16. Molecular genetic methods and applications in human genetics III Flashcards

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1
Q

Applications of genetic tests

A

1) Diagnostic/predictive
- Direct detection of mutation, confirm/excude mutation or qualify prognosis
2) Population wide screening
3) Prenatal diagnosis

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2
Q

Prenatal diagnosis

A

Invasive

  • CV=chorionic villus sampling (10-12 wks gestation)
  • Amniocentesis (14-16 wks gestation)

Non-invasive

  • Maternal serum screening at 16 wks (AFP)
  • US
  • Study of fetal cells from maternal blood

Preimplantation diagnosis

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3
Q

Non-invasive studies to test Down syndrome

A

1) US - nuchal translucency increased + nasal bone absent
2) Maternal age
3) Maternal serum markers - hCG increased

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4
Q

Maternal serum markers

A
  • PAPP-A (pregnancy associated plasma protein A
  • AFP (alphafetoprotein)
  • Estriol (UE3)
  • Inhibin-A (inhibin)
  • hCG (human chorion gonadotrophin)
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5
Q

Microsatellites

A

Microsatellites are di-, tri-, or tetra nucleotide tandem repeats in DNA sequences. The number of repeats is variable in populations of DNA and within the alleles of an individual - kind of a “fingerprint”.

  • PCR of chromosome specific markers
  • Capillary electrophoresis
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6
Q

PrenaTest

A

Non-invasive prenatal testing

- Can identify 7 chromosomal disorders

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7
Q

Comparative genome hybridization (CGH)

A

Whole genome of patient and control as samples

  • Nick translation
  • Fluorescent dyes - red for patient, green for control
  • Chromosomes are fixed in metaphase + hybridized to slide

Results:

  • Where patient and control are equally hybridized - rate of fluorescent signal is also equal (=1 - yellow)
  • More intense patient signal - genome has extra copies
  • Less intense patient signal - genome has a deficit
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8
Q

CGH advantages compared to karyotyping and FISH + disadvantage

A

1) Advantages over karyotyping
- Easily noticable differences
- Higher resolution (100 kb vs 5-10Mb)
2) Advantages over FISH
- Can examine more than only specific, pre-selected regions
3) Disadvantage
- Contamination (in tumor samples are also healthy cells)

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9
Q

Microarray technology

A

High resolution nucleotide chain hybridization

1) Nucleotide probes bound to solid surface (glass chip, bead)
2) Labelled samples are hybridized to probes
3) Measure signal intensity

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10
Q

Microarray applications

A
  • aCGH/CNV/SNP
  • Gene expression
  • microRNA
  • Methylation array
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11
Q

Clinical use of aCGH

A
  • Disease focused arrays (DMD array)
  • Hematological and cancer arrays
  • Prenatal arrays
  • Preimplantation arrays
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12
Q

Gene expression microarray

A
  • Mainly in research
  • Compare mRNA expression in tested samples
  • Complex bioinformatical analysis (GSEA)
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13
Q

Gene expression microarray applications

A
  • Microbiology-pathogen and host interaction studies
  • Drug development, drug efficiency testing
  • Biomarker studies (tumor diagnostic)
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14
Q

MammaPrint

A

Check breast cancer - risk of recurrence within 10 years after diagnosis (early stage breast cancer)

  • Low risk vs high risk
  • Expression pattern of 70 genes
  • Low risk: don’t need chemo after surgery
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15
Q

microRNA microarray

A

microRNA profile is distinct in healthy and cancer tissues, or between tumors

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16
Q

Methylation detection by PCR

A

Bisulfite PCR, MS-PCR (methylation sensitive)

  • Treatment of DNA with bisulfite converts cytosine residues to uracil in CpG sites - but leaves 5-methylcytosine residues unaffected
  • During PCR unmethylated cytosines are displayed as thymines in the resulting amplified sequence
  • Can be verified by sequencing
17
Q

Methylation microarray

A
  • Used to test DNA methylation

- Used for epigenetic studies

18
Q

Huntington disease detection

A

PCR

  • Detection of a length polymorphism (VNTR)
  • CAG repeats
  • Molecular marker including a range of CAG repeats should be used in each analysis
19
Q

Huntington normal vs mutant

A

Normal: 11-34 CAG repeats

Mutant 42 -> CAG repeats

20
Q

Triplet repeat mutation diseases

A
  • Fragile X
  • Freidrich’s ataxia
  • Muscular dystrophy
  • Myotonic dystrophy
  • Spinobulbar muscular dystrophy
  • Spinocerebellar ataxia
  • Huntington disease
21
Q

Detection Hb S steps

A

1) DNA amplification
2) Digestion with restriction endonuclease
3) Electrophoresis
4) Staining with ethidium-bromide

22
Q

Indentification of a disease causing gene sequence

A

1) Linkage
2) Gene localization
3) Gene identification
4) Gene structure and sequence analysis
5) Gene product
* This gives better predictive analysis, better diagnosis and better treatment

23
Q

Identification sequence of CFTR

A

1) Linkage:
- Salt transport involvement
- Find a genetic disease feature with known location: DOCRI-917
2) Gene localization
- Tight linkage with RFLP-markers on long arm of chr 7
3) Gene identification
- 920bp long cDNA found from sweat gland
4) Gene structure and sequence analysis
- Sequence show that gene codes for a protein with a transmembrane region
- Expressed in every affected tissue!
- Samples from patients showed triplet deletion (phenylalanine)
5) Gene product
- Chloride ion channel - gene is CFTR

24
Q

CFTR mutations

A
  • More than 1000 mutations of CFTR gene are known

- Most frequent mutation: del-F508

25
Q

Method for identification of delF508

A

Most frequent mutation in CF

1) PCR
2) Allele specific PCR
3) Capillary electrophoresis: Separation of PCR products

26
Q

NGS

A

Next generation sequencing assay

  • Detection of rare mutations
  • MiSeqDx for CF was first FDA-cleared in vitro diagnostic NGS assay
27
Q

Detection of DNA polymorphism (SNP, VNTR)

A
  • Blot-based indentification: by specific probes (!) (RFLP)

- PCR-based identification: by specific primers (!) - forward and reverse primers