154: Gram-Negative Coccal and Bacillary Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis that allows differentiation into serogroups?

A

The primary virulence factor is the capsule, which is based on capsule polysaccharides and allows differentiation into serogroups A, C, W-135, X, and Y.

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2
Q

What are the common culture media used for isolating Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Common culture media include:
- Blood agar
- Trypticase-soy agar
- Chocolate agar
- Modified Thayer Martin agar

On blood agar, colonies appear as light gray, non-hemolytic, round, and glistening with a clear defined edge.

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3
Q

What is the significance of the Factor H binding protein in Neisseria meningitidis?

A

The Factor H binding protein binds factor H, which downregulates the alternative complement pathway and degrades C3, playing a crucial role in evading the host’s immune response.

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4
Q

What is the relationship between lipooligosaccharide levels and the severity of meningococcal infection?

A

There is a direct correlation between the levels of lipooligosaccharide and the severity of meningococcal infection; high levels are associated with poor prognosis.

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5
Q

Who is the exclusive host for Neisseria meningitidis and what is a common factor affecting infection rates in young children?

A

Humans are the exclusive host for Neisseria meningitidis, primarily through nasopharyngeal carriage. Young children experience sporadic infections due to waning levels of protective maternal antibodies.

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6
Q

What is the causative agent of meningococcal infections worldwide?

A

Neisseria meningitidis is responsible for 1.2 million cases of infection and 135,000 deaths annually.

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7
Q

What are the common presentations of disseminated meningococcal infection?

A

It may present as meningitis alone, acute meningococcemia, or chronic meningococcemia.

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8
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing Neisseria meningitidis infections?

A

Culture isolation of N. meningitidis from blood, cerebrospinal fluid, or other bodily fluids.

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9
Q

What is the most important factor in the treatment of acute meningococcal infection?

A

Early initiation of antibiotics is crucial.

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10
Q

What is the recommended vaccination schedule for Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Vaccination against serogroups A, C, W-135, and Y is recommended for all patients at 11 or 12 years of age with a booster at age 16 years.

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11
Q

What virulence factor allows differentiation into serogroups for Neisseria meningitidis?

A

The capsule is a virulence factor that allows differentiation based on capsule polysaccharides.

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12
Q

What role do pili play in Neisseria meningitidis infections?

A

Pili promote adherence to host cells and tissues and undergo phase and antigenic variation.

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13
Q

What is the significance of lipooligosaccharide in Neisseria meningitidis?

A

It triggers the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines and correlates with the severity of meningococcal infection.

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14
Q

Who is the exclusive host for Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Humans are the exclusive host, primarily through nasopharyngeal carriage.

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15
Q

Why are young children at risk for sporadic infections of Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Due to waning levels of protective maternal antibodies.

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16
Q

What are the primary virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis and their roles in infection?

A

The primary virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis include:
| Virulence Factor | Role |
|——————|——|
| Capsule | Allows differentiation into serogroups based on polysaccharides; important for immune evasion. |
| Pili | Promotes adherence to host cells and tissues; undergoes phase and antigenic variation. |
| Opa proteins | Found on the outer membrane; enhances adherence to nasopharyngeal epithelium. |
| Factor H binding protein | Binds factor H, downregulating the alternative complement pathway, aiding in immune evasion. |
| Lipooligosaccharide | Triggers pro-inflammatory cytokine production and activates complement pathways; correlates with infection severity.

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17
Q

How does the epidemiology of Neisseria meningitidis infections differ in young children compared to adults?

A

In the epidemiology of Neisseria meningitidis infections:
- Young children are at higher risk due to:
- Sporadic infections resulting from waning levels of protective maternal antibodies.
- Adults typically have a lower incidence of infection, as they may have developed immunity through previous exposure or vaccination.

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18
Q

What is the significance of the capsule in Neisseria meningitidis regarding vaccination challenges?

A

The capsule of Neisseria meningitidis is significant because:
- It serves as a virulence factor, allowing differentiation into serogroups (A, C, W-135, X, Y).
- The B serogroup demonstrates molecular mimicry, resembling human neuronal cells, which makes it poorly immunogenic and presents challenges for effective vaccination.

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19
Q

What are the clinical implications of high levels of lipooligosaccharide in Neisseria meningitidis infections?

A

High levels of lipooligosaccharide in Neisseria meningitidis infections have clinical implications such as:
- Triggering the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, which can lead to severe inflammatory responses.
- Activating complement pathways, which can result in simultaneous activation and inhibition of coagulation pathways.
- A direct correlation exists between high levels of lipooligosaccharide and poor prognosis in meningococcal infections.

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20
Q

What are the common cutaneous findings associated with acute meningococcemia?

A
  • Fever + petechial rash that progresses to fulminant septicemia within hours.
  • Petechial rash:
    • Hallmark (not always present); small, irregular with smudged appearance.
    • Common in children aged 1-18 more than in infants and adults.
    • Most common location: extremities; can occur on palms, soles, mucous membranes, and conjunctiva.
    • Rapid increase in number and size indicates fulminant disease progression.
  • Purpura fulminans:
    • Retiform purpura and skin necrosis; may occur with DIC; caused by sepsis.
    • DIC + purpura fulminans = Low Protein C levels.
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21
Q

What are the risk factors associated with N. meningitidis infections?

A
  • Lack of bactericidal antibodies:
    • Anatomic/functional asplenia, HIV, defects of terminal alternative complement pathways.
  • Deficiency of properdin: Positive regulator of alternative complement pathway.
  • Crowded living conditions: Adolescents and young adults living in crowded environments are at higher risk.
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22
Q

What are the non-cutaneous findings associated with meningococcemia?

A
  • Myalgias
  • Arthralgias
  • Cold or discolored extremities
  • Hypotension
  • Altered mental status
  • Renal failure
  • Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
  • DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation)
  • Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome
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23
Q

What is the transmission method of N. meningitidis?

A
  • Transmission occurs via respiratory droplets, direct contact, or kissing.
  • The bacteria reside in the nasopharynx of healthy individuals and can arise within 2 weeks of acquisition.
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24
Q

A college student living in a dormitory develops meningococcal meningitis. What are the risk factors associated with this condition?

A

Crowded living conditions, lack of bactericidal antibodies, and deficiencies in the alternative complement pathway (e.g., properdin deficiency).

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25
Q

What is the primary risk factor for higher infection rates of N. meningitidis in older children?

A

Close living conditions such as in colleges and dormitories.

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26
Q

What are the common serogroups of N. meningitidis associated with different regions?

A

A, W-135, X in sub-Saharan Africa; B and C in developed countries; Y associated with meningococcal pneumonia in adults.

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27
Q

How is N. meningitidis transmitted?

A

Through respiratory droplets, direct contact, or kissing.

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28
Q

What is a hallmark clinical feature of acute meningococcemia?

A

Petechial rash, which may progress to fulminant septicemia.

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29
Q

What is the most common location for petechial rash in children with meningococcemia?

A

Extremities, but it can occur all over the body including palms, soles, mucous membranes, and conjunctiva.

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30
Q

What condition may occur with purpura fulminans in meningococcemia?

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

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31
Q

What are some non-cutaneous findings associated with meningococcemia?

A

Myalgias, arthralgias, cold or discolored extremities, hypotension, altered mental status, renal failure, ARDS, and DIC.

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32
Q

What syndrome is associated with severe meningococcal infections?

A

Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome.

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33
Q

What is the significance of properdin deficiency in relation to N. meningitidis infections?

A

It is a positive regulator of the alternative complement pathway, and its deficiency increases the risk of infection.

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34
Q

What are the key risk factors for N. meningitidis infections in adolescents and young adults living in crowded conditions?

A

Key risk factors include:
- Lack of bactericidal antibodies due to:
- Anatomic/functional asplenia
- HIV
- Defects of terminal alternative complement pathways
- Deficiency of properdin, a positive regulator of the alternative complement pathway.

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35
Q

How does acute meningococcemia present clinically, and what are the implications of a petechial rash?

A

Acute meningococcemia presents with:
- Fever and a petechial rash that can progress to fulminant septicemia within hours.
- The petechial rash is a hallmark sign, often small and irregular with a smudged appearance.
- It is more common in children aged 1-18 than in infants and adults, and its rapid increase in number and size indicates fulminant disease progression.

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36
Q

What are the differences in cutaneous findings between acute and chronic meningococcemia?

A

Feature | Acute Meningococcemia | Chronic Meningococcemia |
|—————————–|————————————————|————————————————–|
| Rash | Petechial rash, hallmark sign | Polymorphic rash, fades and recurs |
| Appearance | Small, irregular, smudged | Rose-colored papules/macules |
| Progression | Rapid increase in number and size | Weeks to months of recurrent fevers |
| Other findings | Purpura fulminans, skin necrosis | Erythema nodosum-like nodules, petechiae |

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37
Q

What non-cutaneous findings are associated with severe meningococcal infections?

A

Non-cutaneous findings include:
- Myalgias and arthralgias
- Cold or discolored extremities
- Hypotension
- Altered mental status
- Renal failure
- Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
- Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome, which is characterized by adrenal hemorrhage and can lead to adrenal insufficiency.

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38
Q

What are the common clinical features of meningococcal meningitis?

A

Common clinical features include:
1. Nuchal rigidity
2. Headache
3. Photophobia
4. Fever
5. Altered mental status
6. Positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs
7. Potential for septic foci in other locations (e.g., septic arthritis, purulent pericarditis, bacterial endocarditis).

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39
Q

What are the complications associated with meningococcal infections?

A

Complications include:
1. Purpura fulminans – can lead to amputation.
2. Meningitis – may result in sensorineural hearing loss/deafness, seizures, hydrocephalus, mental retardation, and cognitive/behavioral problems.
3. Chronic meningococcemia – can lead to acute meningococcemia, meningitis, and carditis.

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40
Q

What laboratory tests are considered the gold standard for diagnosing acute meningococcemia?

A

The gold standard laboratory tests for diagnosing acute meningococcemia include:
- Culture of:
- Blood
- CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid)
- Synovial fluid
- Pleural fluid
- Pericardial fluid
- Skin biopsy
- PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) if there is high suspicion but negative workup.

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41
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using PCR for diagnosing meningococcal infections?

A

Advantages of PCR:
1. Highly sensitive and specific
2. Sensitivity not diminished
3. Fast results
4. More helpful in chronic meningococcemia due to difficulties in obtaining cultures.

Disadvantages of PCR:
1. Cannot determine antibiotic sensitivity
2. No widespread availability

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42
Q

What histopathological findings are associated with chronic meningococcemia?

A

Histopathological findings in chronic meningococcemia include:
- Perivascular infiltrates of lymphocytes and neutrophils.
- Leukocytoclastic vasculitis in petechial lesions.

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43
Q

A 5-year-old child presents with fever, petechial rash, and altered mental status. What diagnostic tests should be prioritized to confirm acute meningococcemia?

A

Blood culture (40-80% sensitivity), CSF culture, and PCR for high sensitivity and specificity. Skin biopsy may also be used if antibiotics have already been administered.

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44
Q

A patient recovering from meningococcal meningitis develops sterile arthritis and vasculitis. What is the likely underlying mechanism?

A

Delayed immune complex-mediated syndrome, which occurs during recovery and manifests as sterile arthritis, vasculitis, pleuritis, pericarditis, or episcleritis.

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45
Q

A patient with chronic meningococcemia presents with rose-colored macules and migratory arthralgia. What is the recommended diagnostic approach?

A

Perform blood culture, PCR for high sensitivity, and skin biopsy to identify perivascular infiltrates of lymphocytes and neutrophils.

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46
Q

A patient with suspected meningococcal infection has a negative culture but high clinical suspicion. What diagnostic test can confirm the infection?

A

PCR, as it is highly sensitive and specific, and its sensitivity is not diminished by prior antibiotic use.

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47
Q

A patient presents with necrotizing vasculitis and microvascular thrombosis. What histopathological findings are expected in meningococcal infection?

A

Necrotizing vasculitis, perivascular infiltrates of neutrophils and monocytes, microvascular thrombosis, and perivascular hemorrhage.

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48
Q

A patient with meningococcal meningitis develops sensorineural hearing loss. What is the underlying complication?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss is the most common sequelae of meningitis, along with seizures, hydrocephalus, and cognitive or behavioral problems.

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49
Q

A patient with a history of meningococcal infection presents with purulent pericarditis. What is the likely pathogenesis?

A

Meningococcal meningitis can lead to septic foci in other locations, including purulent pericarditis, due to the breach of the blood-brain barrier.

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50
Q

What are the common symptoms of meningococcal meningitis?

A

Nuchal rigidity, headache, photophobia, fever, altered mental status, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs.

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51
Q

What is a life-threatening complication associated with adrenal hemorrhage in meningococcal infections?

A

Purpura fulminans.

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52
Q

What is the likely pathogenesis of purulent pericarditis in meningococcal infection?

A

Meningococcal meningitis can lead to septic foci in other locations, including purulent pericarditis, due to the breach of the blood-brain barrier.

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53
Q

What are the common sequelae of meningitis?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss, seizures, hydrocephalus, mental retardation, and cognitive behavioral problems.

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54
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing acute meningococcemia?

A

Culture of blood, CSF, synovial fluid, pleural fluid, pericardial fluid, or skin biopsy.

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55
Q

What are the advantages of using PCR in diagnosing meningococcemia?

A

Highly sensitive and specific, sensitivity not diminished, fast results, and more helpful in chronic meningococcemia.

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56
Q

What are the disadvantages of PCR testing for meningococcemia?

A

Cannot determine antibiotic sensitivity and no widespread availability.

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57
Q

What histopathological findings are associated with chronic meningococcemia?

A

Perivascular infiltrates of lymphocytes and neutrophils, and leukocytoclastic vasculitis in petechial lesions.

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58
Q

What is a delayed immune complex mediated syndrome in the context of meningococcal infections?

A

It occurs while patients are in recovery and manifests as sterile arthritis, vasculitis, pleuritis, pericarditis, and episcleritis.

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59
Q

What are the clinical features of meningococcal meningitis and how do they relate to the breach of the blood-brain barrier?

A

Clinical features include nuchal rigidity, headache, photophobia, fever, altered mental status, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs. These symptoms arise due to inflammation and irritation of the meninges, which can occur when the blood-brain barrier is breached.

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60
Q

What are the potential complications of meningococcal infections and their clinical implications?

A

Potential complications include purpura fulminans, sensorineural hearing loss, seizures, hydrocephalus, and chronic meningococcemia. These highlight the importance of early diagnosis and treatment to prevent long-term morbidity.

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61
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using PCR for diagnosing meningococcal infections?

A

Advantages include high sensitivity and specificity, sensitivity not diminished after antibiotic initiation, fast results, and usefulness in chronic meningococcemia. Disadvantages include inability to determine antibiotic sensitivity and limited availability.

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62
Q

What histopathological findings are associated with chronic meningococcemia?

A

Necrotizing vasculitis, gram-negative cocci on gram stain, and perivascular infiltrates of lymphocytes and neutrophils.

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63
Q

What is the single most important factor in the treatment of meningococcemia?

A

Early initiation of antibiotics (not less than 30 minutes between diagnosis and administration of IV antibiotics).

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64
Q

What is the standard duration of antibiotic treatment for meningococcemia?

A

The standard antibiotic duration is 7 days.

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65
Q

What are the recommended antibiotics for empiric treatment of meningococcemia?

A

Third generation cephalosporins (Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime) are recommended for empiric treatment.

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66
Q

What vaccination is recommended for patients aged 11-12 years for meningococcal prevention?

A

The conjugate quadrivalent vaccine is recommended, with a booster at 12-16 years old.

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67
Q

What is the recommendation for the serogroup B meningococcal vaccine?

A

It is recommended for certain high-risk patients over 10 years old and for elective administration in patients aged 16-23 years, preferably between 16-18 years.

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68
Q

A patient presents with purpura fulminans and low Protein C levels. What is the immediate treatment approach?

A

Early initiation of IV antibiotics (e.g., third-generation cephalosporins) and administration of Protein C concentrate.

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69
Q

A 12-year-old is due for meningococcal vaccination. What vaccine schedule should be followed?

A

Administer the conjugate quadrivalent vaccine at 11-12 years old with a booster at 16 years old. If the first dose is given after 16 years, a booster is not needed.

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70
Q

What is the significance of early initiation of antibiotics in the treatment of meningococcemia?

A

Early initiation of antibiotics (within 30 minutes of diagnosis) is the single most important factor in the treatment of meningococcemia, as it significantly improves patient outcomes and reduces the risk of severe complications.

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71
Q

What are the standard antibiotic treatments for acute meningococcemia and their duration?

A

The standard antibiotic treatment for acute meningococcemia is a duration of 7 days, typically involving third generation cephalosporins, Penicillin G or Ampicillin if MIC is <0.1 µg/mL, Chloramphenicol if there is an allergy, and Protein C concentrate for purpura fulminans.

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72
Q

What vaccination recommendations are made for preventing meningococcal infections in adolescents?

A

Vaccination recommendations include the conjugate quadrivalent vaccine for patients aged 11-12 years with a booster at 12-16 years, and the serogroup B meningococcal vaccine for high-risk patients over 10 years old.

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73
Q

What is the definition of close contact for antibiotic prophylaxis in meningococcal infections?

A

Close contact is defined as prolonged contact >8 hours, close proximity <3 feet, and direct exposure to patients’ oral secretions from 7 days before symptom onset until 24 hours following initiation of treatment.

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74
Q

What are the recommended antibiotics for prophylaxis in close contacts of meningococcal infections?

A

The recommended antibiotics for prophylaxis are Rifampin (4 doses over 2 days), Ciprofloxacin (single dose), and Ceftriaxone (single IM dose; use in pregnancy).

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75
Q

What is the prognosis for acute meningococcal infection?

A

Acute meningococcal infection is often fatal, leading to shock and multiple organ failure.

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76
Q

What is the prognosis for chronic meningococcemia without treatment?

A

Without treatment, chronic meningococcemia is more likely to worsen and progress to affect vital function, leading to death. However, if treated, the prognosis is excellent.

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77
Q

When should antibiotic prophylaxis be initiated after identifying an index patient?

A

Within 24 hours of identification of the index patient.

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78
Q

What are the criteria for defining close contact in the context of antibiotic prophylaxis for meningococcal infections?

A

The criteria for defining close contact include prolonged contact >8 hours, close proximity <3 feet, and direct exposure to patients’ oral secretions from 7 days before symptom onset until 24 hours following initiation of treatment.

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79
Q

What are the treatment options for antibiotic prophylaxis in close contacts of meningococcal infections?

A

The treatment options include Rifampin (4 doses over 2 days), Ciprofloxacin (single dose), and Ceftriaxone (single IM dose; use in pregnancy).

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80
Q

What are the potential outcomes of acute meningococcal infection if left untreated?

A

Acute meningococcal infection can be fatal, leading to shock and multiple organ failure if left untreated.

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81
Q

What is the prognosis for chronic meningococcemia if treated versus untreated?

A

Without treatment, chronic meningococcemia is more likely to worsen and progress to affect vital function, leading to death. If treated, the prognosis is excellent, with some patients spontaneously recovering.

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82
Q

What are the key characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Gram-negative rod with a sweet, grape-like odor and blue-green color due to pyocyanin pigment. Oxidase positive, non-lactose fermenting, and obligately aerobic.

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83
Q

What are the common cutaneous infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Green nail syndrome, toe web infection, folliculitis, hot-foot syndrome, external otitis, and perichondritis.

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84
Q

What are the virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

ExoS, ExoT, ExoU, ExoY, Exotoxin A, Lipooligosaccharide, Pyocyanin, Pyoverdin & Pyochelin, and Alginate.

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85
Q

What are the drug resistance mechanisms of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Biofilms, efflux pumps, beta-lactamases, and porin downregulation.

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86
Q

A patient presents with a grape-like odor and blue-green pus from a wound. What is the likely causative organism?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which produces pyocyanin and pyoverdin pigments.

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87
Q

What type of organism is Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

A ubiquitous Gram-negative rod.

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88
Q

What is a characteristic color and odor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Blue-green color and grape-like odor.

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89
Q

What are common infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Nosocomial pneumonia, cystic fibrosis lung infections, and skin infections.

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90
Q

What is the role of exoenzymes produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

They interact with TLRs to induce TNF-a production and damage host tissues.

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91
Q

What is the significance of pyocyanin in Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections?

A

It is a pigment specific to Pseudomonas and contributes to its pathogenicity.

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92
Q

What is the clinical implication of Pseudomonas aeruginosa in hospitalized patients?

A

It can cause severe infections, especially in immunocompromised hosts, with high mortality rates.

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93
Q

What is the relationship between skin integrity and Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections?

A

A breach in skin integrity is typically required for invasion.

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94
Q

Why is skin integrity necessary?

A

Skin integrity is necessary for invasion and infection.

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95
Q

What are the primary cutaneous infections associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Primary cutaneous infections include:
- Green nail syndrome
- Toe web infection
- Folliculitis
- Hot-foot syndrome
- External otitis
- Perichondritis

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96
Q

What conditions typically necessitate a breach in skin integrity?

A

Conditions that necessitate a breach in skin integrity include:
- Trauma or burns
- Indwelling catheters
- Maceration of skin
- Dermatophyte infections

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97
Q

What are the virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa include:

Factor | Role in Infection |
| - - - - - - - - - | - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - |
| Exoenzymes | Interact with host immune responses; damage host tissues |
| Exotoxin A | Induces septic shock; inhibits protein synthesis |
| Lipooligosaccharide | Mediates septic shock; activates TLR4 |
| Pyocyanin | Contributes to oxidative stress; impairs immune response |
| Alginate | Forms biofilms; protects against phagocytosis |

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98
Q

How do virulence factors enhance the bacterium’s ability to invade tissues?

A

These factors enhance the bacterium’s ability to invade tissues, evade the immune system, and establish persistent infections.

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99
Q

What are the drug resistance mechanisms employed by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Drug resistance mechanisms of Pseudomonas aeruginosa include:

Mechanism | Description |
| - - - - - - - - - - - - | - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - |
| Biofilms | Protect bacteria from antibiotics and immune response |
| Efflux pumps | Actively expel antibiotics from bacterial cells |

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100
Q

What are lux pumps?

A

Actively expel antibiotics from bacterial cells.

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101
Q

What are beta-lactamases?

A

Enzymes that degrade beta-lactam antibiotics.

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102
Q

What is porin downregulation?

A

Reduces permeability of the outer membrane to antibiotics.

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103
Q

What do these mechanisms complicate?

A

They complicate treatment options and necessitate the use of combination therapies or alternative antibiotics.

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104
Q

What are the primary sources of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections in healthy patients?

A
  1. Conjunctival microflora
  2. Feces of healthy patients
  3. Water reservoir systems
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105
Q

What are the risk factors associated with green nail syndrome caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A
  1. Prolonged submersion in fresh water, soap, and detergents
  2. Onycholysis
  3. Chronic paronychia
  4. Nail disorders
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106
Q

What are the common risk factors for developing folliculitis and hot foot syndrome?

A
  1. Recreational use of hot tubs, whirlpools, or pools that lack adequate halogenation
  2. Heated water above 38 degrees, with increased infection risk correlating with the duration of bathing.
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107
Q

What are the primary sites of infection associated with bacteremia from Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A
  1. Lungs
  2. Urinary tract
  3. Gastrointestinal tract
  4. Skin and soft tissues (wound infection)
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108
Q

What are the risk factors for developing malignant otitis externa (OE) due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Risk factors include conditions that compromise the immune system or skin integrity.

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109
Q

What are the risk factors for developing malignant otitis externa (OE)?

A
  1. Swimmers
  2. Excessive ear scratching/cleaning
  3. Ear occluding devices
  4. Presence of dermatologic conditions that promote breakdown of skin cerumen barrier
  5. Microangiopathy of ear canal
  6. Increased pH of diabetic cerumen
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110
Q

What is the most likely causative organism for a patient with a history of burns who develops sepsis?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which is frequently isolated from burn wounds.

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111
Q

What is the likely causative organism for a patient with a catheter-associated UTI who develops bacteremia?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, the third most common cause of catheter-associated UTIs.

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112
Q

What is the likely causative organism and risk factors for a patient with a history of prolonged antibiotic use who develops sepsis?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Risk factors include hospitalization, neutropenia, hematologic malignancy, and recent antibiotic use.

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113
Q

What is a common source of infection in immunocompromised patients according to the epidemiology section?

A

Conjunctival microflora and feces of healthy patients, and water reservoir systems.

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114
Q

What is the most common pathogen for lung infections among ventilator-dependent patients?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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115
Q

What are the risk factors for green nail syndrome?

A

Prolonged submersion in fresh water, soap, and detergents; onycholysis, chronic paronychia, nail disorders.

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116
Q

What is chronic paronychia?

A

Chronic paronychia is a nail disorder.

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117
Q

What is the primary risk factor for toe web infections?

A

Persistently wet feet, closed toe shoes, tight fitting shoes, occupational or recreational exertion, and/or warm humid weather.

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118
Q

What increases the risk of folliculitis and hot foot syndrome?

A

Recreational use of hot tubs, whirlpools, and heated water above 38 degrees.

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119
Q

What are the risk factors for external otitis?

A

Swimmers, excessive ear scratching/cleaning, ear occluding devices, and presence of dermatologic conditions.

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120
Q

What is a common cause of malignant otitis externa in HIV patients?

A

Pseudomonas and Aspergillus.

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121
Q

What are the primary sites of infection in bacteremia?

A

Lungs, urinary tract, gastrointestinal tract, skin, and soft tissues (wound infection).

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122
Q

What are the risk factors for bacteremia?

A

Hospitalization, neutropenia, hematologic malignancy, CD4 < 50, immunocompromised status, recent courses of antibiotics/chemo, and invasive devices.

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123
Q

What are the primary risk factors associated with green nail syndrome and how does it develop?

A

Green nail syndrome develops due to prolonged submersion in fresh water, soap, and detergents. The primary risk factors include:

  1. Onycholysis
  2. Chronic paronychia
  3. Nail disorders.
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124
Q

What are the common risk factors for toe web infections and how can they be prevented?

A

Toe web infections are commonly associated with the following risk factors:

  1. Persistently wet feet
  2. Closed toe shoes
  3. Tight fitting shoes
  4. Occupational or recreational exertion in warm humid weather.

Prevention strategies include:
- Keeping feet dry
- Wearing breathable footwear
- Avoiding prolonged exposure to wet conditions.

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125
Q

What factors increase the risk of folliculitis and hot foot syndrome, particularly in recreational settings?

A

The risk of folliculitis and hot foot syndrome increases due to:
1. Recreational use of hot tubs, whirlpools, and pools lacking adequate halogenation.
2. Bathing in heated water above 38 degrees Celsius.
3. Prolonged duration of bathing.

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126
Q

What does prevention include for folliculitis and hot foot syndrome?

A

Prevention includes ensuring proper water sanitation and limiting time spent in hot water.

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127
Q

What are the risk factors for malignant otitis externa and its common causative agents in immunocompromised patients?

A

Malignant otitis externa is characterized by:
1. Invasion of soft tissues at the cartilaginous junction of the external auditory canal.
2. Risk factors include:
- Microangiopathy of the ear canal.
- Increased pH of diabetic cerumen.
- Common in elderly and immunocompromised individuals.

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128
Q

What are the common causative agents of malignant otitis externa?

A

Common causative agents include:
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
- Aspergillus species.

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129
Q

What are the primary sites of infection in bacteremia associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

In bacteremia associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa, the primary sites of infection include:
1. Lungs.
2. Urinary tract.
3. Gastrointestinal tract.
4. Skin and soft tissues (wound infections).

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130
Q

What are the risk factors for developing bacteremia?

A

Risk factors for developing bacteremia include:
- Hospitalization.
- Neutropenia.
- Hematologic malignancy.
- CD4 count < 50.
- Immunocompromised status.
- Recent courses of antibiotics or chemotherapy.
- Use of invasive devices.

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131
Q

What are the clinical features of Green nail syndrome?

A

Nail dyspigmentation: Greenish-yellow/brown/black due to accumulation of debris.

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132
Q

What is Green nail syndrome?

A

A condition characterized by greenish-yellow/brown/black due to accumulation of debris and pyocyanin.

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133
Q

What digits are typically affected by Green nail syndrome?

A

Typically limited to one or two digits; may affect the entire or partial nail.

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134
Q

What is the triad of symptoms associated with Green nail syndrome?

A

Dyspigmentation, Onycholysis, Paronychia.

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135
Q

What are the common cutaneous infections associated with direct inoculation?

A
  1. Green nail syndrome
  2. Toe web infection
  3. Folliculitis
  4. Hot foot syndrome
  5. External otitis
  6. Perichondritis
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136
Q

What are the characteristics of Toe web infection?

A

Appearance: Thickened, macerated skin with a characteristic moth-eaten appearance and yellow-green pustules.

Affected areas: Affects the toe web spaces and sole of the foot; may be accompanied by burning and pain.

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137
Q

What is Hot foot syndrome and its common presentation?

A

Common in children. Symptoms: Acute painful erythematous, warm, plantar nodules after immersion in contaminated wading pools or hot tubs.

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138
Q

What are the symptoms of External otitis/Swimmer’s ear?

A

Onset: Acute onset of edema and erythema or discoloration of the external auditory canal (EAC) sometimes with maceration, discharge, and regional lymphadenopathy (LAD).

Symptoms: (+) tragal tenderness, pruritus. Most common in children aged 5-14 years.

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139
Q

What is the clinical significance of malignant otitis externa?

A

Onset: Insidious onset with edema, erythema, and persistent discharge from the ear canal.

Pain: Severe pain disproportionate to examination findings. Risk groups: More common in elderly patients and diabetics.

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140
Q

What are the complications of malignant otitis externa?

A

Life-threatening; can lead to skull base osteomyelitis.

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141
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a diabetic patient with external otitis and severe pain disproportionate to examination findings?

A

Malignant otitis externa, which involves soft tissue invasion and can lead to skull base osteomyelitis.

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142
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient with a history of hot tub use presenting with follicular papules and pustules?

A

Hot tub folliculitis caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, typically presenting 24 hours after exposure.

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143
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient presenting with a painful, erythematous plantar nodule after using a wading pool?

A

Hot foot syndrome caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, commonly seen in children.

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144
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient with a history of ear scratching presenting with tragal tenderness and discharge?

A

External otitis (swimmer’s ear) caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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145
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient with a history of water irrigation of the ear developing severe pain and discharge?

A

Malignant otitis externa caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, often following water irrigation in diabetic or immunocompromised patients.

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146
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient with a history of swimming in a poorly chlorinated pool developing pruritic follicular papules?

A

Hot tub folliculitis caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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147
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient with a history of hot tub use presenting with painful plantar nodules?

A

Hot foot syndrome caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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148
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a patient with a history of ear cleaning presenting with tragal tenderness?

A

External otitis (swimmer’s ear) caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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149
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for ear cleaning history presenting with tragal tenderness and erythema?

A

External otitis (swimmer’s ear) caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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150
Q

What is a common skin infection caused by direct inoculation that affects the nails?

A

Green nail syndrome.

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151
Q

What skin condition is characterized by thickened, macerated skin with a moth-eaten appearance?

A

Toe web infection.

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152
Q

What is the typical onset time for folliculitis associated with hot tubs?

A

24 hours following exposure to contaminated hot tubs.

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153
Q

What are the common symptoms of external otitis, also known as swimmer’s ear?

A

Acute onset of edema, erythema, and discharge from the ear canal.

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154
Q

What is the triad of symptoms associated with green nail syndrome?

A

Dyspigmentation, Onycholysis, Paronychia.

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155
Q

What is a serious complication of malignant otitis externa?

A

Skull base osteomyelitis.

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156
Q

What type of skin infection can lead to bacteremia in immunocompromised patients?

A

Localized skin infections in immunocompetent patients.

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157
Q

What is the common presentation of hot foot syndrome in children?

A

Acute painful erythematous, warm, plantar nodules after immersion in contaminated water.

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158
Q

What are the clinical features associated with Green nail syndrome and how does it present?

A

Green nail syndrome is characterized by:

  • Nail dyspigmentation: greenish-yellow/brown/black due to debris and pyocyanin accumulation.
  • Typically affects one or two digits, but can involve the entire or partial nail.
  • Triad of symptoms: Dyspigmentation, Onycholysis, Paronychia.
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159
Q

Describe the presentation and common causes of Folliculitis/Hot tub folliculitis in adults.

A

Folliculitis is characterized by inflammation of hair follicles, often caused by bacteria or fungi, particularly in warm, moist environments like hot tubs.

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160
Q

What is Hot tub folliculitis?

A

Hot tub folliculitis presents with discrete follicular papules and pustules that heal with fine desquamation and hyperpigmented macules.

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161
Q

What is the onset time for symptoms of Hot tub folliculitis?

A

Sudden onset occurring 24 hours after exposure to contaminated hot tubs, often associated with pruritus or pain.

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162
Q

Which areas are commonly affected by Hot tub folliculitis?

A

Commonly affects areas covered by bathing suits, such as the upper trunk, axillary folds, hips, and buttocks.

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163
Q

What are the key clinical features of External otitis/Swimmer’s ear?

A

External otitis/Swimmer’s ear is characterized by acute onset of edema and erythema or discoloration of the external auditory canal (EAC), sometimes with maceration and discharge.

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164
Q

What symptoms are associated with External otitis/Swimmer’s ear?

A

Symptoms include tragal tenderness and pruritus.

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165
Q

Which age group is most commonly affected by External otitis/Swimmer’s ear?

A

Most common in children aged 5-14 years.

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166
Q

What is Malignant otitis externa?

A

Malignant otitis externa can occur, presenting with:

  1. Insidious onset with severe pain disproportionate to examination findings.
  2. Higher risk in elderly patients and diabetics.
  3. Can be life-threatening, leading to skull base osteomyelitis.
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167
Q

What are the clinical implications of localized skin infections in immunocompetent patients?

A

Localized skin infections in immunocompetent patients can become a source of bacteremia in immunocompromised patients. This highlights the importance of early identification and management of skin infections to prevent potential systemic complications, especially in vulnerable populations.

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168
Q

What are the classic findings associated with perichondritis following commercial piercings?

A

Classic findings include granulatin tissue.

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169
Q

What are classic findings in aural piercings?

A

Granulation tissue in the floor of the external auditory canal (EAC) and bony cartilaginous junction blocking the tympanic membrane (TM).

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170
Q

What are the characteristics of SQ nodules associated with bacteremia?

A

SQ nodules are warm, erythematous, indurated, usually non-fluctuant, and can be painful or less painful. They typically affect the face, neck, chest, abdomen, back, and extremities.

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171
Q

Describe the progression and appearance of ecthyma gangrenosum in patients with P. aeruginosa bacteremia.

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum begins as a painless, infarcted gunmetal gray macule or papule with surrounding erythema. It becomes indurated, and hemorrhagic bullae may develop. Over 12-18 hours, it progresses to a necrotic, ulcerative eschar with a halo of tender erythema. Common locations include anogenital, extremities, trunk, and face.

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172
Q

What non-cutaneous findings may be present in cases of bacteremia?

A

Non-cutaneous findings include fever and malaise, even in the absence of bacteremia or mild infections, and sepsis with systemic symptoms. Additionally, otitis externa (OE) may lead to conductive hearing loss and cranial nerve palsies (most commonly the facial nerve), as well as trismus and lockjaw.

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173
Q

What laboratory tests are recommended for diagnosing perichondritis?

A

For diagnosing perichondritis, otoscopy and cultures should be performed. Additionally, perichondritis should be cultured following incision and drainage (I and D).

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174
Q

What imaging technique is used to assess malignant otitis externa (OE) and what is its purpose?

A

CT/MRI is used to assess malignant otitis externa (OE) to evaluate the extent of the disease.

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175
Q

What is external otitis (OE) and what is its purpose?

A

CT/MRI is used to detect extension into the bony structures in cases of malignant otitis externa (OE). It helps differentiate from other conditions, such as squamous cell carcinoma (SCC).

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176
Q

What histopathological findings are associated with hot foot syndrome?

A

Histopathological findings in hot foot syndrome include perivascular, interstitial, and peri-adnexal neutrophils that extend to the lobules of subcutaneous fat and may include deep dermal or subcutaneous abscess.

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177
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient with a painless, infarcted gunmetal gray macule surrounded by erythema?

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, commonly seen in neutropenic patients.

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178
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient with neutropenia presenting with fever, malaise, and necrotic skin lesions?

A

Bacteremia with ecthyma gangrenosum caused by.

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179
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient with diabetes presenting with necrotic cartilage following ear trauma?

A

Perichondritis caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, often following trauma or contaminated cleaning agents.

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180
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient with a history of chemotherapy presenting with fever and subcutaneous nodules?

A

Bacteremia with subcutaneous nodules caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, commonly seen in immunocompromised patients.

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181
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient presenting with a necrotic ulcerative eschar surrounded by tender erythema?

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, commonly seen in neutropenic patients.

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182
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient with a history of burns developing a necrotic skin lesion with a gunmetal gray center?

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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183
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and causative organism for a patient with neutropenia presenting with fever and necrotic skin lesions?

A

Bacteremia with ecthyma gangrenosum caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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184
Q

What is commonly seen in immunocompromised patients?

A

Infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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185
Q

What are the classic findings associated with external auditory canal (EAC) infections?

A

Granulation tissue in the floor of EAC and bony cartilaginous junction blocking the tympanic membrane (TM).

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186
Q

What is perichondritis and what can cause it?

A

An infection following commercial piercings due to contaminated cleansing agents, trauma, or acupuncture, leading to rapid cartilage necrosis.

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187
Q

What are SQ nodules and their characteristics in the context of bacteremia?

A

Warm, erythematous, indurated, usually non-fluctuant, and painful/less, affecting the face, neck, chest, abdomen, back, and extremities.

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188
Q

What is ecthyma gangrenosum and how does it present?

A

Necrotic lesions associated with P. aeruginosa bacteremia, beginning as a painless, infarcted gray macule or papule with surrounding erythema, which can develop into a necrotic ulcerative eschar.

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189
Q

What non-cutaneous findings can occur with Pseudomonas infections?

A

Fever and malaise, sepsis with systemic symptoms, and conductive hearing loss with cranial nerve palsies.

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190
Q

What laboratory tests are used for diagnosing pseudomonal folliculitis?

A

Unroofing and culture of pustules and bacterial subtyping.

191
Q

What imaging technique is used to detect malignant otitis externa (OE)?

A

CT/MRI to detect extension into the bony structures; differential diagnosis includes squamous cell carcinoma (SCC).

192
Q

What histopathological findings are associated with hot foot syndrome?

A

Perivascular, interstitial, and peri-adnexal neutrophils extending to the lobules of subcutaneous fat, possibly including deep dermal or subcutaneous abscess.

193
Q

What are the clinical features of SQ?

A

Clinical features of SQ are not specified in the provided text.

194
Q

What are the clinical features of SQ nodules associated with bacteremia?

A

SQ nodules are characterized by:
- Warm, erythematous, indurated, usually non-fluctuant
- Painful or less painful
- Commonly affect the face, neck, chest, abdomen, back, and extremities.

195
Q

Describe the progression and characteristics of Ecthyma gangrenosum in patients with P. aeruginosa bacteremia.

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum begins as:
1. A painless, infarcted gunmetal gray macule or papule with surrounding erythema.
2. It becomes indurated, and hemorrhagic bullae may develop.
3. Over 12-18 hours, it progresses to a necrotic, ulcerative eschar with a halo of tender erythema.

196
Q

What non-cutaneous findings may be present in cases of bacteremia?

A

Non-cutaneous findings in bacteremia may include:
- Fever and malaise, even in the absence of bacteremia or mild infections.
- Sepsis with systemic symptoms.
- Otitis externa (OE) leading to conductive hearing loss and cranial nerve palsies, particularly affecting the facial nerve, as well as trismus and lockjaw.

197
Q

What laboratory tests are recommended for diagnosing Pseudomonal folliculitis?

A

For diagnosing Pseudomonal folliculitis, the following laboratory tests are recommended:
1. Unroofing and culture of pustules for bacterial subtyping.
2. Hot foot syndrome may require a punch biopsy for histopathology and culture.

198
Q

What imaging techniques are used to assess malignant otitis externa (OE) and what are they used to detect?

A

Imaging techniques for assessing malignant otitis externa include:
- CT or MRI, which are used to detect extension into the bone.

199
Q

What imaging techniques are used to detect extension into the bony structures?

A

CT or MRI.

200
Q

What differential diagnosis may include squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?

A

Differential diagnosis may include squamous cell carcinoma (SCC).

201
Q

What are the primary drug treatments for infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

The primary drug treatments include:

Class of Drug | Examples |
|—————|———-|
| Penicillins | Ticarcillin-Clavulanic, Pip-tazo |
| Cephalosporins | Cefepime, Ceftazidime, Cefoperazone |
| Monobactams | Aztreonam |
| Carbapenems | Meropenem, Doripenem, Imipenem-cilastatin |
| Fluoroquinolones | Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin |
| Aminoglycosides | Gentamicin, Tobramycin, Amikacin |
| Polymyxin | Colistin |

202
Q

What is the management approach for Green nail syndrome?

A

The management approach includes:

  1. Removal of the detached nail plate.
  2. Application of topical antimicrobial for 1-4 months while avoiding chronic moisture or water submersion.
  3. Antimicrobials that can be used include:
    • Sodium hypochlorite 2%
    • Aminoglycosides (Tobramycin, Gentamicin)
    • Fluoroquinolones (Ciprofloxacin, Nadifloxacin)
    • Polymyxin B
    • Bacitracin
    • Acetic acid.
203
Q

What are the treatment options for Pseudomonal toe web infection?

A

The treatment options include:

  1. Require both antibacterial and antifungal therapy + necrotic tissue debridement.
  2. For mild cases: topical gentamicin.
  3. For fulminant cases: oral antibiotics (Ciprofloxacin).
204
Q

What is the recommended treatment for external otitis and perichondritis?

A

The recommended treatment includes:
1. Prompt referral to surgical ENT service for debridement of necrotic tissue and possible mastoidectomy if extensive.
2. A prolonged course of systemic antibiotics:
- Ciprofloxacin for 6-8 weeks for sensitive strains.
- Anti-pseudomonal beta lactam (Pip-tazo, ceftazidime, cefepime) for fluoroquinolone resistant strains.

205
Q

What is the clinical significance of ecthyma gangrenosum in Pseudomonas infections?

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum is characterized by:
- Acute vasculitis and suppurative panniculitis with visible gram-negative rods.
- It indicates necrotizing Gram-negative bacteria affecting small vessels, which can lead to severe systemic infections, particularly in immunocompromised patients.

206
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and treatment for a patient with greenish-yellow nail discoloration and onycholysis?

A

Green nail syndrome caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Treatment includes removal of the detached nail plate and application of topical antimicrobials like sodium hypochlorite or aminoglycosides.

207
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and treatment for a patient with a thickened, macerated toe web with a moth-eaten appearance?

A

Pseudomonal toe web infection. Treatment includes antibacterial and antifungal therapy, necrotic tissue debridement, and topical or oral antibiotics.

208
Q

What additional treatments may include for severe cases, especially in diabetic patients?

A

IV treatment.

209
Q

What oral antibiotics are mentioned for fulminant cases?

A

Ciprofloxacin.

210
Q

What additional treatments may include for external otitis and perichondritis?

A

Castellani (Carbol-fuchsin) paint, Gentian violet, and acetic acid soaks.

211
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and treatment for a patient with a history of nail trauma presenting with greenish nail discoloration?

A

Green nail syndrome caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Treatment includes topical antimicrobials and avoidance of moisture.

212
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and treatment for a patient with diabetes presenting with a painful, erythematous ear canal and persistent discharge?

A

Malignant otitis externa caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Treatment includes systemic antibiotics like ciprofloxacin or anti-pseudomonal beta-lactams.

213
Q

What is the likely diagnosis and treatment for a patient with a history of prolonged water exposure presenting with macerated skin between the toes?

A

Pseudomonal toe web infection. Treatment includes antibacterial and antifungal therapy, along with necrotic tissue debridement.

214
Q

What is the treatment for acute vasculitis and suppurative panniculitis caused by gram-negative rods?

A

Drug treatment includes Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Fluoroquinolones, Aminoglycosides, and Polymyxin.

215
Q

What is the management for green nail syndrome?

A

Removal of detached nail plate followed by topical antimicrobial application for 1-4 months, avoiding chronic moisture or water submersion.

216
Q

What is the recommended treatment for pseudomonal toe web infection?

A

Requires both antibacterial and antifungal therapy along with necrotic tissue debridement.

217
Q

What is the treatment for folliculitis and hot foot syndrome?

A

Self-limited; exposure removal and symptomatic care, with oral ciprofloxacin for protracted cases.

218
Q

What is the recommended course of action for external otitis and perichondritis?

A

Treatment details not provided.

219
Q

What is the course of action for external otitis and perichondritis?

A

Prompt referral to surgical ENT service for debridement and a prolonged course of systemic antibiotics.

220
Q

What are the potential resistances that can develop in Pseudomonas treatment?

A

Resistance can develop to Imipenem-Cilastatin and Ciprofloxacin.

221
Q

What is the treatment for bacteremia and ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

Treatment involves systemic antibiotics and addressing the underlying infection.

222
Q

What are the key components of the drug treatment for infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

The drug treatment includes:

  • Penicillins: Ticarcillin-Clavulanic, Pip-tazo
  • Cephalosporins: Cefepime, Ceftazidime, Cefoperazone
  • Monobactams: Aztreonam
  • Carbapenems: Meropenem, Doripenem, Imipenem-cilastatin
  • Fluoroquinolones: Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin
  • Aminoglycosides: Gentamicin, Tobramycin, Amikacin
  • Polymyxin: Colistin
223
Q

What is the recommended management for Green Nail Syndrome?

A

The management includes:

  1. Removal of the detached nail plate.
  2. Application of topical antimicrobials for 1-4 months while avoiding chronic moisture or water submersion.

Topical agents may include:
- Sodium hypochlorite 2%
- Aminoglycosides (Tobramycin, Gentamicin)
- Fluoroquinolones (Ciprofloxacin, Nadifloxacin)
- Polymyxin B
- Bacitracin
- Acetic acid

224
Q

How should a Pseudomonal toe web infection be treated based on severity?

A

Treatment varies based on severity:

Severity Level | Treatment |
|—————-|———–|
| Mild cases | Topical gentamicin |
| Full cases | Systemic antibiotics |

225
Q

What are the treatment options for mild cases?

A

Topical gentamicin.

226
Q

What are the treatment options for fulminant cases?

A

Oral antibiotics (Ciprofloxacin).

227
Q

What are the treatment options for severe cases with DM?

A

IV treatment.

228
Q

What additional treatments are required for necrotic tissue?

A

Necrotic tissue debridement and antifungal therapy are required, along with the use of Castellani paint, Gentian violet, and acetic acid soaks.

229
Q

What are the treatment options for external otitis and perichondritis?

A
  1. Prompt referral to surgical ENT service for debridement of necrotic tissue and possible mastoidectomy if extensive.
  2. Prolonged course of systemic antibiotics:
    • Ciprofloxacin for 6-8 weeks for sensitive strains.
    • Anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam (Pip-tazo, Ceftazidime, Cefepime) for fluoroquinolone-resistant strains.
230
Q

What is the clinical significance of ecthyma gangrenosum in relation to bacteremia?

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum is a significant clinical manifestation often associated with bacteremia, particularly in immunocompromised patients. It presents as necrotizing Gram-negative bacterial infections that can lead to severe skin lesions and systemic infection, indicating a need for prompt diagnosis and aggressive treatment to prevent further complications.

231
Q

What is the recommended initial treatment for infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Prompt IV empiric therapy with anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam should be initiated, addressing the primary site of infection.

232
Q

What is the prognosis for Pseudomonas folliculitis and hot foot syndrome?

A

Both conditions are benign and self-limiting, improving rapidly with topical and oral therapy.

233
Q

What is the mortality rate associated with malignant otitis caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Malignant otitis is invasive and has a high mortality rate.

234
Q

What is the mortality rate associated with malignant otitis caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

20%

235
Q

How does bacteremia caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa compare to bacteremia caused by other gram-negative organisms?

A

Bacteremia caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with higher mortality than that caused by other gram-negative organisms.

236
Q

What should be considered when treating patients with neutropenia and signs of sepsis related to Pseudomonas infections?

A

Combination therapy should be used, including the addition of aminoglycosides, but aminoglycosides should never be used as monotherapy when other options are available.

237
Q

What is the recommended initial treatment for a primary site of infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Prompt IV empiric therapy with anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam.

238
Q

What should be added to the treatment regimen for patients with neutropenia and signs of sepsis related to Pseudomonas infections?

A

Combination therapy with aminoglycosides.

239
Q

Why should aminoglycosides never be used as monotherapy in Pseudomonas infections?

A

Because other options should be available and they are not effective alone.

240
Q

What is the prognosis for Pseudomonas folliculitis and hot foot syndrome?

A

They are benign and self-limiting, improving rapidly with topical and oral therapy.

241
Q

What is the mortality rate associated with bacteremia caused by Pseudomonas?

A

It is associated with higher mortality.

242
Q

What is the recommended initial treatment approach for a patient with a primary site of infection caused by Pseudomonas?

A

Prompt IV empiric therapy with anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam.

243
Q

What is the primary site of infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

The primary site of infection is often in cases of neutropenia with signs of sepsis.

244
Q

What therapy should be initiated for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?

A

Prompt IV empiric therapy with anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam should be initiated.

245
Q

What combination therapy is suggested for neutropenia with signs of sepsis due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Combination therapy should include an anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam and an aminoglycoside, as aminoglycosides should never be used as monotherapy when other options are available.

246
Q

What is the prognosis for Pseudomonas folliculitis and hot foot syndrome?

A

Both conditions are benign and self-limited, improving rapidly with topical and oral therapy.

247
Q

What is the mortality rate associated with malignant otitis caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

The mortality rate for malignant otitis is approximately 20%.

248
Q

How does the mortality rate of bacteremia caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa compare to that caused by other gram-negative organisms?

A

Bacteremia caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with higher mortality than that caused by other gram-negative organisms.

249
Q

What are the three most clinically relevant species of Bartonella and their associated diseases?

A
  1. Bartonella henselae: Cat Scratch Disease (CSD), Bacillary Angiomatosis (BA), Endocarditis.
  2. Bartonella quintana: Trench Fever, BA, Endocarditis.
  3. Bartonella bacilliformis: Carrion Disease (Oroya fever and verruga peruana).
250
Q

What is the vector for Bartonella henselae?

A

Cat flea (Ctenocephalides felis).

251
Q

What is the vector for Bartonella quintana?

A

Human body louse (Pediculus humanus).

252
Q

What is the vector for Bartonella bacilliformis?

A

Sand fly (Lutzomyia verrucarum).

253
Q

How does Bartonella evade the immune system in its natural reservoir hosts?

A

Bartonella employs several mechanisms: Weak Recognition by TLR4, Antigenic Variation, Parasitizing Host Erythrocytes, and Affinity for Endothelial Cells.

254
Q

What role does Bartonella play in the generation of angiomatous lesions?

A

Bartonella contributes to the formation of angiomatous lesions through increased cell migration and secretion of Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF).

255
Q

What are the epidemiological characteristics of Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A

CSD is the most common Bartonella infection, more prevalent in warm, humid climates, peaks in fall and winter, primarily affects immunocompetent patients with a median age of 15 years, and is associated with a history of cat contact.

256
Q

What diseases are caused by Bartonella henselae?

A

Cat Scratch Disease (CSD), Bacillary Angiomatosis (BA), and Endocarditis.

257
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Bartonella henselae?

A

Cats are the main reservoir for the causative agent.

258
Q

What is the peak occurrence season for Cat Scratch Disease?

A

Fall and winter.

259
Q

What is the typical age of patients affected by Cat Scratch Disease?

A

A median age of 15 years.

260
Q

What is the significance of antigenic variation in Bartonella?

A

It helps to subvert adaptive immunity.

261
Q

What are the cutaneous findings associated with Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A

Erythematous papule at the inoculation site, regional lymphadenomegaly, and Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome.

262
Q

What non-cutaneous findings are associated with Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A

Fever, chills, malaise, headache, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, or splenomegaly.

263
Q

What is the typical clinical course and prognosis for patients with Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A

Inoculation-site lesions typically persist for 1-3 weeks, cutaneous manifestations heal without scarring, and lymphadenitis is usually benign and self-limited.

264
Q

What are the management options for Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A

CSD is generally benign and self-limited; no treatment is recommended for mild to moderate disease.

265
Q

What are the cutaneous findings associated with Trench Fever?

A

90% of patients may develop crops of erythematous macules or papules across the abdomen, chest, and back.

266
Q

What are the non-cutaneous findings associated with Trench Fever?

A

Sudden-onset febrile episodes lasting approximately 5 days, chills, malaise, anorexia, and muscle aches.

267
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Trench Fever and its vector?

A

The etiologic agent is B. quintana, and the vector is the human body louse (P. humanus).

268
Q

What laboratory tests are used to diagnose Bartonella infections?

A

Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) assay, lymph node biopsy for histology, Warthin-Starry staining, and PCR on lymph node aspirates.

269
Q

What is the management approach for mild to moderate Bartonella infections?

A

No treatment is recommended for mild to moderate disease; for large lymphadenopathy, azithromycin, doxycycline, and erythromycin may be used.

270
Q

What are the common symptoms of Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A

CSD may present with abdominal pain, weight loss, and tenderness of the liver/spleen, with mildly abnormal liver function tests, elevated ESR, and CRP.

271
Q

What is the clinical course and prognosis for patients with Cat Scratch Disease?

A

Inoculation-site lesions typically persist for 1-3 weeks. Cutaneous manifestations generally heal without scarring. Lymphadenitis is usually benign and self-limited, but disseminated manifestations can be life-threatening. Lymphadenopathy resolves in a median of 7 weeks.

272
Q

What are the management options for patients with Cat Scratch Disease who present with large, bulky lymphadenopathy?

A

For large, bulky lymphadenopathy, treatment options include: 1. Azithromycin 2. Doxycycline 3. Erythromycin. If lymph nodes suppurate, consider: 1. Needle aspiration 2. Surgical removal. If liver and/or spleen involvement is present, use rifampicin alone or in combination with gentamicin or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

273
Q

What are the cutaneous findings associated with Trench Fever?

A

90% of patients may develop crops of erythematous macules or papules across the abdomen, chest, and back. 5-20 days following exposure, patients may experience cyclic fevers lasting approximately 5 days. Trench Fever is also known as 5-day fever, quintan fever, shinbone fever, and His-Werner disease.

274
Q

What are the non-cutaneous findings associated with Trench Fever?

A

Sudden-onset febrile episodes lasting approximately 5 days. Symptoms may include: chills, malaise, anorexia or diaphoresis, retroorbital pain, headache, muscle aches, joint pain, or shin pain, conjunctival injection, and splenomegaly.

275
Q

What diagnostic tests would you perform to confirm Cat Scratch Disease (CSD) in a patient with a history of cat scratches?

A

Diagnostic tests include indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) assay, lymph node biopsy for histology, Warthin-Starry staining, and PCR. Findings may include stellate necrosis surrounded by histiocytes and neutrophils, and bacilli visible on Warthin-Starry stain.

276
Q

What is the diagnosis and expected imaging findings for a patient with granulomatous hepatitis and neuroretinitis?

A

The diagnosis is Cat Scratch Disease (CSD). Imaging findings may include scattered hypodense areas in the liver or spleen on abdominal CT, which are hypoechoic on ultrasonography.

277
Q

What is the diagnosis and underlying pathophysiology for a patient with fever, chills, and a stellate macular exudate on fundoscopy?

A

The diagnosis is CSD neuroretinitis. The pathophysiology involves Bartonella henselae causing optic nerve edema and inflammation, leading to hemorrhages, cotton wool spots, and a macular star.

278
Q

What are the cutaneous findings associated with Cat Scratch Disease (CSD) following inoculation?

A

3-10 days: Erythematous papule at the inoculation site, which may become vesicular and crusted (2-6 mm). 3-50 days: Regional lymphadenomegaly, typically affecting axillary, cervical, inguinal, epitrochlear, or preauricular nodes. Lymphadenitis is typically the presenting sign. Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome: Unilateral granulomatous conjunctivitis with ipsilateral preauricular and submandibular lymphadenopathy if the inoculation site is near the eye. Other findings: Morbilliform eruptions, urticaria, erythema nodosum, erythema multiforme, and erythema marginatum.

279
Q

What non-cutaneous findings are associated with Hepatosplenic Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A

Fever, abdominal pain, and weight loss. Liver/Spleen may be enlarged and tender; liver function tests may be mildly abnormal. Elevated ESR and CRP indicate inflammation. Atypical manifestations may include granulomatous hepatitis or splenitis, neuroretinitis, encephalitis, myelitis, peripheral neuropathy, facial nerve palsy, arthritis, osteomyelitis, mediastinal masses, and atypical pneumonia.

280
Q

What are the management options for large, bulky lymphadenopathy in Cat Scratch Disease?

A

Azithromycin, Doxycycline, Erythromycin. If lymph nodes suppurate: needle aspiration or surgical removal. If liver and/or spleen involvement: rifampicin alone or in combination with gentamicin or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

281
Q

What are the cutaneous findings associated with Trench Fever?

A

90% of patients may develop crops of erythematous macules or papules across the abdomen, chest, and back. 5-20 days following exposure: Known as trench fever, also referred to as 5-day fever, quintan fever, shinbone fever, and His-Werner disease. Cyclic fevers lasting approximately 5 days.

282
Q

What are the non-cutaneous findings associated with Trench Fever?

A

Sudden-onset febrile episodes lasting approximately 5 days. Symptoms include chills, malaise, anorexia, diaphoresis, retroorbital pain, headache, muscle aches, joint pain, or shin pain. Conjunctival injection and splenomegaly may also occur.

283
Q

What is the typical clinical course and prognosis of Trench Fever caused by B. quintana?

A

Trench Fever typically follows a mild course, and death is rare.

284
Q

What are the common cutaneous findings associated with Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

The characteristic cutaneous lesion is a reddish-purple, angiomatous papule approximately 1 cm in diameter, which may be nodular or pedunculated. The surface can be smooth or verrucous and may ulcerate and occasionally bleed. Less common variants include subcutaneous nodules and hyperkeratotic plaques.

285
Q

What are the typical non-cutaneous findings in patients with Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

Typical non-cutaneous findings include: 1. Peliosis hepatis: Abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, elevated alkaline phosphatase and normal or slightly elevated bilirubin and aminotransferases. 2. Splenic peliosis: Thrombocytopenia and pancytopenia. 3. Bone and lymph nodes: Painful, isolated, lytic lesions, radius or tibia are the most commonly affected sites.

286
Q

What laboratory tests are used to diagnose Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

Bacillary Angiomatosis is diagnosed via skin biopsy, which is sent for histology, Warthin-Starry staining, and PCR. Additionally, IFA may be used, and BA lesions associated with peliosis hepatis and splenic peliosis may be biopsied.

287
Q

What is the management approach for uncomplicated Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

The management for uncomplicated Bacillary Angiomatosis includes: 1. Erythromycin or doxycycline for 3 or more months. 2. Alternatives include Azithromycin and clarithromycin. 3. Severe cases may require combination therapy with erythromycin or doxycycline plus a rifamycin, and intravenous therapy may be needed initially.

288
Q

What imaging findings are associated with peliosis hepatis in Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

Imaging findings in patients with peliosis hepatis may include: Abdominal CT showing organomegaly and scattered hypodense lesions. Radiographs may reveal lytic lesions with cortical destruction and periosteal reaction. Technetium scans demonstrate increased uptake.

289
Q

How is Trench Fever diagnosed and managed?

A

Trench Fever is diagnosed by isolating B. quintana from the blood or using an IFA assay. Management includes 28 days of oral doxycycline plus 14 days of IV gentamicin, or a 4-6 week course of oral doxycycline, erythromycin, or azithromycin for uncomplicated cases.

290
Q

What are the cutaneous and non-cutaneous findings of Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

Cutaneous findings include reddish-purple angiomatous papules, nodules, or plaques that may ulcerate or bleed. Non-cutaneous findings include extracutaneous angiomatous proliferation in the liver, spleen, bones, or lymph nodes, causing symptoms like abdominal pain, hepatosplenomegaly, and lytic bone lesions.

291
Q

What laboratory test can confirm Trench fever?

A

Isolating B. quintana from the blood.

292
Q

What is the typical clinical course of Trench fever?

A

It follows a mild course and death is rare.

293
Q

What is the recommended management for uncomplicated Trench fever?

A

28 days of oral doxycycline plus 14 days of IV gentamicin or a 4- to 6-week course of oral doxycycline, erythromycin, or azithromycin.

294
Q

What is the primary cause of bacillary angiomatosis lesions in the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes?

A

B. henselae.

295
Q

What are the characteristic cutaneous findings of bacillary angiomatosis?

A

Reddish-purple, angiomatous papules approximately 1 cm in diameter that may be nodular or pedunculated.

296
Q

What are the typical non-cutaneous findings associated with bacillary angiomatosis?

A

Peliosis hepatis, splenic peliosis, and painful, isolated, lytic lesions in bones and lymph nodes.

297
Q

What imaging findings are associated with peliosis hepatis?

A

Organomegaly and scattered hypodense lesions on abdominal CT.

298
Q

What is a potential complication of bacillary angiomatosis?

A

Culture-negative endocarditis, especially in those with underlying heart valve abnormalities.

299
Q

What is the recommended treatment for severe cases of bacillary angiomatosis?

A

Combination therapy with erythromycin or doxycycline plus a rifamycin, and intravenous therapy may be required.

300
Q

What is the role of Warthin-Starry silver stain in the diagnosis of bacillary angiomatosis?

A

It may identify bacilli in tissue samples.

301
Q

What is the recommended management for uncomplicated Bacillary Angiomatosis (BA) in immunocompromised patients?

A

The recommended management for uncomplicated Bacillary Angiomatosis includes: 1. Erythromycin or doxycycline for 3 or more months. 2. Alternatives include azithromycin and clarithromycin. 3. Severe cases may require combination therapy with erythromycin or doxycycline plus a rifamycin, and intravenous therapy may be needed initially.

302
Q

What are the typical cutaneous findings associated with Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

The typical cutaneous findings associated with Bacillary Angiomatosis include: Characteristic lesion: reddish-purple, angiomatous papule approximately 1 cm in diameter. Lesion may be nodular or pedunculated. Surface is smooth or verrucous and may ulcerate and occasionally bleed. Less common variants include subcutaneous nodules and hyperkeratotic plaques. May also affect the mucosa, and oral lesions have been reported.

303
Q

What laboratory tests are used to diagnose Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

The laboratory tests used to diagnose Bacillary Angiomatosis include: 1. Skin biopsy for histology, Warthin-Starry staining, and PCR. 2. IFA (Immunofluorescence Assay) may also be used. 3. BA lesions associated with peliosis hepatis and splenic peliosis may be biopsied for further evaluation.

304
Q

What are the non-cutaneous findings associated with Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

The non-cutaneous findings associated with Bacillary Angiomatosis may include: Peliosis hepatis: Symptoms: abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly. Laboratory findings: elevated alkaline phosphatase and normal or slightly elevated bilirubin and aminotransferases. Splenic peliosis: Symptoms: thrombocytopenia and pancytopenia. Bone and lymph nodes: Symptoms: painful, isolated, lytic lesions, commonly affecting the radius or tibia.

305
Q

What imaging findings are associated with peliosis hepatis in patients with Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

Imaging findings associated with peliosis hepatis in patients with Bacillary Angiomatosis include: Abdominal CT: shows organomegaly and scattered hypodense lesions. Radiographs: may reveal lytic lesions with cortical destruction and periosteal reaction in patients with bony involvement. Technetium scans: demonstrate increased uptake in affected areas.

306
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a homeless man with cyclic fevers, retroorbital pain, and shin pain?

A

The likely diagnosis is Trench Fever caused by B. quintana. Confirmation involves isolating B. quintana from the blood or using an IFA assay.

307
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a patient with HIV presenting with reddish-purple angiomatous papules and abdominal pain?

A

The likely diagnosis is Bacillary Angiomatosis. Additional tests include skin biopsy for histology, Warthin-Starry staining, PCR, and imaging like abdominal CT to check for peliosis hepatis or splenic peliosis.

308
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient with cyclic fevers and erythematous macules on the chest, and what is the pathogenesis?

A

The diagnosis is Trench Fever. Pathogenesis involves B. quintana being transmitted via human body lice, leading to bacteremia and cyclic fevers.

309
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient with HIV presenting with painful lytic bone lesions and angiomatous skin lesions?

A

The diagnosis is Bacillary Angiomatosis. Confirmation involves skin biopsy, Warthin-Starry staining, PCR, and imaging like radiographs or technetium scans for bone involvement.

310
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a patient with cyclic fevers and conjunctival injection, and what is the treatment?

A

The likely diagnosis is Trench Fever. Treatment includes 28 days of oral doxycycline plus 14 days of IV gentamicin, or a 4-6 week course of oral doxycycline, erythromycin, or azithromycin for uncomplicated cases.

311
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient with angiomatous lesions and hepatomegaly, and what is the management?

A

The diagnosis is Bacillary Angiomatosis. Management involves erythromycin or doxycycline for 3 or more months, with combination therapy for severe cases.

312
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient with HIV presenting with subcutaneous nodules and hyperkeratotic plaques?

A

The diagnosis is Bacillary Angiomatosis. Treatment involves erythromycin or doxycycline for 3 or more months, with combination therapy for severe cases.

313
Q

What is the vector for Trench Fever and how is it transmitted?

A

The vector for Trench Fever is the human body louse (Pediculus humanus). Transmission occurs via louse feces inoculated into the skin through scratching.

314
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient with subcutaneous nodules and hyperkeratotic plaques?

A

The diagnosis is Bacillary Angiomatosis.

315
Q

What is the treatment for Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

Treatment involves erythromycin or doxycycline for 3 or more months, with combination therapy for severe cases.

316
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a patient with angiomatous lesions and splenomegaly?

A

The likely diagnosis is Bacillary Angiomatosis.

317
Q

What complications should you monitor for in Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

Complications to monitor for include peliosis hepatis, splenic peliosis, and culture-negative endocarditis.

318
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a patient with cyclic fevers and conjunctival injection?

A

The likely diagnosis is Trench Fever.

319
Q

What is the treatment for Trench Fever?

A

Treatment includes 28 days of oral doxycycline plus 14 days of IV gentamicin, or a 4-6 week course of oral doxycycline, erythromycin, or azithromycin for uncomplicated cases.

320
Q

What is the recommended management for uncomplicated Bacillary Angiomatosis in immunocompromised patients?

A

The management for uncomplicated Bacillary Angiomatosis includes:

  1. Erythromycin or doxycycline for 3 or more months.
  2. Alternatives include Azithromycin and clarithromycin.
  3. Severe cases may require combination therapy with erythromycin or doxycycline plus a rifamycin, and intravenous therapy may be needed initially.
321
Q

What are the typical cutaneous findings associated with Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

The typical cutaneous findings include:

  • Characteristic lesion: reddish-purple, angiomatous papule approximately 1 cm in diameter.
  • Lesion may be nodular or pedunculated.
  • Surface is smooth or verrucous and may ulcerate and occasionally bleed.
  • Less common variants include subcutaneous nodules and hyperkeratotic plaques.
322
Q

What laboratory tests are used to diagnose Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

The laboratory tests include:

  1. Skin biopsy for histology, Warthin-Starry staining, and PCR.
  2. IFA (Immunofluorescence Assay) may also be used.
323
Q

What are the non-cutaneous findings associated with Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

Non-cutaneous findings may include:

  • Peliosis hepatis: Symptoms include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly.
  • Splenic peliosis: Symptoms include thrombocytopenia and pancytopenia.
324
Q

What imaging findings are associated with peliosis hepatis in Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

Imaging findings include:

  • Abdominal CT shows organomegaly and scattered hypodense lesions.
  • Radiographs may reveal lytic lesions with cortical destruction and periosteal reaction.
325
Q

What are the primary clinical features of Oroya fever?

A

Oroya fever is characterized by:
- Acute bacteremic syndrome
- Hemolytic anemia
- Associated increase in opportunistic infections.

326
Q

What is the causative agent of Carrion disease and its known reservoirs?

A

The causative agent is Bartonella bacilliformis. The only known reservoirs are humans.

327
Q

What are the management options for uncomplicated Oroya fever?

A

First-line treatment options include:
1. Ciprofloxacin
2. Combination therapy with chloramphenicol and a -lactam for 14 days.

328
Q

What complications can arise during the hemolytic phase of Oroya fever?

A

During the hemolytic phase, patients are predisposed to infections by opportunistic pathogens such as Salmonella spp., Shigella dysenteriae, and others.

329
Q

What is the typical incubation period for Oroya fever?

A

The incubation period is typically 60 days, with a range of 1 to 30 weeks.

330
Q

What is the clinical course and management of Carrion Disease?

A

Carrion Disease includes Oroya fever and verruga peruana. Management involves ciprofloxacin or chloramphenicol with a β-lactam for Oroya fever, and rifampicin or alternatives for verruga peruana.

331
Q

What are the two main diseases included in Carrion disease?

A

The two main diseases are Oroya fever and verruga peruana.

332
Q

What is the typical duration for lesions of verruga peruana to erupt?

A

Lesions may erupt over a course of 3 to 6 months, but they may continue to appear for years if left untreated.

333
Q

What laboratory test is used to identify B. bacilliformis?

A

Inspecting Giemsa-stained blood smear for blue-colored intraerythrocytic or extraerythrocytic bacilli.

334
Q

What is the role of Warthin-Starry or Giemsa stains in Carrion disease?

A

To visualize Bartonella, which may be found as intracellular inclusions and free organisms in the extracellular matrix.

335
Q

What are the key epidemiological features of Carrion disease?

A

Carrion disease includes Oroya fever and verruga peruana, typically found in the Andean valleys of Peru, Colombia, and Ecuador. The causative agent is B. bacilliformis, and the vector is the sand fly (L. verrucarum).

336
Q

What are the cutaneous findings associated with Oroya fever and verruga peruana?

A

Oroya fever is associated with:
- Acute bacteremic syndrome
- Hemolytic anemia
- Increased risk of opportunistic infections.

Verruga peruana appears 2 months to several years after Oroya fever, characterized by eruptive crops of angiomatous nodular lesions.

337
Q

What are the non-cutaneous findings and complications associated with Carrion disease?

A

Non-cutaneous findings include:
- Prodrome: fever, chills, malaise, headache, anorexia, myalgias, arthralgias.
- Rapid deterioration with pallor, jaundice, dyspnea, confusion, and severe hemolytic anemia.

338
Q

What laboratory tests are used for diagnosing Carrion disease?

A

Diagnosis involves:
- Giemsa-stained blood smear to identify B. bacilliformis.
- Blood cultures showing positive results within 2 to 4 weeks during the acute phase.

339
Q

What is the management protocol for treating Oroya fever and verruga peruana?

A

Management includes:
- First-line treatment for uncomplicated Oroya fever: ciprofloxacin or combination therapy with chloramphenicol and a-lactam for 14 days.
- For severe disease: ciprofloxacin plus ceftriaxone.

340
Q

What is the diagnosis for a traveler returning from Peru with severe hemolytic anemia and angiomatous nodular lesions?

A

The diagnosis is Carrion Disease, including Oroya fever and verruga peruana.

341
Q

What complications should you monitor for in a patient with Carrion Disease?

A

Complications to monitor for include opportunistic infections like Salmonella, Shigella, and disseminated histoplasmosis during the hemolytic phase of Oroya fever.

342
Q

What diagnostic tests would you perform for a patient with fever, hemolytic anemia, and angiomatous lesions?

A

Diagnostic tests include Giemsa-stained blood smear, blood cultures during the acute phase, and skin biopsy with Warthin-Starry or Giemsa stains.

343
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient with fever, jaundice, and hemolytic anemia?

A

The diagnosis is Oroya fever, a phase of Carrion Disease.

344
Q

What are the key epidemiological features of Carrion disease?

A

Carrion disease includes Oroya fever and verruga peruana, typically found in the Andean valleys of Peru, Colombia, and Ecuador. The causative agent is Bartonella bacilliformis, and the vector is the sand fly (Lutzomyia verrucarum).

345
Q

What are the clinical manifestations and complications associated with Oroya fever?

A

Oroya fever presents with acute bacteremic syndrome, hemolytic anemia, and increased risk of opportunistic infections.

346
Q

What laboratory tests are used to diagnose Oroya fever?

A

Diagnosis involves Giemsa-stained blood smear, blood cultures collected during the acute phase, and skin biopsy using Warthin-Starry or Giemsa stains.

347
Q

What is the management protocol for treating uncomplicated Oroya fever?

A

First-line treatment includes ciprofloxacin or combination therapy with chloramphenicol and a-lactam for 14 days.

348
Q

What is the prognosis for patients with Oroya fever when treated with antibiotics?

A

When treated with antibiotics, the mortality rate is less than 10%.

349
Q

What are the classic cutaneous manifestations of enteric fever?

A

The classic cutaneous manifestation is rose spots, which occur in approximately 30% of cases.

350
Q

What are the common non-cutaneous findings associated with enteric fever?

A

Common findings include fever, malaise, anorexia, nausea, myalgias, headache, and abdominal pain.

351
Q

How frequently do enzymes exceed the upper limit of normal?

A

Enzymes frequently exceed the upper limit of normal by 2-3 times.

352
Q

What are the complications associated with enteric fever?

A

Complications of enteric fever can arise in 10% to 15% of patients and include:

353
Q

What is the most frequent complication of enteric fever?

A

GI bleeding: occurs most frequently.

354
Q

What is the most serious complication of enteric fever?

A

Intestinal perforation: the most serious complication, occurring in 1% to 3% of hospitalized patients, usually affecting the ileum.

355
Q

What is the occurrence rate of chronic carrier state in enteric fever?

A

Chronic carrier state: occurs in 1% to 4% of cases.

356
Q

What other complication can occur in some patients with enteric fever?

A

Encephalopathy: can also occur in some patients.

357
Q

How is enteric fever diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis of enteric fever is primarily through laboratory testing, which includes:

358
Q

What is the standard method of diagnosis for enteric fever?

A

Blood cultures: standard mode of diagnosis, positive in 40% to 80% of cases.

359
Q

What is the sensitivity of bone marrow culture in diagnosing enteric fever?

A

Bone marrow culture: more sensitive, positive in 80% to 95% of cases even after several days of antibiotics; however, it is invasive and reserved for complicated cases.

360
Q

What is the epidemiology of enteric fever caused by Salmonella?

A

The epidemiology of enteric fever caused by Salmonella includes:

361
Q

How many cases of enteric fever occur worldwide each year?

A

Approximately 13.5 million cases worldwide each year, with the greatest prevalence among children and young adults.

362
Q

In which regions is enteric fever endemic?

A

Endemic in many developing countries, especially in resource-poor areas with overcrowding and inadequate sanitation.

363
Q

Which regions have the greatest density of enteric fever cases?

A

Regions with the greatest density of disease include southcentral and southeastern Asia and areas of southern Africa.

364
Q

Who are the hosts of Salmonella typhi?

A

Humans are the only hosts of S. typhi, which is the most frequent cause of enteric fever, while S. paratyphi A is responsible for a growing portion of disease in multiple Asian countries.

365
Q

What are the diagnostic methods for Enteric Fever caused by Salmonella?

A

Enteric Fever is diagnosed using blood cultures (positive in 40-80% of cases) or bone marrow cultures (positive in 80-95% of cases, even after antibiotics). Serologic tests may identify chronic carriers.

366
Q

What are the complications of Enteric Fever and their management?

A

Complications include GI bleeding, intestinal perforation, encephalopathy, and chronic carrier state. Management involves antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, azithromycin, or ceftriaxone, with surgical intervention for perforation.

367
Q

What are the two major clinical syndromes caused by Salmonella?

A

Enteric fever and gastroenteritis.

368
Q

What is the classic cause of enteric fever?

A

Salmonella enterica subsp. enterica serovar Typhi (Salmonella typhi).

369
Q

What is the estimated number of cases of enteric fever worldwide each year?

A

Approximately 13.5 million cases.

370
Q

What are rose spots in the context of enteric fever?

A

Classic cutaneous manifestation presenting several days after the onset of symptoms, occurring in approximately 30% of cases.

371
Q

What is the most serious complication of enteric fever?

A

Intestinal perforation, occurring in 1% to 3% of hospitalized patients.

372
Q

How is enteric fever primarily acquired?

A

By ingesting contaminated water or food, usually while traveling or residing in developing countries.

373
Q

What laboratory test is the standard mode of diagnosis for enteric fever?

A

Blood cultures.

374
Q

What is the sensitivity of bone marrow culture in diagnosing enteric fever?

A

Positive in 80% to 95% of cases even after several days of antibiotics.

375
Q

What are some non-cutaneous findings associated with enteric fever?

A

Fever, malaise, anorexia, nausea, myalgias, and abdominal pain.

376
Q

What is the role of macrophages in the pathogenesis of Salmonella infections?

A

Bacteria infiltrate tissue macrophages of the liver, spleen, and bone marrow, which may serve as sources for infection relapse.

377
Q

What are the classic cutaneous manifestations of enteric fever and their characteristics?

A

The classic cutaneous manifestation of enteric fever is rose spots, which present several days following the onset of symptoms. They occur in approximately 30% of cases and are more likely to be observed in patients where antibiotic treatment has been delayed. Characteristics include:
- Asymptomatic, blanching, erythematous to pale-pink papules
- Usually found on the abdomen, chest, or back
- Occur in crops that fade over 3 to 5 days.

378
Q

What are the common non-cutaneous findings associated with enteric fever?

A

Common non-cutaneous findings associated with enteric fever include:
1. Fever: Initially low, rising in a stepwise fashion, often reaching 39°C to 40°C (102.2°F to 104°F) with relative bradycardia.
2. Malaise, anorexia, nausea, myalgias, headache.
3. Abdominal pain and either diarrhea or constipation (diarrhea is common in children and HIV patients, while constipation is more likely in adults).
4. Physical exam findings: Abdominal tenderness, hepatosplenomegaly.
5. Neurological symptoms: Intermittent confusion or apathy, and convulsions in young children.
6. Hematological changes: Reduced white cell counts, hemoglobin, and platelets; liver enzymes frequently 2-3 times the upper limit.

379
Q

What are the potential complications of enteric fever and their clinical significance?

A

Complications of enteric fever can arise in 10% to 15% of patients and include:
- GI bleeding: Occurs most frequently.
- Intestinal perforation: The most serious complication, occurring in 1% to 3% of hospitalized patients, usually affecting the ileum. It may present overtly as an acute abdomen or subtly with worsening abdominal pain, rising heart rate, and falling blood pressure.
- Chronic carrier state: Occurs in 1% to 4% of cases, which can lead to ongoing transmission of the disease.
- Encephalopathy: A rare but serious complication that can affect neurological function.

380
Q

How does Salmonella enterica cause enteric fever and what are the pathways for its entry into the body?

A

Salmonella enterica causes enteric fever primarily through ingestion of contaminated water or food, especially while traveling or residing in developing countries. The pathways for its entry into the body include:
1. Entry via M cells: These are antigen-presenting cells associated with lymphoid tissue throughout the gut.
2. Uptake by epithelial cells: This is mediated by the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein, which is mutated in cystic fibrosis.

381
Q

What laboratory tests are used for diagnosing enteric fever and their effectiveness?

A

The primary laboratory tests for diagnosing enteric fever include:
- Blood cultures: This is the most effective method for confirming the diagnosis.

382
Q

What are blood cultures?

A

Blood cultures are the standard mode of diagnosis for enteric fever, with a positive result in 40% to 80% of cases.

383
Q

What are bone marrow cultures?

A

Bone marrow cultures are more sensitive, with a positive result in 80% to 95% of cases even after several days of antibiotics. However, it is invasive and reserved for complicated cases.

384
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a patient with fever, abdominal pain, and rose spots?

A

The likely diagnosis is Enteric Fever caused by Salmonella.

First-line treatment includes antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, azithromycin, or ceftriaxone.

385
Q

What complications might arise from Enteric Fever?

A

Complications include GI bleeding, intestinal perforation, encephalopathy, and chronic carrier state.

386
Q

What laboratory tests would you perform to confirm the diagnosis of Enteric Fever?

A

Laboratory tests include blood cultures (positive in 40-80% of cases) and bone marrow cultures (positive in 80-95% of cases, even after antibiotics).

387
Q

What is the treatment for Enteric Fever in a traveler from South Asia?

A

Treatment involves azithromycin or ceftriaxone, as ciprofloxacin is no longer recommended as first-line empirical treatment due to rising resistance in South Asia.

388
Q

What imaging findings would you expect in a patient with fever, abdominal pain, and hepatosplenomegaly?

A

Imaging may reveal hepatosplenomegaly and scattered hypodense lesions in the liver or spleen on abdominal CT.

389
Q

What is the pathogenesis of the likely condition in a patient presenting with fever, abdominal pain, and rose spots?

A

The pathogenesis involves Salmonella breaching the intestinal epithelium, replicating in the submucosa, and disseminating via the blood and lymphatic system, leading to systemic infection.

390
Q

What laboratory tests would you perform to confirm Enteric Fever?

A

Laboratory tests include blood cultures (positive in 40-80% of cases) and bone marrow cultures (positive in 80-95% of cases, even after antibiotics).

391
Q

What is the treatment for a traveler from South Asia presenting with fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea, considering regional resistance patterns?

A

Treatment involves azithromycin or ceftriaxone, as ciprofloxacin is no longer recommended as first-line empiric treatment due to rising resistance in South Asia.

392
Q

What are the classic cutaneous manifestations of enteric fever and their characteristics?

A

The classic cutaneous manifestation of enteric fever is rose spots, which present several days following the onset of symptoms.

393
Q

What percentage of cases experience symptoms following the onset?

A

Approximately 30% of cases experience symptoms following the onset.

394
Q

In which patients are symptoms more likely to be observed?

A

Symptoms are more likely to be observed in patients where antibiotic treatment has been delayed.

395
Q

What are the characteristics of the symptoms?

A

Characteristics include:
- Asymptomatic, blanching, erythematous to pale-pink papules
- Usually found on the abdomen, chest, or back
- Occur in crops that fade over 3 to 5 days.

396
Q

What are the common non-cutaneous findings associated with enteric fever?

A

Common non-cutaneous findings include:
1. Fever: Initially low, rising in a stepwise fashion, often reaching 39°C to 40°C (102.2°F to 104°F) with relative bradycardia.
2. Gastrointestinal symptoms: Abdominal pain, diarrhea (common in children and HIV patients), or constipation (more likely in adults).
3. Physical exam findings: Abdominal tenderness, hepatosplenomegaly.
4. Neurological symptoms: Intermittent confusion or apathy, and convulsions in young children.
5. Hematological changes: Reduced white cell counts, hemoglobin, and platelets; liver enzymes frequently 2-3 times the upper limit of normal.

397
Q

What are the potential complications of enteric fever and their prevalence?

A

Complications arise in 10% to 15% of patients and include:
- GI bleeding: Occurs most frequently.
- Intestinal perforation: The most serious complication, occurring in 1% to 3% of hospitalized patients, usually affecting the ileum.
- Chronic carrier state: Occurs in 1% to 4% of cases.
- Encephalopathy: A rare but serious complication.

398
Q

How does Salmonella enterica cause enteric fever and what are the pathways for its entry into the body?

A

Salmonella enterica causes enteric fever through ingestion, typically via contaminated food or water.

399
Q

How does Salmonella enterica cause enteric fever?

A

Salmonella enterica causes enteric fever primarily through ingestion of contaminated water or food, especially while traveling or residing in developing countries.

400
Q

What are the pathways for Salmonella enterica’s entry into the body?

A

The pathways for its entry into the body include:

  1. Entry via M cells: Antigen-presenting cells associated with lymphoid tissue throughout the gut.
  2. Uptake by epithelial cells: Mediated by the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein, which is mutated in cystic fibrosis.
401
Q

What happens once Salmonella enterica is inside the body?

A

Once inside, bacteria replicate in the submucosa and can cause hypertrophy of Peyer’s patches, leading to systemic infection.

402
Q

What laboratory tests are used for diagnosing enteric fever?

A

Laboratory tests for diagnosing enteric fever include:

  • Blood cultures: Standard mode of diagnosis, positive in 40% to 80% of cases.
  • Bone marrow culture: More sensitive, positive in 80% to 95% of cases even after several days of antibiotics; however, it is invasive and reserved for complicated cases.
403
Q

What are the phases of Rhinoscleroma caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis?

A

Rhinoscleroma progresses through three phases:

  1. Atrophic (nasal blockage and foul-smelling discharge)
  2. Proliferative (granulomatous nodules and nasal deformity)
  3. Cicatricial (extensive sclerosis).
404
Q

What are the diagnostic features of Rhinoscleroma?

A

Diagnosis involves isolating K. rhinoscleromatis from cultures, identifying Mikulicz cells in biopsied tissue, and using Warthin-Starry silver stain or CD68 immunostaining to visualize the bacteria.

405
Q

What symptoms might a patient with Rhinoscleroma present?

A

A patient with a history of nasal blockage and foul-smelling discharge develops granulomatous nodules and nasal deformity.

406
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient with granulomatous nodules and nasal deformity?

A

The diagnosis is Rhinoscleroma caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis.

407
Q

What are the histological findings that would confirm the diagnosis of Rhinoscleroma?

A

Histological findings include Mikulicz cells (vacuolated histiocytes containing bacteria) and Russell bodies, visualized with Warthin-Starry silver stain or PAS staining.

408
Q

What symptoms does a patient with Rhinoscleroma present with?

A

A patient presents with nasal obstruction and purulent discharge.

409
Q

What is the treatment for Rhinoscleroma?

A

Treatment involves prolonged antibiotic therapy with tetracycline, rifampicin, or ciprofloxacin, combined with surgical correction of airway obstructions.

410
Q

What imaging findings would you expect in a patient with nasal deformity and granulomatous nodules?

A

Imaging may show nonenhancing homogeneous soft-tissue masses with nodular deformity.

411
Q

How would you confirm the diagnosis of Rhinoscleroma?

A

Confirmation involves identifying Mikulicz cells in biopsied tissue and isolating K. rhinoscleromatis from cultures.

412
Q

What are the three phases of Rhinoscleroma, and how do they manifest?

A

The three phases of Rhinoscleroma are: atrophic (nasal blockage and foul-smelling discharge), proliferative (granulomatous nodules and nasal deformity), and cicatricial (extensive sclerosis).

413
Q

How would you confirm the diagnosis in a patient with nasal deformity and granulomatous nodules?

A

Confirmation involves identifying Mikulicz cells in biopsied tissue and isolating K. rhinoscleromatis from cultures.

414
Q

What type of organism is Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Haemophilus influenzae is a fastidious, Gram-negative coccobacillus that grows on chocolate agar and requires hemin (factor X) and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (factor V) for growth.

415
Q

What are the typical clinical features of Hib facial cellulitis in children?

A

Typical Hib facial cellulitis in children includes:

  1. Age: 3 to 24 months
  2. Usually follows a mild upper respiratory tract infection
  3. Symptoms: high fever, irritability, and unilateral facial swelling
  4. Affected area: warm, edematous, and erythematous, often with a violaceous hue.
416
Q

What is the significance of bacteremia in Hib cellulitis cases?

A

Hib cellulitis is frequently associated with bacteremia, with positive blood cultures found in approximately 75% of patients. This indicates a systemic infection that may require more aggressive management.

417
Q

What diagnostic methods are used to confirm Hib cellulitis and rule out other organisms?

A

To confirm Hib cellulitis, the following diagnostic methods are used:

  1. Culture of the affected area to identify the organism.
  2. Ruling out other common organisms, including streptococci and staphylococci.
418
Q

What are the management options for Hib cellulitis?

A

The management of Hib cellulitis typically involves the use of third-generation cephalosporins, such as ceftriaxone or cefotaxime, which are considered the drugs of choice.

419
Q

What are the clinical features and management of cellulitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Hib cellulitis presents with high fever, irritability, and unilateral facial swelling with a violaceous hue, often following an upper respiratory infection. Management involves third-generation cephalosporins like ceftriaxone or cefotaxime.

420
Q

What type of organism is Haemophilus influenzae?

A

It is a fastidious, Gram-negative coccobacillus.

421
Q

What infections are associated with Hib?

A

Meningitis, epiglottitis, and cellulitis, especially facial cellulitis in children.

422
Q

What age group is typically affected by Hib facial cellulitis?

A

Children between 3 and 24 months of age.

423
Q

What are common symptoms of Hib facial cellulitis?

A

High fever, irritability, and unilateral facial swelling, especially in the buccal or periorbital region.

424
Q

What is the appearance of the affected area in Hib facial cellulitis?

A

Warm, edematous, and erythematous, classically with a violaceous hue.

425
Q

What is the significance of positive blood cultures in Hib cellulitis?

A

They are found in 75% of patients, indicating frequent association with bacteremia.

426
Q

What is the management of Hib cellulitis?

A

Third-generation cephalosporins, such as ceftriaxone or cefotaxime, are the drugs of choice.

427
Q

What diagnostic method has been discontinued for Hib cellulitis?

A

Lumbar puncture has been discontinued as a practice for diagnosis.

428
Q

What diagnostic method has been discontinued for Hib cellulitis?

A

Lumbars puncture.

Lumbars puncture has been discontinued as a practice for diagnosis.

429
Q

What culture is performed to rule out other organisms in Hib cellulitis?

A

Culture of the affected area to rule out streptococci and staphylococci.

430
Q

What are the typical clinical features of Hib facial cellulitis in children?

A

Typical Hib facial cellulitis presents in children between 3 and 24 months of age, usually following a mild upper respiratory tract infection. Patients rapidly develop:
1. High fever
2. Irritability
3. Unilateral facial swelling, especially in the buccal or periorbital region
4. The affected area is warm, edematous, and erythematous, classically with a violaceous hue.

431
Q

What diagnostic methods are used to confirm Hib cellulitis and rule out other organisms?

A

To confirm Hib cellulitis, the following diagnostic methods are used:
1. Culture of the affected area - to rule out other common organisms, including streptococci and staphylococci.
2. Blood cultures - positive in approximately 75% of patients with Hib cellulitis.

432
Q

What is the management protocol for Hib cellulitis, particularly regarding antibiotic choice?

A

The management protocol for Hib cellulitis includes the use of third-generation cephalosporins. The drugs of choice are:
- Ceftriaxone
- Cefotaxime.

433
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a child presenting with unilateral facial swelling and a violaceous hue following an upper respiratory tract infection?

A

The likely diagnosis is cellulitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae.

434
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a child presenting with fever, irritability, and unilateral facial swelling?

A

The likely diagnosis is cellulitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae.

435
Q

What is the management for cellulitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Management involves third-generation cephalosporins like ceftriaxone or cefotaxime.

436
Q

What additional tests would you perform for a child with fever, irritability, and a violaceous hue on the face?

A

Additional tests include culture of the affected area to rule out other organisms like streptococci and staphylococci.

437
Q

What is the pathogenesis of cellulitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae?

A

The pathogenesis involves Haemophilus influenzae entering the bloodstream, leading to bacteremia and cellulitis, often with a violaceous hue.

438
Q

What are the typical clinical features of Hib facial cellulitis in children?

A

Typical clinical features of Hib facial cellulitis include:
- Age group: Children between 3 and 24 months
- Preceding condition: Usually follows a mild upper respiratory tract infection
- Symptoms:
- Rapid onset of high fever
- Irritability
- Unilateral facial swelling, particularly in the buccal or periorbital region
- Affected area: Warm, edematous, and erythematous, often with a violaceous hue

439
Q

What diagnostic methods are used to confirm Hib cellulitis and rule out other organisms?

A

To confirm Hib cellulitis and rule out other organisms, the following diagnostic methods are used:
1. Culture of the affected area: This helps identify the presence of Hib and rule out other common organisms such as streptococci and staphylococci.
2. Blood cultures: Positive blood cultures are found in approximately 75% of patients with Hib cellulitis.

Lumbar puncture has been discontinued as a practice for diagnosis in this context.

440
Q

What is the recommended management for Hib cellulitis, and which antibiotics are considered the drugs of choice?

A

The recommended management for Hib cellulitis includes:
- Antibiotic therapy: Third-generation cephalosporins are the drugs of choice, specifically:
- Ceftriaxone
- Cefotaxime

These antibiotics are effective in treating the infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae.

441
Q

What are the common diseases caused by Bartonella species and their associated vectors?

A
  1. Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)
    • Species: Bartonella henselae
    • Vector: Cat flea (Ctenocephalides felis)
  2. Trench Fever
    • Species: Bartonella quintana
    • Vector: Human body louse (Pediculus humanus)
  3. Bacillary Angiomatosis
    • Species: Bartonella henselae
    • Vector: Cat flea (Ctenocephalides felis)
  4. Carrion’s Disease
    • Species: Bartonella bacilliformis
    • Vector: Sand fly (Lutzomyia verrucarum)
442
Q

What are the laboratory tests used for diagnosing diseases caused by Bartonella species?

A
  1. Serology: Indirect fluorescent antibody assay.
  2. PCR: Polymerase chain reaction to identify species.
  3. Blood culture: May identify organism, but cultures usually negative.
443
Q

What are the treatment options for Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A
  • Mild to moderate cases: No treatment recommended.
  • Severe cases: Consideration of:
    1. Azithromycin: 5 days.
    2. Doxycycline: 14 days.
    3. Rifampin: 14 days or streptomycin.
444
Q

What are the clinical features of Carrion’s Disease?

A
  • Symptoms develop after 40 days of incubation:
    • Initial symptoms: Fever, headache, malaise, myalgias.
    • Later symptoms: Severe hemolytic anemia with jaundice, splenomegaly, and generalized lymphadenopathy.
    • Lesions resembling bacillary angiomatosis may develop 2 months later.
445
Q

What is the vector for Carrion disease caused by Bartonella bacilliformis?

A

Lutzomyia verrucarum (sand fly).

446
Q

What is Lutzomyia verrucarum?

A

It is a type of sand fly.

447
Q

What are the common symptoms of Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A

Fever, chills, malaise, headache, weight loss, and regional swelling of lymph nodes.

448
Q

What laboratory test is used to diagnose Bartonella infections?

A

Serology using indirect fluorescent antibody assay or PCR.

449
Q

What is the typical treatment course for Trench fever caused by Bartonella quintana?

A

Doxycycline or erythromycin for 7 days.

450
Q

What is a common complication of Bacillary angiomatosis?

A

Severe hemolytic anemia with jaundice and generalized lymphadenopathy.

451
Q

What is the reservoir for Bartonella henselae, the causative agent of Cat Scratch Disease?

A

Cats.

452
Q

What is the incubation period for Carrion disease?

A

Approximately 40 days.

453
Q

What is a key characteristic of the symptoms of Trench fever?

A

Fever of 5 to 20 days’ duration accompanied by severe headache and myalgias.

454
Q

What is the prognosis for untreated cases of Bacillary angiomatosis?

A

It can be life-threatening.

455
Q

What are the key clinical features and laboratory tests associated with Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A

Clinical Features:
- Erythema nodosum or papules at inoculation site
- Fever, chills, malaise, headache, weight loss, and regional lymphadenopathy

Laboratory Tests:
- Serology (indirect fluorescent antibody assay)
- PCR may identify organism
- Cultures usually negative.

456
Q

Describe the treatment options for Trench Fever and the expected course of the disease.

A

Treatment Options:
- Doxycycline or erythromycin for 14 days

Course of Disease:
- Symptoms may resolve in 1 to 3 weeks, but relapses can occur. Severe cases may require hospitalization.

457
Q

What are the common laboratory tests?

A

Common laboratory tests include serology and PCR.

458
Q

What are the common laboratory tests for diagnosing Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A
  1. Blood smear with Giemsa stain to reveal the presence of bacilli.
  2. Biopsy of skin lesions for diagnostic confirmation.
459
Q

What is the significance of the laboratory tests for Bacillary Angiomatosis?

A

These tests help confirm the diagnosis of Bacillary Angiomatosis, which is crucial for appropriate management.

460
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Carrion Disease?

A

After 10-40 days of incubation, symptoms include fever, chills, malaise, headache, and myalgias. Severe hemolytic anemia with jaundice and generalized lymphadenopathy may develop.

461
Q

What are the treatment options for Carrion Disease?

A

Supportive care and antibiotics (e.g., doxycycline or streptomycin) for 14 to 21 days.

462
Q

What are the key clinical features associated with Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A
  1. Erythema nodosum or inoculation site papules.
  2. Fever, chills, malaise, headache, weight loss, and regional lymphadenopathy.
463
Q

What laboratory tests are associated with Cat Scratch Disease (CSD)?

A
  1. Serology: Indirect fluorescent antibody assay.
  2. PCR may identify organism.
  3. Cultures usually negative.
464
Q

What are the treatment options for patients diagnosed with Trench Fever?

A

Course of antibiotics (e.g., doxycycline or erythromycin).

465
Q

What is the prognosis for Trench Fever?

A

Generally self-limiting, but may require supportive care for severe cases. Lymphadenopathy may persist for several weeks.

466
Q

What are the symptoms associated with Carrion Disease?

A

After 10-40 days of incubation, symptoms include fever, chills.

467
Q

What are the symptoms after 10-40 days of incubation?

A

Symptoms include fever, chills, malaise, headache, and myalgias.

468
Q

What is a severe symptom associated with Bartonella species infections?

A

Severe hemolytic anemia with jaundice and generalized lymphadenopathy.

469
Q

What might a blood smear show in Bartonella infections?

A

Blood smear may show bacilli.

470
Q

What is the treatment for uncomplicated cases of Bartonella infections?

A

Supportive care.

471
Q

What is the treatment for severe cases of Bartonella infections?

A

Doxycycline or streptomycin for 14 to 21 days.

472
Q

What are the vectors and reservoirs for Bartonella species infections?

A

Vectors and reservoirs include:

Species | Vector | Reservoir |
|————————————-|——————————————|———–|
| Bartonella bacilliformis | Lutzomyia verrucarum (sand fly) | Human |
| Bartonella henselae | Ctenocephalides felis (cat flea) | Cat |
| Bartonella quintana | Pediculus humanus (human louse) | Human |

473
Q

How do vectors relate to disease transmission in Bartonella infections?

A

Each vector is responsible for transmitting specific Bartonella species, leading to distinct diseases in their respective reservoirs.