentation that should be added to the care plan:

A

Seizure precautions

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51
Q

Pancreatitis highest priority:

A

Patient claims satisfaction with pain control

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52
Q

Pancrease should be administered:

A

Mixed with juice

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53
Q

Another chronic condition R/T pancreatitis:

A

DM

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54
Q

Lab report showing elevation that is diagnostic for acute pancreatitis is:

A

Serum Amylase

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55
Q

Permanant colostomy reports some abdominal discomfort and rigidity after 3 days post surgery. The assessment the nurse should report and record is:

A

VS are Temp 100F, Pulse 92, BP 160/98

56
Q

Rectal suppositories for stomas:

A

NO

57
Q

Monitor bilateral breath sounds and chest movement after a thoracentesis because:

A

The lung may have been punctured

58
Q

Wheezing R/T Asthma:

A

Movement of air through narrowed airways

59
Q

CPAP

A

Maintains a continuous pressure in the airway to avoid apnea

60
Q

Major sources of infection for COPD patient:

A

Stasis of respiratory secretions

61
Q

Combat anorexia in COPD by:

A

Perfoming oral hygiene before meals

62
Q

Sign of R-sided heart failure is:

A

Decreasing urine output

63
Q

To enhance the nutritional status of pt with COPD:

A

Offer small, frequent meals

64
Q

Typical feature of CBC in pt with chronic bronchitis:

A

Increased RBC’s

65
Q

Normal Babinski reflex:

A

Downward curl of the toes

66
Q

Positive Brudzinski:

A

Flex hips when the neck is flexed by the nurse, indication of meningitis

67
Q

Cushing Triad associated with increased ICP:

A

Bradycardia, HTN, and widening pulse pressure

68
Q

ALS uniquely prone to depression because:

A

Intellectual capacity is not affected

69
Q

Homonymous hemianopsia, important items are visible and available on:

A

The affected side

70
Q

Brown-Sequard syndrome results in which neurologic deficit?

A

Ipsilateral loss of motor function and contralateral loss of pain sensation and temp

71
Q

DMARD Arave (Leflunomide)

A

Retard the progression of RA

72
Q

Why are systemic glucocorticoids used as the last choice for TX of RA?

A

For short periods due to many side effects

73
Q

Characteristic of RA:

A

Symmetrical bilateral joint swelling

74
Q

A patient with gout should avoid seafood because

A

They are high in purine

75
Q

Patients with gout should be alert for the signs of:

A

Kidney stones

76
Q

Probenecid (Benemid) is prescribed to:

A

Increase the excretion of uric acid

77
Q

Diagnostic test result for polymyositis is:

A

Muscle biopsy, positive for muscle degeneration

78
Q

Patient with crushed forearm, swollen, cool and cyanotic with weak distal pulses:

A

Compartment syndrome

79
Q

Risk for constipation R/T pelvic fracture:

A

Drink 2-3L of fluid per day

80
Q

Pelvic fracture assessment that would cause the biggest concern:

A

No urinary output for 8 hours

81
Q

Alendronate (Fosamax) requires the patient to:

A

Sit or stand for 30 minutes after administration

82
Q

Teaching plan for teen with sickle cell anemia

A

Maintain adequate hydration

83
Q

Sickle cell crisis occurs when sickle shaped RBC’s:

A

Obstruct major arteries

84
Q

Hydroxyurea

A

Produces a hemoglobin that will reduce sickling

85
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia

A

Recessive trait, both parents are carriers

86
Q

SLE, systemic lupus erythmatosus characteristic

A

Butterfly rash on face

87
Q

Plan of care for HIV

A

Careful aeseptic technique to prevent infection

88
Q

Increase in HIV in over 50 because

A

Usually not asked about sex or drug use, mistake S/S as normal aging, are less likely to seek HIV screening, and less likely to use condoms

89
Q

HIV cannot have potted plants due to

A

Aspergilliosis

90
Q

HIV observed in

A

Heterosexual partners of HIV infected person, newborns of HIV infected mom, health care workers that mishandle sharps,. breast-fed infants of HIV moms

91
Q

Teaching plan for microsporidiosis in HIV patient:

A

Drink 3 quarts of fluid daily to combat dehydration

92
Q

AIDS develops when:

A

CD4 cell level drops to 200

93
Q

TTP having plasmapheresis daily alert for the indication of

A

Hypotension

94
Q

Cutaneous Kaposi Sarcoma the nurse would report signs of

A

Abdominal pain

95
Q

If ELISA positive

A

Another sample for testing

96
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis, when can they become more active

A

When BP drops to normal

97
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis is most usually caused by

A

Streptococcal infection

98
Q

In acute glomerulonephritis, inflammation of the capillary loops in the glomeruli lead to

A

Moderate-to-high BP

99
Q

AV fistula, the thrill is absent when palpating the venous side of the fistula the nurse should

A

Report to the charge nurse that the fistula is occluded

100
Q

Chronic renal failure receiving dialysis is prone to injury because

A

Bone demineralization and peripheral neuropathy

101
Q

Peritoneal dialysis is less expensive and has fewer dietary restrictions and…

A

Gives more independence and more closely resembles normal kidney function

102
Q

Erythropoietin produced by the kidney. With a deficiency R/T chronic renal failure, will result in

A

Anemia as a result of diminished RBC’S being produced

103
Q

Grey Turner sign

A

Retroperitoneal bleeding and bruising over the flank

104
Q

Tzanck smear

A

Test for viral culture of herpetic lesions

105
Q

In a burn patient with eschar formation around the entire arm, the nurse will frequently assess

A

Capillary refill

106
Q

Primary Infertility

A

Been unable to conceive after 1 year of regular unprotected sex

107
Q

Semen analysis for infertility

A

Microscopically assess the sperm for number and motility

108
Q

Trichomonas, the sexual partner

A

Even asymptomatic must be treated

109
Q

Flagyl for Trichomonas

A

Avoid alcohol

110
Q

Candida Albicans

A

Cottage-cheese like appearance

111
Q

HPV and Genital warts association

A

Eventually develop cervical cancer

112
Q

To avoid getting cervical cancer

A

Get regular pap smears

113
Q

Flutamide (Eulexin) side effect for prostate cancer

A

Hot flashes

114
Q

Antiviral drug used in HSV

A

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

115
Q

Acyclovir (Zovirax) side effects

A

Dizziness, H/A, Nausea

116
Q

Glaucoma patient treated with Timolol (Timoptic) should be monitored for

A

Wheezing

117
Q

After enucleation when can a prosthesis be fitted

A

1 month or 4 weeks

118
Q

Caloric test result indicating a hearing disorder in the labyrinth

A

Nystagmus

119
Q

Meniere Disease patient should

A

Avoid the use of alcohol and tobacco

120
Q

Teaching plan for frequent laryngitis

A

Observe voice rest

121
Q

Most common cause of laryngitis

A

Respiratory infections and voice strain

122
Q

Laryngectomy 3 months ago, patient complaint of increasing dyspnea, this is common complication of

A

Tracheal stenosis

123
Q

Priority for patient after laryngectomy

A

Establish communication system

124
Q

After supraglottic laryngectomy, major postop difficulty

A

Teaching pt to swallow without aspiration

125
Q

Total laryngectomy to maintain airway clearance

A

Turn, cough, deep breath, semi-fowler position, trach collar, maintaining hydration

126
Q

Rifampin for exposure to TB side effect

A

Body fluids become red-orange

127
Q

Promethazine (Phenergan) for nausea, extra precautionary implementation due to common side effect

A

Put up side rails to prevent falls

128
Q

HCTZ (HydroDIURIL) for HTN, dietary teaching

A

Increase intake of bananas

129
Q

Propranolol (Inderal) teaching

A

Never stop abruptly taking the drug

130
Q

COPD and Asthma patients arent candidates for what antihypertensive drug

A

Beta Blockers, Propranolol

131
Q

Patient taking antihypertensive therapy complains of fatigue and pulse of 54, this side effect is most likely cause by

A

Diltiazem (Cardizem)

132
Q

Patient taking Furosemide (Lasix) for HTN, older patients at risk for

A

Hypokalemia

133
Q

Patient taking Aldomet (Methyldopa) for HTN, severe H/A, blurred vision, BP 200/94 the nurse would suspect

A

Abrupt cessation of medication

134
Q

TPA must be used within how long after CVA

A

3 Hours

135
Q

Nimodipine every 4 hours for hemorrhagic stroke. Pulse is 82, the nurse should

A

Give the medication. In beta blockers hold drug is pulse is <60 apically