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Biomedicine II CNM (2024) > 16. Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

16. Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Define ‘pathogenic’

A

Disease-causing microbes

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2
Q

Explain the relation and give an example of a commensal microbial relationship

A

Commensal = symbiotic relationship whereby the microbe benefits and the host is unaffected

E.g. Microbes on your skin

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3
Q

Explain the relation and give an example of a mutualistic microbial relationship

A

Mutualistic = a symbiotic relationship whereby both the microbe and the host benefit.

E.g. E. coli which makes vitamin K for humans

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4
Q

Explain the relation and give an example of a parasitic microbial relationship

A

Parasitic = a symbiotic relationship whereby one organism benefits at the other’s expense.

E.g. head lice

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5
Q

Explain the relation and give an example of a opportunistic microbial relationship

A

Opportunistic = symbiotic relationship between organisms that is initially commensal/mutualistic but becomes parasitic

E.g. candida

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6
Q

Describe the difference between Pasteur and Bechamp’s microbe theories

A

Pasteur presented ‘germ theory’ of disease saying that all germs are bad and cause disease.

Bechamps developed terrain theory whereby germs are opportunistic in nature and live with us symbiotically. To prevent illness we should not kill germs but promote health.

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7
Q

List two differences between ‘gram negative’ and gram positive’ bacteria

A

Gram positive:
1) thick cell wall
2) stains purple with Gram’s method

Gram negative:
1) thinner cell walls
2) stains pink with Gram’s method

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8
Q

Discuss this statement:

‘Bacteria are prokaryotic cells with a simple structure, nucleus and membrane bound organelles’

A

Although it is correct that they are prokaryotic and simple structures, they no not have nucleus or membrane bound organelles.

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9
Q

Describe TWO key differences between ‘exotoxins’ and ‘endotoxins’.

A

Exotoxins:
1) very toxic
2) released by living microbes

Endotoxins:
1) less toxic
2) released from cell wall after organisms death

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10
Q

Name ONE method by which bacteria reproduce.

A

Binary fission

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11
Q

With regards to resident and transient microflora, list:

a. TWO body locations where microflora is present
b. TWO body locations where microflora is absent

A

a. microflora present:
- small & large intestine
- mouth
- skin
- vagina
- nasal cavity

b. microflora absent
- blood
- cerebrospinal fluid
- lungs
- stomach
- uterus
- bladder
- kidneys

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12
Q

Describe how microflora organisms can become pathogenic.

A

Can become pathogenic if the local environment changes or if immune system becomes compromised (opportunistic)

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13
Q

Explain how broad-spectrum antibiotics affect microflora in the body.

A

They possess no specificity for bacteria they kills and instead can have devastating effects on the body’s microflora

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14
Q

List TWO adverse effects of broad-spectrum antibiotics.

A
  • Impaired immunity
  • candida overgrowth
  • diarrhoea
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15
Q

Describe the structure of a virus.

A

Incredibly basic organism.

Strand of RNA or DNA in a hard protein coat (capsid)

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16
Q

Name TWO DNA viral pathologies.

A
  • coldsores
  • chicken pox
  • Shingles
  • small pox
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17
Q

Name TWO RNS viral pathologies.

A
  • Measles
  • Mumps
  • HIV
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18
Q

Describe how viruses reproduce.

A

By injecting their RNA/DNA strands into a living host cell and use the host cell’s apparatus for reproduction

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19
Q

Describe FOUR ways in which viruses make it difficult for the body to identify and destroy.

A

1) Hide inside a host cell
2) Don’t have a metabolism of their own
3) Have few structures of their own
4) Able to mutate

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20
Q

Explain the term Viral lysis

A

Virus particles burst out of the host cell into the extracellular space causing cell death of host

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21
Q

Explain the term Viral budding

A

Virus exits a call and acquires an envelope (outer membrane) of its own from the host cell. Host cell dies in process.

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22
Q

Explain the term Latent stage

A

Stage where the disease is present but hidden or inactive

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23
Q

Describe how the following promote fungal growth in the body:

a. Yeasts
b. Dermatophytes

A

Yeast = reproduce through budding

Dermatophytes = obtain nutrients from keratin in the skin

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24
Q

List FOUR factors that promote growth of fungi in the body.

A
  • Warmth
  • Moisture
  • Nutrients
  • Acidity
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25
Q

List TWO ways in which fungi reproduce.

A
  • Asexual via budding
  • Sexual through fungal spores
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26
Q

Name ONE example of a protozoa

A

MAlaria

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27
Q

What’s a helminth?

A

A parasitic worm

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28
Q

Define the following terms:

a. Epidemic
b. Pandemic
c. Endemic

A

a. Epidemic = infection occurring in large groups

b. Pandemic = infection is worldwide

c. Endemic = infection is restricted to an area

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29
Q

What is the term used to describe:

Location the pathogen exists, reproduces and spreads to new hosts

A

Reservoir

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30
Q

With regards to infection sources, define ‘carrier’

A

Infected individuals who are asymptomatic

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31
Q

With regards to infection sources, define ‘vector’

A

Intermediate carrier transporting pathogens from reservoir to host

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32
Q

What is the term used to describe an infected person or animal

A

Host

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33
Q

Explain what is meant by ‘nosocomial’.

A

Infection is acquired from a medical setting

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34
Q

Describe in detail the FOUR stages of infection.

A

1) Incubation period - time between initial exposure and appearance of first signs/symptoms

2) Prodromal period - early, non-specific symptoms are displayed (malaise, fever, etc)

3) Acute-period - Pathogens peak in population. Very pronounced symptoms specific to disease

4) Chronic infection - infection with insidious or slow offset of long duration

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35
Q

List FOUR ways in which a host can provide resistance against microbes

A
  • Intact skin and mucous membrane
  • Body secretions (stomach acid, tears etc)
  • Phagocytosis
  • Interferon production
  • Effective inflammatory response
  • Effective immune system
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36
Q

List FOUR ways in which a microbe displays ‘virulence’ against a host.

A
  • Productive of invasive/destructive enzymes
  • Production of endo- or exo-toxins
  • Spore formation
  • Entry of a large number of organisms (colonies)
  • Presence of bacterial capsules or pili
  • Ability to mutate
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37
Q

State THREE methods to reduce the spread of infection.

A
  • Stop droplet transmission (covering the mouth, not with hand)
  • Block method of transmission (hand washing, gloves, condoms)
  • Kill the organism
  • Sterilisation
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38
Q

Explain how the following ‘infection control’ processes work:
a. Sterilisation
b. Pasteurisation

A

Sterilisation = all micro-organism and their spores are destroyed by prolonged heat.

Pasteurisation = Most pathogenic microbes are killed but not their spores by a short exposure to heat

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39
Q

With regards to natural anti-microbials, name TWO examples for Anti-bacteria

A
  • Garlic
  • Oregano
  • Grapefruit seed extract
  • Tea tree
  • Thyme
  • Collodial silver
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40
Q

With regards to natural anti-microbials, name TWO examples for Anti-fungal

A
  • Garlic
  • Oregano
  • Cinnamon
  • Berberine
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41
Q

With regards to natural anti-microbials, name TWO examples for Anti-viral

A
  • Elderberry
  • Olive lead
  • St John’s Wort
  • Lemon balm
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42
Q

With regards to natural anti-microbials, name TWO examples for Anti-parasitic

A
  • Garlic
  • Black walnut
  • Wormwood
  • Berberine
  • Goldenseal
  • Oregano
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43
Q

List TWO groups of individuals at higher risk of developing sepsis.

A
  • elderly (over 75)
  • very young (<1)
  • alcoholics
  • diabetics
  • chemo patients
44
Q

Using definitions, describe the difference between ‘cellulitis’ and ‘erysipelas’.

A

Cellulitis = a bacterial skin infection creating inflammation of dermal and subcutaneous layers

Erysipelas = a more superficial bacterial skin infection of the dermis and upper subcutaneous layer, producing a well-defined edge.

45
Q

List ONE bacterial cause of cellulitis.

A

Staphylococcus aureus

46
Q

Name TWO characteristic signs / symptoms of cellulitis.

A
  • Very red, inflammed skin
  • Fever
  • Malaise
47
Q

Miss X displays the following signs and symptoms. Which pathology do you suspect?

‘Pustules with round oozing patches and golden yellow crusts that grow larger daily. Mostly affects hands and face or in skin folds’.

A

Impetigo

48
Q

What’s the main symptom of oral candidiasis?

A

What plaques on the tongue which is red underneath.

49
Q

List TWO causes / triggers of genital candidiasis.

A

(Not sex-related)
- Immune compromised
- Antibiotic treatment
- Diabetes Mellitus
- Pregnancy
- Immune system disorder
- Stress

50
Q

Describe TWO characteristic signs/symptoms of genital candidiasis.

A
  • Vaginal/genital itch
  • Thick, clumpy discharge (‘cottage cheese’)
51
Q

Describe the rash associated with Lyme disease.

A

Circular, pink, or red rash at the site of tick attachment that radiates from the bite, usually over 5cm in diameter.

52
Q

What is Diphtheria?

A

Highly contagious upper respiratory tract infection affecting primarily the nose and throat

53
Q

What’s the cause of diphtheria?

A

Bacterial - Corynebacterium diphtheriae

54
Q

Describe the appearance of the tonsils in diphtheria.

A

Grey membrane grows across the tonsils

55
Q

Explain how complications develop in diphtheria.

A

Exotoxins cause endothelial necrosis. Can cause myocarditis and paralyse diaphragm.

The membrane can block the airways

56
Q

What is scarlet fever?

A

An infectious disease resulting from exotoxins released by streptococci bacteria

57
Q

Briefly describe the pathophysiology of scarlet fever (HINT — think bacteria).

A

Bacteria secrete exotoxins and enzymes that break down red blood cells and damaging capaliaries

58
Q

What are the characteristic signs and symptoms of scarlet fever?

A
  • Sore throat
  • Fever
  • Scarlet rash (blanches under pressure)
  • Initially white tongue then turning red raw
59
Q

Describe briefly the difference between a rash associated with ‘scarlet fever’ and ‘meningitis’.

A

Scarlet fever rash blanches under pressure whereas the meningitis rash doesn’t.

60
Q

Name ONE cranial nerve where the herpes simplex virus (Type I) remains dormant.

A

Trigeminal nerve

61
Q

Describe the appearance of lesions associated with cold sores.

A

Painful fluid lesions around the mouth that scab then heal

62
Q

Using definitions, compare ‘chickenpox’ and ‘shingles’.

A

Chickenpox is a highly infectious viral disease causing an itchy, spotty rash.

Shingles is a later manifestation of chickenpox resulting in a painful localised rash.

63
Q

Describe the distribution of lesions/rash in ‘chickenpox’ and ‘shingles’.

A

Chickenpox - rash appears mostly on the head, neck, and trunk.

Shingles - rash only appears in affected dermatome

64
Q

List ONE serious complication of chickenpox.

A
  • Encephalitis (inflamed brain tissue)
  • Viral pneumonia
65
Q

Using definitions, compare ‘whooping cough’ and ‘tuberculosis’.

A

Whooping cough is a bacterial infection with characteristic coughing attacks which does not respond to usual cough mediation.

Tuberculosis is a chronic granulomatous disease caused by pyogenic bacteria

66
Q

Describe the cough associated with whooping cough.

A

There is a desperate attempt to breathe in, creating a ‘whooping’.

67
Q

Describe briefly the pathophysiology of tuberculosis.

A

Macrophages in the lungs initially engulf the bacteria and carry them to the hilar lymph nodes. some organisms spread though to distant areas and may have immediate or delayed activation.

68
Q

List ONE bacterial cause of tuberculosis.

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

69
Q

Explain why the lungs are a primary target for tuberculosis.

A

Because it’s highly aerobic

70
Q

List TWO signs and / or symptoms more characteristic of tuberculosis.

A
  • Fever
  • Chronic cough
  • Purulent / bloody sputum
  • Night sweats
    -Severe malaise
  • Weight loss
71
Q

Describe ‘Koplik spots’ seen in measles.

A

Small grey spots on oral mucosa opposite molar teeth

72
Q

What is mumps?

A

Acure viral infection associated with the mumps virus causing swelling of the parotid / salivary gland

73
Q

List ONE complication of mumps.

A

Testicular inflammation causing sterility

74
Q

What is rubella?

Name ONE major complication of the ‘rubella’ virus.

A

AKA German measles

A rare, usually harmless viral infection that often passes unnoticed caused by the rubella virus.

Complication = abnormal foetal development, miscarriage and foetal death

75
Q

What is viral hepatitis?

A

Acute viral infection of the liver

76
Q

How is hepatitis transmitted?

A

Hep A & E - faecal-oral
Hp B, C, D - blood and other bodily fluids

77
Q

Describe any TWO signs and / or symptoms associated with viral hepatitis in the following stages:
a. Pre-icteric stage
b. Icteric stage

A

a. Pre-icteric stage
Malaise & diarrohoea

b. Icteric stage
Jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritic skin

NB pale stools and dark urine as struggling to bilirubin to the GIT so excrete through urine instead.

78
Q

List ONE serious complication of viral hepatitis.

A

Chronic liver disease

79
Q

What is Polio and how is it transmitted?

A

An acute viral infectious disease causing motor defects through faecal-oral transmittion.

80
Q

What percentage of polio patients are asymptomatic?

A

90%

81
Q

What are the symptoms of polio?

A

Initiall fever, fatigue, heachaches, vomiting.

Later motor defects which can in extreme cases lead to paralysis or respiratory failure.

82
Q

What is HIV?

A

Human immunodeficiency virus.

A virus most commonly transmitted through sexual intercourse which attacks the immune system.

83
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of HIV

A

HIV binds to CD4 receptors found on T-helper cells and macrophages.

Viral RNA enters the cell and is converted in to viral DNA by reverse transcriptase enzyme.

Using intergrase it integrates with the cells DNA.

Virus forces host cell to produce viral RNA and proteins.

Virus buds off.

As viral load goes up, T-cell count goes down.

84
Q

How can HIV be transmitted, how can it NOT be transmitted?

A

Transmitted through blood and semen.

Primarily spread through unprotected anal sex. Recent increase in heterosexual transmission.

NOT transmitted by casual contact.

85
Q

Are there any risks to babies if the mother has HIV?

A

There are risks of transmission during pregnancy but a certainty.

Increased risk during childbirth and potentially (although not confirmed) through breastfeeding. Recommend c-section and bottle fed.

86
Q

How do you diagnose HIV?

A

Blood test for antibodies although delay of 2 weeks - 6 months for this.

87
Q

Describe the initial and late stage of HIV progression (symptoms and blood tests)

A

Initial stage: (1-6 weeks after infectino)
50% symptomatic.
Flyu / glandular fever like sore throat, fever, malaise, joint paid.
Negative antibody (IgG) tests

Late state:
Huge reduction in CD4 count
Opportunistic infections can cause disease

88
Q

List 4 normal signs / symptoms of HIV

A
  • Fatigue
  • Anaemia
  • Anorexia
  • Diarrhoea
  • Muscle wasting
  • Neurological disease
  • Cognitive / motor dysfunction
89
Q

List 4 opportunistic infections that can present in late stage of HIV

A
  • Recurrent pneumonia
  • Active TB
  • Candida
  • Lymphoma
  • Cervical cancer
  • Shingles
  • Cold sores
90
Q

What’s the main treatment for HIV?

A

Highly Active Anti-Retroviral therapy (HAART)

Increases life expectancy although adverse effects due to high toxicity.

Currently, there is no cure.

91
Q

What’s the name of the infection of the intestines that causes diarrhoea containing blood and/or mucus?

A

Dysentery

92
Q

What can cause dysentery?

A

Bacterial (shigella)
Amoebic (protozoan)

Via faecal-oral contamination.

93
Q

What is malaria?

A

An infectious disease affecting 5 million people each year that is spread by mosquities that are infected by plasmodium species.

94
Q

Briefly describe the transmission and spread of malaria.

A

Infected female mosquito bites human.

Plasmodium parasites taken up by the liver where they proliferate and mature.

Spread to erythrocytes and proliferate further (symptoms begin).

Infected cells burst and spread the infection further.

Protozoan gametes are formed and are taken up by mosquito during a blood meal.

95
Q

List 4 symptoms and 1 sign of malaria.

A
  • Cyclical fever (chills then fever then sweating, repeat)
  • Headache
  • Malaise
  • Joint pain
  • Nausea
  • Vomitting
  • Diarrhoea
  • Anaemia

Signs:
- Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen)
- Hepatomegaly (enlarged liver)
- Jaundice

96
Q

What common bacterial STI most commonly affects under-25’s and is asymptomatic in at least 50% of male cases and 80% of female cases?

A

Chlamydia

97
Q

What are the most common symptoms of chlamydia?

A

Milky-white or yellow discharge.
Dysuria

98
Q

What is a possible complication of chlamydia?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (leading to infertility)

99
Q

Name 3 STIs caused by bacterial infections.

A

Chlamydia
Gonorrhoea
Syphilis

100
Q

Name 2 STIs caused by viruses

A

Genital Herpes
Genital warts

101
Q

What symptoms can display in gonorrhoea in men and women?

A

Males only 10% asymptomatic
Yellow penile discharge, dysuria

Females 50% asymptomatic
Yellow vaginal discharge, dysuria, irregular vaginal bleeding, painful sex

102
Q

What virus causes genital herpes?

A

Herpes simplex virus type II

103
Q

What symptoms occur in genital herpes?

A

Painful vesicles turning into shallow ulcers.

104
Q

What is syphilis?

A

A chronic contagious systemic disease caused by bacteria entering the body via damaged skin or mucous membrane.

105
Q

What’s the incubation period of syphilis?

A

3-4 weeks

106
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of genital warts?

A

Soft, fleshy projections / cauliflower-like masses / flat lesions on the vagina, cervix, penis.

107
Q

What causes genital warts?

A

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Biomedicine II CNM (2024) (6 decks)

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