131 Mock Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the point in the respiratory track where inspired gas reaches body temperature, ambient pressure, saturated (BTPS) conditions?

A

Isothermic saturation boundary

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2
Q

What factors cause the isothermic saturation boundary (ISB) to shift farther down into the airways?

A

Decreased ambient temperature
Increased tidal volume (VT)
Endotracheal intubation

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3
Q

What is the primary goal of humidity therapy?

A

Maintain normal physiologic conditions

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4
Q

Indications for warming inspired gases include all of the following except:

A

Reducing upper airway inflammation or swelling

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5
Q

What can the inhalation of dry gases do?

A

Increase viscosity of secretions
Impair mucociliary motility
Increase airway irritability

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6
Q

What inspired conditions should be maintained when delivering medical gases to the nose or mouth?

A

50% relative humidity (RH) at 20° to 22° C

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7
Q

What inspired conditions should be maintained when delivering medical gases to the hypopharynx, as when administering oxygen by nasal catheter?

A

95% RH at 29° to 32° C

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8
Q

What device adds molecular water to gas?

A

Humidifier

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9
Q

What is the most important factor determining a humidifier’s performance?

A

Temperature

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10
Q

Gas leaving an unheated humidifier at 10° C and 100% relative humidity (absolute humidity = 9.4 mg/L) would provide what relative humidity at body temperature?

A

About 20%

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11
Q

What is the simplest way to increase the humidity output of a humidifier?

A

Increase the temperature of either the water or the gas.

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12
Q

What types of humidifiers are used in clinical practice?

A

Heat-moisture exchanger
Passover humidifier
Bubble humidifier

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13
Q

What is the goal of using an unheated bubble humidifier with oronasal oxygen delivery systems?

A

Raise the humidity of the gas to ambient levels

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14
Q

Why should you NOT heat the reservoirs of a bubble humidifier used with an oronasal oxygen delivery system?

A

Condensate will obstruct the delivery tubing

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15
Q

What is used to protect against obstructed or kinked tubing in simple bubble humidifiers?

A

Pressure relief valve

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16
Q

When checking an oxygen delivery system that incorporates a bubble humidifier running at 6 L/min, you occlude the delivery tubing, and the humidifier pressure relief immediately pops off. What does this indicate?

A

Normal, leak-free system

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17
Q

A design that increases surface area and enhances evaporation by incorporating an absorbent material partially submerged in a water reservoir that is surrounded by a heating element best describes what type of humidifier?

A

Wick

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18
Q

What are types of heat-moisture exchangers (HMEs)?

A

Simple condenser
Hygroscopic condenser
Hydrophobic condenser

19
Q

A heat-moisture exchangers has an efficiency rating of 80%. What does this mean?

A

Of the exhaled water vapor, 80% returns to the patient on inspiration

20
Q

According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology of the U.S. Department of Commerce, a gas cylinder that is color-coded brown and green should contain which of the following?

A

Helium

Oxygen

21
Q

The gauge on an E cylinder of O2 reads 800 psig. About how long would the contents of this cylinder last, until completely empty, at a flow of 3 L/min?

A

1 hour 20 minutes

22
Q

What do the components of a liquid O2 bulk storage tank include?

A

Inner and outer steel shells, separated by a vacuum
Safety system that vents O2 if warming occurs
Vaporizer system that converts liquid O2 to gas
Pressure-reducing valves to lower pressure to 50 psig

23
Q

What are specific clinical objectives of oxygen (O2) therapy?

A

Decrease the symptoms caused by chronic hypoxemia
Decrease the workload hypoxemia imposes on the heart and lungs
Correct documented arterial hypoxemia

24
Q

What are signs and symptoms are associated with the presence of hypoxemia?

A

Tachypnea
Tachycardia
Cyanosis

25
A patient with chronic hypercapnia placed on an FIO2 of 0.6 starts hypoventilating. What is the probable cause of this phenomenon?
O2 induced hypoventilation
26
What is false regarding absorption atelectasis?
It can only occur when breathing supplemental O2
27
Delivery systems that provide only a portion of a patient’s inspired gas are referred to as what?
Variable performance systems
28
A 27-year-old woman received from the emergency department is on a nasal cannula at 5 L/min. Approximately what FIO2 is this patient receiving?
40%
29
What is the minimum flow setting for a simple mask applied to an adult?
5 L/min
30
What is the air to oxygen ratio for a 35% air entrainment mask?
1:5
31
A patient is receiving O2 through a nonrebreathing mask set at 10 L/min. You notice that the mask’s reservoir bag collapses completely before the end of each inspiration. Which of the following actions is appropriate in this case?
Increase the flow
32
A patient receiving 35% O2 through an air-entrainment mask set at 6 L/min input flow becomes tachypneic. Simultaneously, you notice that the SpO2 has fallen from 91% to 87%. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate in this situation?
Increase the device’s input flow to 10 L/min
33
An O2 delivery device takes separate pressurized(50psi) air and O2 sources as input, then mixes these gases through a precision valve. What does this describe?
Oxygen blender
34
If the oxygen: air entrainment ratio is 1:10, what is the FIO2?
29%
35
What devices are therapeutic aerosols generated?
Atomizers | Nebulizers
36
What factors affect pulmonary deposition of an aerosol?
Size of the particles Shape and motion of the particles Physical characteristics of the airways
37
Most of the spray generated by the majority of metered-dose inhalers consists of which of the following?
Propellant
38
To decrease the likelihood of an opportunistic yeast or fungal infection associated with metered-dose inhaler (MDI) steroids, what would you recommend that a patient do?
Use a spacer or holding chamber | Rinse the mouth after each treatment
39
During aerosol drug delivery using a small-volume jet nebulizer (SVN) set at 8 L/min input flow, a patient asks that the head of the bed be lowered to a semi-Fowler’s position. Immediately after doing so, you observe a significant drop in SVN aerosol output, despite there being at least 3 ml of solution left in the reservoir. What would you do to correct this problem?
Reposition the patient so that the SVN is more upright
40
Normally, when using a 50-psi flowmeter to drive a small-volume jet nebulizer, to what should you set the flow?
6 to 8 L/min
41
Persistent breathing at small tidal volumes can result in which of the following?
Passive atelectasis
42
What is/are necessary for normal airway clearance?
Patent airway Mucociliary escalator Effective cough
43
Retention of secretions can result in full or partial airway obstruction. Mucus plugging can result in what?
CF COPD Bronchiectasis
44
During chest physical therapy, a patient has an episode of hemoptysis. Which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time?
Discontinue the therapy and notify physician