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Y4 OPIC- Romas > 14 - Vertical Themes > Flashcards

14 - Vertical Themes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of screening?

A

Trying to find people at risk of a disease that are otherwise healthy

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2
Q

What is the difference between primary, secondary and tertiary prevention and give some examples of screening programmes that are aiming to achieve each?

A

Primary: cervical smear, antenatal, genetic, Q risk

Secondary:

Tertiary: Diabetic retinopathy screening, diabetic foot

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3
Q

What are the different populations that can be used for screening?

A
  • Mass e.g NIPE
  • Selective e.g sickle cell
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4
Q

What are the advantages of screening?

A
  • Reassurance
  • Reduce morbidity and mortality
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5
Q

What are the disadvantages of screening?

A
  • False negatives and false positives
  • Inverse care law
  • Expensive
  • Overtreatment
  • Lead and length time bias
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6
Q

What conditions does a screening programme need to fulfil to be treatable?

A

Disease, Test, Treatment, Programme, Implementation

Disease

  • Must be serious
  • Must be treatable
  • Must have known disease progression
  • All primary prevention strategies should have been implemented

Test

  • Simple and safe
  • Should be acceptable to target population
  • Clear diagnostic investigation
  • Sensitivity and specificity must be known

Treatment

  • Should be beneficial to have early treatment
  • Must have treatment available
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7
Q

What is sensitivity and how do you work it out?

A

Low false negatives

True +ve/No with disease

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8
Q

What is specificity and how do you work it out?

A

Low false positives

True negatives / No without disease

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9
Q

What is positive and negative predictive value?

A

Higher prevalence higher PPV

When patient with high risk result asks the likelihood of them actually having the disease

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10
Q

What is the difference between lead and length time bias?

A

Lead: early detection confused with increased survival

Length: screening picks up cancers with long latency period so these naturally have better survival

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11
Q

What are the five national screening programmes?

A
  • Bowel cancer
  • Antenatal
  • Cervical cancer
  • AAA
  • Breast cancer
  • Diabetic retinopathy and foot disease
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12
Q

How much screening is done antenatally?

A
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13
Q

How much screening is done neonatally?

A
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14
Q

What is infant mortality rate?

A
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15
Q

Why has infant mortality improved overtime?

A
  • Less crowding
  • Vaccination
  • Sanitation
  • Nutrition
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16
Q

Why did neonatal deaths improve in 1990’s?

A

Back to Sleep programme

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17
Q

What is the biggest risk factor with neonatal deaths?

A

Low birth weight

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18
Q

How can we prevent perinatal mortality worldwide?

A
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19
Q

What are some causes of maternal death?

A
  • SUDEP
  • Underlying cardiac issues
  • VTE
  • Mental health
  • Post partum haemorraghe
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20
Q

What makes up an FBC?

A

Have to ask for reticulocytes as an add on

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21
Q

What is included in a basic clotting screen?

A

Always needs to do platelet count with it so do FBC as well

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22
Q

What questions do you need to ask yourself once you know somebody is anaemic?

A
  • Reticulocyte count
  • MCV
  • Blood film
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23
Q

What are some causes of DIC?

A

Sepsis

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24
Q

What are some causes of DIC in pregnancy?

A
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25
Q

What are some common haematological changes in pregnancy?

A
  • Anaemia
  • Macrocytic red cells
  • Neutrophilia
  • Low B12 measurements (even if not truly deficient) in 20%
  • Thrombocytopenia
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26
Q

How is VTE in pregnancy diagnosed and managed?

A
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27
Q

What are some reasons to give LMWH prophylactically in pregnancy?

A
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28
Q

What are some causes of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy and how is this managed?

A
  • Monthly FBC until 28 weeks, then fortnightly
  • Consider risk of neonatal thrombocytopenia (and consequent bleeding)
  • Consider risks of eg foetal blood sampling, instrumental delivery, epidurals!!
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29
Q

What is the likely diagnosis?

A
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30
Q

How can we tackle poor vaccine uptake in india?

A
  • Political involvement
  • NGO involvement
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31
Q

What is the second victim recovery process? (6 steps)

A
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32
Q

What is mindfulness?

A

Attention regulation

33
Q

What is the stress performance curve?

A
34
Q

What does utility mean in health economics?

A
  • The effective and efficient use of medical resources (stewardship of resources-see GMC)
  • Choosing groups or individuals most likely to benefit
35
Q

What are some factors involve in utility?

A
36
Q

What adjuncts can help you in the A section of the A to E assessment if an airway is not patent and when would you use each of them?

A

Adequate respiratory effort but obstruction

  • Head tilt chin lift
  • Guedel (measure from angle of jaw to incisors)
  • Nasopharyngeal airway (not in basal skull fracture)
  • Jaw thrust

Inadequate respiratory effort

  • Bag valve mask
  • I-Gel (cardiac arrest)
37
Q

What is septic shock?

A

When sepsis leads to prolonged hypotension and raised lactate despite adequate fluid resuscitation and inotropes

38
Q

What is the ILS algorithm for CPR? (both shockable and non-shockable)

A
  1. Ensure safe
  2. Check pulse and chest for 10 seconds
  3. Call for help and start chest compressions. Call 2222, adult cardiac arrest
  4. Get defibrillator pads on
  5. Airway
  6. Off the chest whilst analysing
  7. Off the chest and oxygen away whilst shocking
  8. Check pulse after each round
39
Q

What is post resuscitation care?

A
40
Q

What are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest?

A

4 H’s

  • Hypoxia
  • Hypo/hyperkalaemia
  • Hypothermia
  • Hypovolemia

4 T’s

  • Thrombosis
  • Tamponade cardiac
  • Toxins
  • Pneumothorax
41
Q

What are the two shockable and two non-shockable rhythms?

A

PEA and Asystole are non-shockable

42
Q

What happens to the energy of shock in CPR?

A

Increases with each shock

43
Q

What drugs can be used in cardiac arrest and when?

A
  • Adrenaline 1mg 1 in 10000 (100 micrograms/mL) after 3rd shock then every other cycle
  • Amiodarone 300mg after 3rd shock, given over 3 minutes
44
Q

What are the two biggest factors that are proven to have good outcomes in CPR?

A
  • Chest compressions
  • Defibrillation
45
Q

What age do children get CT head for suspected NAI?

A

<1 or any neurology

46
Q

How can you diagnose tines capitis?

A
  • Hair plucking
  • Skin scrapings

Often clinical diagnosis though!

Treat with oral terbinafine

47
Q

What can be the source of tines capitis?

A

PETS - treat pets

48
Q

What is a complication of eczema herpeticum?

A
  • Secondary bacterial infection
  • Herpetic keratitis
49
Q

What is the difference between erysipelas and cellulitis?

A

Erysipelas has sharp border, cellulitis is not clear cut

Erysipelas just S.Pyogenes, Cellulitis can be S.Aureus too

Erysipelas usually only on shins and face

50
Q

How do you treat erysipelas?

A

Flucloxacillin, Rest and Elevate legs, Dressings

51
Q

How can you tell this is chickenpox?

A

Varying stages of rash

Usually starts on trunk then goes out to limbs

52
Q

If someone has tines cruris where else should you examine?

A

Toenails!

If they have this they need systemic treatment

53
Q

What are some differentials?

A
  • Tinea cruris
  • Intetrigo
  • Psoriasis
  • Contact dermatitis
54
Q

What is autoimmune encephalitis associated with?

A

Teratomas

55
Q

What are the antibiotics for neonatal sepsis and neonatal meningitis?

A

Sepsis: Benzylpenicillin, Gentamicin

Meningitis: Gentamicin, Cefotaxime, Amoxicillin

56
Q

Who can get involved in an ASD diagnosis?

A
  • CAHMS
  • SALT
  • OT
  • Educational psychologist
57
Q

What are some comorbidities with ASD and some poor prognostic factors?

A

Co-morbidities

  • Fragile X
  • Anxiety
  • Tuberous Sclerosus
  • ADHD
  • Visual and hearing impairments

Poor prognosis

  • No speech by 5 years
  • IQ<50
58
Q

What are some questions to ask when a child presents with chronic constipation?

A
  • Meconium in first 48 hours?
  • PR bleeding?
  • Any incontinence?
  • Any psychosocial changes?
  • Triggers?
59
Q

What are some signs of abuse in the elderly?

A
  • Pressure sores
  • Unkempt
  • Cachexia
  • Not wanting to be left alone with certain family members
  • Depressed
  • Being aggressive for no reason
  • Becoming quiet and withdrawn
60
Q

What are some risks for abuse of the elderly?

A
  • Carer relies on victim e.g home, emotional
  • Memory problems
  • Social isolation
  • Being dependent on carer
  • Poor relationship with carer

REFER TO SOCIAL SERVICES OR DEPARTMENTAL SAFEGUARDING LEAD

61
Q

What are some causes of falls in diabetic patients?

A
  • Polypharmacy
  • Alcohol
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Postural hypotension
62
Q

What should you do after a patient on an Apixiban has a head injury and what is the mechanism of action of Apixaban?

A

Xa Inhibitor

  • Stop anticoagulant
  • Contact near surgeons
  • Contact haematologists about referral
  • Monitor GCS with neurological obs
63
Q

What are the hallucinations in Schnider’s first rank symptoms?

A

3rd person auditory

64
Q

What is essential for diagnosis of anorexia?

A
  • Have to have vomiting, laxatives, diuretics or excessive exercise
65
Q

What are some psychological therapies for anorexic patients?

A
  • MANTRA
  • CBT-ED
  • SSCM
66
Q

What is the pathophysiology of PD and what are some examples of dopamine agonists?

A

Degeneration of dopaminergic neurones in the nigrostriatal pathway so less dopamine in the basal ganglia

Examples: Rotigotine, Bromocriptine, Cabergoline, Apomorphine

67
Q

What could hallucinations in PD be due to?

A
  • Dementia
  • Delirium
68
Q

What are the issues with giving levodopa?

A
  • Progression of PD
  • SEs
  • Freexzing on/off
69
Q

How would you describe this audiogram?

A

Bilateral low-frequency conductive hearing loss

70
Q

How does an adenoidectomy work for OME?

A

Removes the source of infection

71
Q

What advice should you give a patient with BPPV?

A
  • Do not drive whilst symptomatic
  • Hydrate
  • Rest
  • Avoid sudden change in head movement
72
Q

What swab should you do for a patient with PV vaginal discharge that is odorous?

A

HIGH VAGINAL OR ENDOCERVICAL

Only vulvovaginal when not symptomatic

73
Q

Why is azithromycin and ceftriaxone given for N.Gonorrhoeae?

A

Has developed resistance but resistance to both is unlikely

74
Q

What are some poor prognostic factors for breast cancer?

A
  • Large primary tumour
  • Low grade/Poor differentiation
  • Axillary lymph node spread
  • Oestrogen receptor negative
  • HER2 positive
  • BRCA½ positive
  • African/american
  • <35 years at diagnosis
75
Q

What are some red flags for an upper GI endoscopy?

A
  • Dysphagia
  • Persistent vomiting
  • Haematemesis
  • Melaena
  • Abdominal mass
  • Odynophagia
  • Exertional epigastric pain
76
Q

What are some atopic conditions apart from the classical triad?

A
  • Urticaria
  • Conjunctivitis
77
Q

What does lichenification look like and what does it mean?

A

Appearance: Skin thickening, hyperpigmentation, pseudo-papule, ill-defined, plaques

Means: it is chronic and not the first time they have had eczema

78
Q

What are the side effects of topical steroids?

A
  • Excess hair growth
  • Telengectasia
  • Striae
  • Perioral dermatitis

Y4 OPIC- Romas (14 decks)

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