135 Checkride Flashcards

1
Q

What are the vertical and horizontal boundaries of the 200 knot airspeed limitation that exist at the primary airport within class C or D airspace?

A

2500 feet AGL and 4nm (91.117b)

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2
Q

What follow up action is required if you, acting as PIC, declare an emergency with ATC?

A

Send a written report to the administrator upon request. (91.3c)

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3
Q

What minimum weather is required at the destination in order to not have to file an alternate under part 91?

With regards to the previous question, what is the timeframe of that weather?

A

2000 ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility (91.167b2i)

ETA +- 1 hour (91.167)

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4
Q

What minimum weather is required at the destination in order to not have to file an alternate under part 135?

A

ETA +- 1 hour: 1500 feet above the lowest circling approach MDA, or if no circling is authorized for the airport 1500 feet above the lowest straight in minimum or 2000 feet above the airport field elevation whichever is higher and visibility is forecast to be 3sm or 2sm more than the minimums for the approach to be used at that airport. (135.223)

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5
Q

How often must a VOR check be done?

A

Every 30 days (91.171)

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6
Q

135.301 crew member: tests and checks, grace provisions, training to accepted standards.

A

(A) if a crew member who is required to take a test or a flight check under this part, completes the test or flight check in the calendar month before or after the calendar month in which it is required, that crew member is considered to have completed the test or check in the calendar month in which it is required.

(B) if a pilot being checked under this part fail any of the required maneuvers, the person giving the check may give additional training to the pilot during the course of the check. In addition to repeating the maneuvers failed, the person giving the check may require the pilot being checked to repeat any other maneuvers that are necessary to determine the pilots proficiency. If the pilot being checked is unable to demonstrate satisfactory performance to the person conducting the check, the certificate holder may not use the pilot, nor may the pilot serve, as a flight crew member in operations under this part until the pilot has satisfactorily completed the check.

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7
Q

135.299 pilot in command: line checks: routes and airports.

A

Must be done every 12 months
Consist of at least one flight over one route segment by airway or approved off-airway route or portion of either
Include takeoffs and landings at one or more representative airports
Verify that the pilot being checked satisfactorily performs the duties and responsibilities of PIC

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8
Q

135.293 initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements.

A

Must be done every 12 months
Include written or a oral check over: part 61, 91, 135, and the GOM,
Aircraft-power plant, systems, components, appliances, performance and limitation, normal and emergency procedures, and the contents of the AFM
navigation- use of nav aids, ATC, IFR and instrument approach procedures
Meteorology- theory, frontal systems, icing, fog, thunderstorms, windshear and high altitude weather, procedures to recognize and avoid severe weather: low altitude windshear, operating in or near thunderstorms, turbulent air, icing, hail, and other hazardous conditions, new equipment, procedures or techniques as appropriate
Flight check- those maneuvers necessary to determine the pilots competency in each class of aircraft the pilot serves as pilot. Competent performance of procedure or maneuver by a person to be used as pilot requires that pilot be the obvious master of the aircraft, with the successful outcome of the maneuver never in doubt.
The competency check may include any of the maneuvers and procedures currently required for the original issuance of the particular pilot certificate required for the operations authorized and appropriate to the category, class and type of aircraft involved.
The instrument proficiency check required by 135.297 may be substituted for the competency check required by this section for the type of aircraft used in the check.
The administrator or authorized check pilot certifies the competency of each pilot who passes the knowledge or flight check in the certificate holders pilot records.

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9
Q

Check ride guidelines DOs and DONTs

A

No planned simulated work below 500 feet AGL unless established on a stabilized final approach
No planned simulated single engine work in actual IMC
sIngle engine (simulated) go-around is allowed if initiated by 500 feet AGL.
No actual single engine operations are to be conducted
No simulated single engine operations are to be conducted in mountainous terrain or at airports with substantial obstacles regardless of airport elevation
In case of an unplanned actual go-around use power to both engines
Vision restriction devices will be used for all instrument procedures on instrument proficiency check rides conducted in the aircraft, including stalls, steep turns, unusual attitudes.
Commercially available vision restriction devices are acceptable provided the device does not limit the vision of the check airmen. The use of pillows, charts taped to windows, or other methods that could jeopardize safety are not acceptable.
Stalls, steep turns and unusual attitudes are to be done at no less than 5,000ft MSL or 5,000ft AGL, whichever is higher, but no higher than 15,000ft MSL. Recommend 3000ft blocks.
Normally stall recovery is initiated at first indication of and approaching stall by the stall warning system. However should the stall warning system fail, the recovery will be commenced at the Vmc speed or aerodynamic buffet, whichever occurs first. Should a question arise about whether or not the aircraft is about to stall, stall recovery will be initiated immediately.
The check airmen shall occupy a pilot seat.
No flap 0 degree landings.
No simulated aborted takeoffs above 50 kias

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10
Q

What minimum weather is required for landing under part 91?

A

Check VFR regs

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11
Q

What is the minimum weather required for landing under part 135?

A

Check VFR regs

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12
Q

Is an ELT required on our charter aircraft?

A

Yes (91.207) for Cirrrus

No for R44 unless beyond auto distance to shoreline

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13
Q

What time period required aircraft position lights to be on?

A

When visibility is less than 3 miles and sunset to sunrise (91.209)

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14
Q

Are anti-collision light required for daylight operations?

A

When visibility is less than 3 miles (91.209)

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15
Q

When is a passenger briefing required under part 91?

A

Before each takeoff, unless they are familiar with the brief (91.519)

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16
Q

When is a passenger briefing required under part 135?

A

Before every takeoff, no exceptions. (135.117)

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17
Q

What defines a critical phase of flight?

A

Ground ops, taxi, takeoff, landing, and all flight below 10,000 ft MSL, except cruise. (135.100)

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18
Q

What are the speed limits in class A,B,C,D, and E?

A
A- no limit,
B- 250 below 10,000
C- 200 within 4nm and 2500ft
D- same as C
E - 250 below 10,000 (FAR)
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19
Q

Supplemental O2 requirements (crew) part 91?

A

12,500 ft- 14,000 ft cabin pressure altitude O2 required for portion of flight at those altitudes greater than 30 minutes. 14,000ft cabin pressure altitude O2 used at all times at flight above those altitudes. (91.211)

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20
Q

Pilot requirements use of O2 part 135?

A

Unpressurized aircraft. Each pilot of an unpressurized aircraft shall use oxygen continuously when flying-

(1) at altitudes above 10,000 ft through 12,000 feet MSL for part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration; and
(2) above 12,000 feet MSL

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21
Q

Duty times and requirements part 135?

A

Within the preceding 24 hours starting at the end of the trip each pilot shall have 10 consecutive hours of crew rest. No pilot shall fly more than 8 hours in any 24 hour period. (We are not allowed to go over this since we are single pilot operation) each pilot shall have 13 rest periods of 24 consecutive hours each calendar quarter. Each pilot is limited to not more than 500 flight hours In any calendar quarter, 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters and 1400 hours in any year. 135.263, 135.267

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22
Q

What are the takeoff and landing runway requirements for part 135?

A

Landing distance at destination allows a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within 60 percent of the effective length of each runway, and at the alternate can accomplish a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway.

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23
Q

What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR check?

A

Date, place, bearing error, and signature in aircraft log

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24
Q

Is the pilot required to read back hold short instructions?

A

Yes

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25
Q

When the pilot has accepted visual separation from traffic does ATC retain wake turbulence separation?

A

No

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26
Q

What actions are expected from the pilot if all communications is lost with the center?

A

Contact the nearest FSS for communication assignment

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27
Q

What are the required items In a position report?

A

Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA next waypoint, and the following waypoint.

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28
Q

What atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?

A

Upper winds blowing across the front

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29
Q

What weather difference is found on each side of a dry line?

A

Dew point difference, a dew point front or dry line is formed when two air masses of similar density and temperature meet

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30
Q

What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?

A

A trough is an elongated area of low flow pressure

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31
Q

Where is the normal location of the jet stream relative to surface lows and fronts?

A

The jet stream is normally located north of the surface systems

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32
Q

What type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low level stratus clouds?

A

Rime ice forms when drops are small such as those in level stratus clouds

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33
Q

What condition is necessary for the formations of structural icing in flight?

A

Flying thru visible moisture and the temperature where the water strikes the aircraft must be freezing

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34
Q

What condition is indicated when ice pellets are encountered during flight?

A

Freezing rain at higher levels

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35
Q

When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?

A

When both the temperature and dew point are below freezing. Occurs on clear nights with little or no winds

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36
Q

What temperature conditions are indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?

A

The temperature is above freezing at flight level

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37
Q

What type of precipitation is an indication that super cooled water is present?

A

Freezing rain at flight level

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38
Q

Radiation fog occurs when there is a surface based temperature inversion, what characterizes a ground based inversion?

A

Poor visibility

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39
Q

What condition produces the most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion?

A

Terrestrial radiation on a clear, calm night

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40
Q

What causes advection fog to form?

A

Warm moist air flowing over colder surfaces

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41
Q

What causes upslope fog to form?

A

Moist, stable air moving over higher ground, cooling adiabatically

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42
Q

What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity?

A

More than 4000ft thick

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43
Q

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A

Rain begins to fall

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44
Q

What is and where do squall lines most often develop?

A

A narrow band of active thunderstorms, develops ahead of a cold front in moist unstable air

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45
Q

Which types storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?

A

Steady state (frontal) thunderstorms

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46
Q

You are observing cumulonimbus mamma clouds. What inference can be made to this sighting?

A

Violent thunderstorms and tornadoes, turbulence.

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47
Q

Where is the greatest are of thunderstorm turbulence?

A

Under the anvil

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48
Q

What is the recommended flight separation from thunderstorms?

A

20 miles

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49
Q

What is a definition of a wind shear?

A

Rapid airspeed changes of more than 15 knots, rapid vertical speed changes of more than 500ft/min

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50
Q

Which wind shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?

A

Tailwind shearing to a headwind

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51
Q

Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?

A

All sides and directly under the center

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52
Q

What is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?

A

A calm or light wind near the surface and a stronger wind above the inversion, 2000 to 4000ft winds 25kts or more

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53
Q

Where are the jet streams located?

A

They are found in the breaks in the polar and topical tropopause.

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54
Q

Which type of clouds may be associated with the jet stream?

A

Cirri-form clouds

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55
Q

Where do the maximum winds associated with the jet stream occur?

A

Near the core center

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56
Q

What kind of temperature changes can be expected in the tropopause?

A

Intensive temperature gradients

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57
Q

One of the tools used in recognizing severe weather is the convective outlook. What information is provided?

A

Describes activities for the following 24 hours

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58
Q

If squall lines are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions exist?

A

Sudden increase of winds, 15 to 20kts for one minute

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59
Q

When flying over the top of severe thunderstorm the cloud should be overflown by how many feet?

A

Clear the top by 1000ft for each 10kts of wind

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60
Q

What is the maximum amount of area coverage, by thunderstorms, at which the entire area should be circumnavigated?

A

6/10 th

61
Q

At what altitude of cloud tops should a thunderstorm be considered extremely hazardous?

A

Tops above 35,000ft

62
Q

If you can see under the thunderstorm, is it ok to fly under?

A

No, turbulence and wind shear could be disastrous

63
Q

What is the first rule of wind shear escape?

A

Avoid

64
Q

Once wind shear has been encountered what is the accepted recovery?

A

Increase power, increase pitch, maintain configuration

65
Q

One way to improve flight crew’s ability to recognize and respond quickly to a wind shear encounter is to;

A

Develop strong CRM

66
Q

When encountering a wind shear on the runway with insufficient runway to stop or accelerate to a normal speed, what procedure should the pilot use?

A

Rotate early and except a lower airspeed and higher pitch attitudes

67
Q

What separation is recommended from any thunderstorm?

A

20 miles 40 miles to fly between

68
Q

What adjustments to cockpit lighting should be made in thunderstorms?

A

Turn up lighting to max

69
Q

What techniques may be used for airborne radar?

A

Tilt antenna up and down to scan for other activities

70
Q

Upon entering a thunderstorm, what type of course should the pilot take?

A

Set straight course through the storm

71
Q

What action is recommended regarding an altitude change to avoid the jet stream turbulence?

A

Temperature drop - descend
Temperature rises - climb
(Temp constant near core)

72
Q

What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?

A

Establish a straight course through

73
Q

What action is recommended of turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or direct tailwind?

A

Change altitude (winds elongate and make areas long and shallow)

74
Q

CAT associated with mountain waves may extend how far vertically and laterally from mountains?

A

5000ft above the tropopause and 100 miles downwind

75
Q

What is the difference between occasional, intermittent and continuous chop?

A

1/3, 1/3 to 2/3, and more than 2/3

76
Q

What color are the runway edge lights for the last 2000ft of a runway?

A

Yellow

77
Q

Describe the aiming point marking and it’s location on the runway.

A

There are two broad white stripes, 1000ft. from runway approach end.

78
Q

Runway hold position markings consist of 4 yellow lines, 2 solid and 2 dashed. Which ones are on the side where the aircraft should hold?

A

The two solid lines

79
Q

Name and describe the classes of airspace?

A

A
FL180-FL600
must be IFR on an IFR flight plan

B
surface to 10,000 (mostly) 
3sm vis. 
Clear of clouds, 
250 kias
30nm mode C veil clearance to enter

C
surface to 4,000agl
3sm vis. 1000’ above 500’ below 2000’ horizontal from clouds
2 way communications to enter, mode C in or above

D
surface to 2,500’agl
3sm vis. 1000’ above 500’ below 2000’ horizontal from clouds
2 way communications to enter

E
surface, 700, 1200 or 14,500 up to but not including overlaying airspace

3sm vis. 1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal below 10k, 250kias below 10k

5sm, 1000’ above, 1000’ below and 1 mile horizontal above 10k

G-all airspace that is not A-E, 1sm and clear

80
Q

What approach category is your airplane?

A

SR22 - A (approach speed < 91 kts)

R44- A

81
Q

What does the term minimum fuel mean?

A

AIM chapter 5, section 5, para 15=A fuel status advisory that allows for no undue delay

82
Q

With respect to weight and balance procedures, for your company, how is the weight of passengers obtained?

A

Asked actual weight

83
Q

Your passengers show up and as you the baggage you note camping equipment to include a camp stove for cooking. May you transport this piece of equipment?

A

Cannot carry stove fuel or a pressurized tank, cannot carry anything that contains a label appearing on DOT chart 14

84
Q

What crew member is responsible for visually checking each item on a checklist to ascertain that the correct action has been taken?

A

You are PIC and are responsible even if there is another pilot in the right seat.

85
Q

With respect to changes in altitude assignment by ATC,mow hat procedure does your company utilize to insure both crew members are aware of the new assignment?

A

Single pilot: PF sets new altitude, PF verbalizes new altitude, PF verifies autopilot or heading director is set correctly for the climb or descent, PF verifies that autopilot levels off at new altitude.

86
Q

With respect to operations during ground icing, and during deciding of the aircraft, fluid is first applied to the aircraft at 10am and the procedure takes 8 minutes to complete. What time will the crew member utilize for determining holdover times?

A

10:00 AM

87
Q

During the conduct of a 135 flight you land at your destination airport. You are met by the FAA inspector who desires to conduct a ramp inspection. What documents must you be able to produce?

A

ARROW requirements of part 91 and GOM, load manifest

88
Q

Who is responsible to insure that adequate and current charts are on board the aircraft and that the IFR GPS databases are current for each flight?

A

Chief pilot and PIC

89
Q

What is UAS Logistics accident notification procedure?

A

Each pilot involved in an accident will, by the most expeditious means possible, report the accident to the appropriate government officials.

90
Q

What are the PICs responsibilities if a mechanical irregularity exists?

A

Address all associated checklists and ensure the safety of passengers and crew. Enter the mechanical irregularity in the aircraft maintenance record. Contact the director of maintenance. Follow any instructions given by the director of maintenance. Do not make another takeoff until the problem has been corrected and entered on the aircraft maintenance record.

91
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating and ensuring completeness and correctness of the aircraft maintenance records?

A

DOM

92
Q

Does the aircraft status book have to be on board prior to departure?

A

Yes

93
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining the aircraft status book?

A

The PIC of that particular aircraft or maintenance

94
Q

Can an UAS Logistics aircraft be fueled with passengers on board?

A

No

95
Q

According to the operations manual, what passenger briefing items must be covered?

A

Smoking, use of seatbelts and compliance with lighted signs and crew member instructions, seat backs upright for takeoff and landing, location and means of opening entry door and emergency exit, location of survival equipment, location and use of floatations devices, normal and emergency use of oxygen, location and operation of fire extinguisher, non use of portable electronic devices.

96
Q

Who must be notified first, in the event of an emergency involving the safety of persons or property that required a deviation from the FARs?

A

The director of operations

97
Q

Are UAS Logistics aircraft permitted to carry hazardous materials?

A

Yes

98
Q

What is the preferred method for removing snow and ice accumulations?

A

Gently remove as much snow as possible by sweeping the aircraft surfaces with a broom. Then have aircraft towed into a heated hanger. Once all surfaces are contaminate free, spray with de-icing fluid to prevent the melted water from refreezing. If a heated hanger is not available, use hot de-icing fluid

99
Q

When is the PIC required to make a pre-takeoff contamination check?

A

This check is required 5 minutes prior to takeoff in ground icing conditions or when the holdover time has been exceeded.

100
Q

Does UAS Logistics have an MEL program?

A

No

101
Q

Are we able to file to airports without weather reporting capabilities?

A

No (check the regs)

102
Q

What is the scheduling guideline for crew duty days?

A

12 hours from first takeoff to last landing.

103
Q

What is the scheduling guideline for crew rest?

A

10 hour rest period from 30 minute after last scheduled flight end to one hour before next scheduled flight.

104
Q

Can the crew duty day be lengthened and the rest period be shortened?

A

No

105
Q

What are the memory items for an engine failure during takeoff below Vmca?

A

checklist

106
Q

What are the steps for an engine failure after takeoff?

A

checklist

107
Q

What are the steps for an engine failure in flight (above Vmca)?

A

checklist

108
Q

What are the steps for engine failure during flight (below Vmca)?

A

checklist

109
Q

What are the steps for doing an air start?

A

checklist

110
Q

What are the steps for a fire on the ground?

A

checklist

111
Q

What are the steps for an in flight wing or engine fire?

A

checklist

112
Q

In flight cabin electrical fire or smoke?

A

checklist

113
Q

What are the steps for an emergency descent?

A

checklist

114
Q

What are the steps for a forced landing with power?

A

checklist

115
Q

What are the steps for a forced landing no power?

A

checklist

116
Q

What are the steps for a single alternator failure?

A

checklist

117
Q

Dual alternator fail indicated by failure lights.

A

checklist

118
Q

What are the steps for landing without flaps?

A

checklist

119
Q

What are the steps for an emergency exit window removal?

A

use hammer in center console to break window near the edge

120
Q

What are the steps for spin recovery?

A

Activate CAPS

121
Q

What is the minimum oil level for flight operations?

A

SR22 - 6-8 quarts

R44 - 7-9 quarts

122
Q

What is the recommended cruise climb airspeed and why is it recommended?

A

120 kts for engine cooling

123
Q

What is the recommended airspeed for final approach on a visual landing?

A

90-95 flaps 0%
85-90 flaps 50%
80-85 flaps 100%
77 flaps 100% short field

124
Q

What is the recommended turbulent air penetration speed?

A

133 kts

125
Q

Vso (stall full flaps)

A

62 (full flaps)

126
Q

Vs (stall no flaps)

A

73

127
Q

Vo (maneuvering)

A

133

128
Q

Vfe (50%)

A

119

129
Q

Vfe (100%)

A

104

130
Q

Vno (17.5K)

A

177

131
Q

Vno (FL250)

A

151

132
Q

Vne (17.5K)

A

200

133
Q

Vne (FL250)

A

170

134
Q

Vpd

A

133 (parachute deployment)

135
Q

Best Glide

A

88 (3400 lb) 87 (2900 lb)

136
Q

Vr

A

70 (normal rotation) 78 (obstacle rotation)

137
Q

Vy

A

101 (sea level) 95 (10K)

138
Q

Vx

A

78 (sea level) 82 (10K)

139
Q

Vgoaround

A

80 (flaps 50%)

140
Q

Max Demonstrated Crosswind

A

20

141
Q

How many usable gallons of fuel

A

92 (94.5 total)

142
Q

Max fuel imbalance

A

10

143
Q

Do the toe brakes need to be depressed while engaging the parking brake?

A

Yes, the parking brake holds the pressure applied by the toe brakes

144
Q

How many amps do the alternators put out at full output?

A

ALT 1 - 60 amp
ALT 2 - 20 amp
both are self exciting and need battery to start

145
Q

Where is the battery located?

A

Bat 1 - 24 v right firewall

Bat 2 - 2 x 12v aft cabin bulkhead

146
Q

What is the purpose for having a low setting on the fuel pump?

A

Vapor suppression

147
Q

Should the fuel pump be used during normal takeoff and landing?

A

Yes, low boost

148
Q

What is the max allowable amount of oil?

A

SR22 - 8

R44 - 9