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RTH 131 > 131 Mock Final > Flashcards

131 Mock Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the point in the respiratory track where inspired gas reaches body temperature, ambient pressure, saturated (BTPS) conditions?

A

Isothermic saturation boundary

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2
Q

What factors cause the isothermic saturation boundary (ISB) to shift farther down into the airways?

A

Decreased ambient temperature
Increased tidal volume (VT)
Endotracheal intubation

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3
Q

What is the primary goal of humidity therapy?

A

Maintain normal physiologic conditions

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4
Q

Indications for warming inspired gases include all of the following except:

A

Reducing upper airway inflammation or swelling

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5
Q

What can the inhalation of dry gases do?

A

Increase viscosity of secretions
Impair mucociliary motility
Increase airway irritability

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6
Q

What inspired conditions should be maintained when delivering medical gases to the nose or mouth?

A

50% relative humidity (RH) at 20° to 22° C

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7
Q

What inspired conditions should be maintained when delivering medical gases to the hypopharynx, as when administering oxygen by nasal catheter?

A

95% RH at 29° to 32° C

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8
Q

What device adds molecular water to gas?

A

Humidifier

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9
Q

What is the most important factor determining a humidifier’s performance?

A

Temperature

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10
Q

Gas leaving an unheated humidifier at 10° C and 100% relative humidity (absolute humidity = 9.4 mg/L) would provide what relative humidity at body temperature?

A

About 20%

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11
Q

What is the simplest way to increase the humidity output of a humidifier?

A

Increase the temperature of either the water or the gas.

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12
Q

What types of humidifiers are used in clinical practice?

A

Heat-moisture exchanger
Passover humidifier
Bubble humidifier

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13
Q

What is the goal of using an unheated bubble humidifier with oronasal oxygen delivery systems?

A

Raise the humidity of the gas to ambient levels

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14
Q

Why should you NOT heat the reservoirs of a bubble humidifier used with an oronasal oxygen delivery system?

A

Condensate will obstruct the delivery tubing

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15
Q

What is used to protect against obstructed or kinked tubing in simple bubble humidifiers?

A

Pressure relief valve

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16
Q

When checking an oxygen delivery system that incorporates a bubble humidifier running at 6 L/min, you occlude the delivery tubing, and the humidifier pressure relief immediately pops off. What does this indicate?

A

Normal, leak-free system

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17
Q

A design that increases surface area and enhances evaporation by incorporating an absorbent material partially submerged in a water reservoir that is surrounded by a heating element best describes what type of humidifier?

A

Wick

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18
Q

What are types of heat-moisture exchangers (HMEs)?

A

Simple condenser
Hygroscopic condenser
Hydrophobic condenser

19
Q

A heat-moisture exchangers has an efficiency rating of 80%. What does this mean?

A

Of the exhaled water vapor, 80% returns to the patient on inspiration

20
Q

According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology of the U.S. Department of Commerce, a gas cylinder that is color-coded brown and green should contain which of the following?

A

Helium

Oxygen

21
Q

The gauge on an E cylinder of O2 reads 800 psig. About how long would the contents of this cylinder last, until completely empty, at a flow of 3 L/min?

A

1 hour 20 minutes

22
Q

What do the components of a liquid O2 bulk storage tank include?

A

Inner and outer steel shells, separated by a vacuum
Safety system that vents O2 if warming occurs
Vaporizer system that converts liquid O2 to gas
Pressure-reducing valves to lower pressure to 50 psig

23
Q

What are specific clinical objectives of oxygen (O2) therapy?

A

Decrease the symptoms caused by chronic hypoxemia
Decrease the workload hypoxemia imposes on the heart and lungs
Correct documented arterial hypoxemia

24
Q

What are signs and symptoms are associated with the presence of hypoxemia?

A

Tachypnea
Tachycardia
Cyanosis

25
Q

A patient with chronic hypercapnia placed on an FIO2 of 0.6 starts hypoventilating. What is the probable cause of this phenomenon?

A

O2 induced hypoventilation

26
Q

What is false regarding absorption atelectasis?

A

It can only occur when breathing supplemental O2

27
Q

Delivery systems that provide only a portion of a patient’s inspired gas are referred to as what?

A

Variable performance systems

28
Q

A 27-year-old woman received from the emergency department is on a nasal cannula at 5 L/min. Approximately what FIO2 is this patient receiving?

A

40%

29
Q

What is the minimum flow setting for a simple mask applied to an adult?

A

5 L/min

30
Q

What is the air to oxygen ratio for a 35% air entrainment mask?

A

1:5

31
Q

A patient is receiving O2 through a nonrebreathing mask set at 10 L/min. You notice that the mask’s reservoir bag collapses completely before the end of each inspiration. Which of the following actions is appropriate in this case?

A

Increase the flow

32
Q

A patient receiving 35% O2 through an air-entrainment mask set at 6 L/min input flow becomes tachypneic. Simultaneously, you notice that the SpO2 has fallen from 91% to 87%. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate in this situation?

A

Increase the device’s input flow to 10 L/min

33
Q

An O2 delivery device takes separate pressurized(50psi) air and O2 sources as input, then mixes these gases through a precision valve. What does this describe?

A

Oxygen blender

34
Q

If the oxygen: air entrainment ratio is 1:10, what is the FIO2?

A

29%

35
Q

What devices are therapeutic aerosols generated?

A

Atomizers

Nebulizers

36
Q

What factors affect pulmonary deposition of an aerosol?

A

Size of the particles
Shape and motion of the particles
Physical characteristics of the airways

37
Q

Most of the spray generated by the majority of metered-dose inhalers consists of which of the following?

A

Propellant

38
Q

To decrease the likelihood of an opportunistic yeast or fungal infection associated with metered-dose inhaler (MDI) steroids, what would you recommend that a patient do?

A

Use a spacer or holding chamber

Rinse the mouth after each treatment

39
Q

During aerosol drug delivery using a small-volume jet nebulizer (SVN) set at 8 L/min input flow, a patient asks that the head of the bed be lowered to a semi-Fowler’s position. Immediately after doing so, you observe a significant drop in SVN aerosol output, despite there being at least 3 ml of solution left in the reservoir. What would you do to correct this problem?

A

Reposition the patient so that the SVN is more upright

40
Q

Normally, when using a 50-psi flowmeter to drive a small-volume jet nebulizer, to what should you set the flow?

A

6 to 8 L/min

41
Q

Persistent breathing at small tidal volumes can result in which of the following?

A

Passive atelectasis

42
Q

What is/are necessary for normal airway clearance?

A

Patent airway
Mucociliary escalator
Effective cough

43
Q

Retention of secretions can result in full or partial airway obstruction. Mucus plugging can result in what?

A

CF
COPD
Bronchiectasis

44
Q

During chest physical therapy, a patient has an episode of hemoptysis. Which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time?

A

Discontinue the therapy and notify physician

RTH 131 (2 decks)

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