13. Random Flashcards

1
Q

Bronchospasm in asthmatics

Exacerbators

A

Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists, aspirin and the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs can exacerbate or provoke an asthma attack.

Salmeterol is a longer acting beta-2 agonist used in the management of asthma, but it may cause paradoxical bronchospasm, which is common with other inhalational drugs.

Captopril can cause a persistent dry cough and bronchospasm has been reported but this is rare.

Paracetamol is safe in asthmatics.

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2
Q

Antidotes

paracetamol

beta blockers

iron poisoning

benzodiazepine

opiate

A

N-acetylcysteine may be indicated in a paracetamol overdose
Glucagon is given for an overdose of beta blockers
Ethanol is given for methanol poisoning
The antidote for iron poisoning is deferoxamine which chelates iron
Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity
Naloxone is the antidote for opiate toxicity.

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3
Q

Medications that need dose adjust in RF

A

Aciclovir may cause nephrotoxicity by intratubular aciclovir crystalluria and the dose should be reduced in renal failure.

Carbamazepine is approximately 80% protein bound and is metabolised in the liver but is renally excreted. Renal impairment has little effect on the dose, so dose adjustment is not necessary, but the manufacturer does advise caution.

Digoxin and vancomycin both require dose adjustment in patients with renal failure.

In severe renal impairment the dose of erythromycin should be limited to 1.5 g per day because of the risk of ototoxicity.

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4
Q

Nephrotoxicity abx

A

Nephrotoxicity is associated with many antibiotics typically

Tetracyclines
Cephalosporins and
Gentamicin.
It has also been described in association with

Penicillins (immune origin)
Azetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) and
Rifampicin.

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5
Q

Mydriasis
is what

cause by

A

Dilatation of the pupil is called mydriasis and is caused by sympathetic stimulation and anticholinergics drugs, for example, hyoscine.

Cocaine has sympathomimetic properties and will cause mydriasis.

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6
Q

Misois is what

cause by

A

Constriction of the pupil or miosis is caused by parasympathetic stimulation, opioid drugs, for example, morphine, anaesthetic agents and pontine lesions.

Timolol is a beta blocker which causes miosis, and timolol drops are used in the management of glaucoma.

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7
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis is a side effect of the following drugs:

A

Gold, penicillamine and methotrexate which are used in rheumatology (not nalidixic acid)
Cytotoxic drugs, for example, for example, bleomycin and cyclophosphamide (not vincristine)
Sulphasalazine, amiodarone and nitrofurantoin also cause pulmonary fibrosis.

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8
Q

Unsafe in porphyria

A

Porphyria is a group of diseases characterised by excess production and excretion of porphyrins and their precursors.

Barbiturates (thiopental and methohexital)
Sulphonamides
Steroids
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Amiodarone, and the
Progestogens
are all considered unsafe.

They are caused by enzyme defects within the haem metabolic pathway. Stress, infection, pregnancy, menstruation, starvation and certain drugs may precipitate acute attacks.

Women
Northern Europeans - sweden

Px gi symp px diarr vom
neuro sm - weak convulsi tremor

Deficinecy - porphobilinogen deaminse -
acum heam precursor

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9
Q

Acute porphryia

A

Hereditary disorders of haem biosynthesis and caution must be exercised when prescribing.

urinary porphobilinogen

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10
Q

Uterotonics

A

oxytocin
prostaglandins
ergot alkaloids (ergotamine)
Vasopressin - similiar to oxy

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11
Q

His release

from

Causing

inhib

A

Histamine is released from mast cells following the administration of certain drugs, for example, morphine, d-tubocurare, atracurium.

The release of histamine may cause

Skin erythema and wheals
Bronchospasm
Hypotension
Anaphylaxis, and possibly
Cardiac arrest.
Loratadine is a H1 receptor antagonist (antihistamine).

Hyoscine is a sedating anticholinergic drug derived from the henbane plant, which only very rarely triggers histamine release.

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12
Q

The mechanisms by which drugs cross the placenta are:

A
Simple diffusion.
Ion channel diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Active transport (primary and secondary)
Osmosis
Exocytosis and Endocytosis
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13
Q

Factors influencing the rate of diffusion across the placenta include:

A
Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
Molecular weight of drug <500 Daltons cross by diffusion
Degree of ionisation
Maternal and foetal blood pH
Thickness of placental membrane
Lipid solubility- lipophilic molecules diffuse readily across the placenta
Protein binding
Placental blood flow
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14
Q

Local anaesthetics & Baby

A

Local anaesthetics are affected by ion trapping.

The unionised form of the local anaesthetic crosses the placental barrier.

The foetal pH is lower than that of the mother, the unionised form of the local anaesthetic is converted to the ionised form (a weak base made more acidic yields more ionised drug), and the ionised form is trapped in the foetus. T

he more acidotic the foetus, the greater the degree of ion trapping. When foetal pH falls into the range of 7.03-7.23, significant ion trapping occurs. Ion trapping is irrelevant with regard to muscle relaxants.

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15
Q

sodium channel permeability

A

Carbamazepine
neuronal sodium channels reducing the sodium ion flux until it is insufficient

Suxamethonium is a depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug that inhibits nicotinic acetyl choline receptors. When voltage-sensitive sodium channels sense membrane depolarization (as a result of activation of the ACh receptors), they initially open and thereafter close and become inactivated.

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16
Q

Anticholinergic drugs

A

Act @ Muscarinic receptors - Acetylcholine is an agonist.

Atropine, glycopyrrolate and hyoscine.

bronchodilation.

Both atropine and hyoscine are tertiary amines and have the potential to cross the placenta and blood-brain barrier (BBB) to produce central effects.

Hyoscine has the potential to produce amnesia.

Glycopyrrolate is a quaternary amine and cannot cross the placenta and the BBB.

Anticholinergic agents may decrease the tone of the lower oesophageal sphincter

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17
Q

HAGMA

Drug causes

Mnemonic

A

A high anion gap acidosis is associated with a reduction in chloride and the production or ingestion of acids.

Causes include:

Aspirin
Methanol
Ethanol, and
Metformin.
A useful mnemonic is MUDPILES:
Methanol
Uraemia
DKA
Paraldehyde
Infection
Lactic acidosis
Ethylene glycol/ethanol
Salicylates.
18
Q

Hazardous combos

Cimetidine &

Phenelzine

indomethacin

Atenolol

A

Cimetidine inhibits metabolism and increases serum levels of phenytoin.

Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor and with levodopa may cause a hypertensive crisis.

With indomethacin and amiloride there is an increased risk of hyperkalaemia.

Atenolol and verapamil increase the risk of atrioventricular block.

19
Q

Tocolytics

A

Atosiban - inhibits the V1a receptors and is used to prevent premature labour

Progesterone

GTN
Alcohol
Magnesium sulphate
Ritodrine
Salbutamol
Nifedipine
NSAIDs.
20
Q

Pregnancy &

Phenytoin

Warfarin

Meythyldopa

Thiazides

Irotetinoin

A

Folic acid supplements reduce the incidence of neural tube defects and should be given to patients taking phenytoin.

Warfarin has been shown to cause central nervous system damage in the fetus if given in the second and third trimesters (not heparin).

Methyldopa is the only hypotensive that is safe in all stages of pregnancy.

Thiazide diuretics have been shown to decrease placental perfusion.

Treatment with isotretinoin is a recognised indication for termination of the pregnancy and contraception is advised for two years after cessation of treatment.

21
Q

MH
characterised

Predisposing gene
-close to what receptor

Triggers

Dose of treatment

pH of Rx

Prognosis

Dx

A

Malignant hyperpyrexia (MH) is characterised by increased temperature and muscle rigidity during anaesthesia, which results from abnormal skeletal muscle contraction and increased metabolism.

The predisposing gene is thought to be on chromosome 19, close to the gene for the ryanodine / dihydropyridine receptor complex.

Known triggering agents include the volatile anaesthetic agents and suxamethonium. Patients show different sensitivity to the triggering agents and the reaction can be delayed by several hours.

Intravenous dantrolene (up to 10 mg/kg) is the only available specific treatment.

The solution has a pH of 9 to 10 (not neutral).

The prognosis is good when the appropriate treatment is instigated early, mortality being <5% (prior to dantrolene the mortality was 80%).

Serum creatine kinase elevation and myoglobinuria are suggestive but not diagnostic of MH. Myoglobin and creatine kinase are both known to increase after giving suxamethonium to normal patients.

Contracture tests using caffeine and halothane are the investigations of choice.

Muscle biopsies may appear histologically normal.

22
Q

Poisoning combos

Ethanol

Digoxin

Aspirin

Cyanide

Theophylline

A

Hypoglycaemia commonly occurs with ethanol poisoning.

Digoxin may cause hyperkalaemia due to inhibition of the potassium pump (not hypokalaemia).

An increased anion gap occurs with aspirin poisoning.

A metabolic acidosis is associated with cyanide poisoning.

Theophylline causes hyperventilation and so a respiratory alkalosis is common (not met

23
Q

Anticholinergics
act where

Naturally occuring
syntheitc

greatest antisialogogue

Anticholinergic snydrome

Cross bbb?

A

The anticholinergic agents hyoscine, atropine and glycopyrrolate act on muscarinic receptors with little activity at the nicotinic receptors.

Hyoscine and atropine are naturally occurring esters. Glycopyrrolate is a synthetic quaternary amine and therefore does not cross the blood brain barrier.

Hyoscine hydrobromide has the greatest antisialogogue properties. It may cause central anticholinergic syndrome as it readily crosses the blood brain barrier. It is characterised by hallucinations, excitement and ataxia.

Note, hyoscine butylbromide does not cross the blood brain barrier significantly.

24
Q

MH

Inheritated how

Establish risk - best

If there is doubt what is the back up test

where is the gene located and what does it encode

A

autosomal dominant mode of inheritance.

In vitro muscle contracture test (IVCT)
establish risk of susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia.
muscle biopsy - vastus medialis or lateralis
- regional anaesthesia (not local infiltration or general anaesthesia). Muscle fibres are subjected to exposure to increasing concentrations of halothane and caffeine and the force of muscle contraction measured when stretched (dynamic test).

False test results cannot be excluded and may be associated with serious disabilities for the concerned individuals. 4-chloro-m-cresol (a ryanodine receptor-specific agonist) has been evaluated as a new test substance for the in vitro contracture testing. Its use improves the accuracy of in vitro diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia susceptibility.

Genetic analyses mapped MH susceptibility trait to the ryanodine receptor locus (RYR1) on chromosome 19q12-13.2.
Gene encodes the skeletal muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium release channel, a key protein involved in the process of excitation-contraction coupling. To date, over 30 different mutations have been detected in the gene and 15 of these have been functionally characterised using in vitro cellular assays and are considered causative of MH. A patient and relatives would normally be genetically investigated if IVCTs proved positive.

Raised plasma creatine kinase (CK) during an acute episode of MH may reflect muscle damage but is not specific to this condition

25
Q

What causes galactorrhoea

4x

What suppresses

A

Haloperidol
Cimetidine
Opioid
Spirinolactone

may cause galactorrhoea.

Bromocriptine
supresses

26
Q

Magnesium

Predominates where

A

intracellular divalent cation,

1 reducing the systemic vascular resistance (vasodilation).
2 It has anticonvulsant properties, bronchodilation, and it reduces hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction.
3 It is used in the management of acute severe asthma and should be considered if inhaled bronchodilators have been ineffective.

Explain the reduced muscle tone high plasma levels of

deep tendon reflexes (not increased).
The change in deep tendon reflexes is used to titrate magnesium therapy in pre-eclampsia.

Cross - placenta
- fetal side effects may be treated using calcium gluconate.

Potentiate - effects on non-depolarising muscle relaxants, and smaller doses of relaxant should be given to patients on magnesium.

27
Q

Ach Receptor

Subunits

How many of each

Where are they

What size are the pore

A

Acetylcholine receptors consist of five subunits (not seven) and are arranged in a pentameric structure around a central ion channel or ionophore.

The subunits are known as α, β, δ and ε (alpha, beta, delta and epsilon) and all receptors contain two α-subunits and one δ, β and ε unit. There is no Ω subunit. In the fetus, γ (gamma) replaces ε.

They are found in high concentrations on the crests of the postjunctional folds (not pits).

The entrance of ionophore is 4 nm in diameter (not 20 nm).

28
Q

Ototoxic

A

Gentamicin
& aminoglycosides
affecting cochlear and vestibular systems, whereas vancomycin mostly affects the cochlear apparatus.

Furosemide like other loop diuretics may rarely cause vestibular damage.

Minocycline also can infrequently cause vestibular damage.

Clopidogrel unlike salicylates is not ototoxic and aciclovir is also not ototoxic.

29
Q

MAO enzymes -

Found where

what do they do

How many types
WHich do what
Found predom where

A

Monoamine oxidase (MAO) enzymes are present in the mitochondria of most tissues (not cytoplasm) including both central and peripherally located catecholamine secreting nerve endings. They catalyse the inactivation of amines (not formation) by oxidative deamination to aldehyde derivatives.

Two distinct types have been identified (not three):

type A mainly inactivates (not synthesizes) norepinephrine (or noradrenaline) and 5-hydroxytryptamine, and
type B mainly inactivates tryptamine and phenylethylamine.

Dopamine and tyramine are inactivated by both enzymes. Both types A and B are found in the liver and brain, and type B predominates in the basal ganglia.

30
Q

SID

A

= ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) - ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-]

31
Q

Features of theophylline toxicity include:

A
Convulsions
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and
Ventricular tachyarrhythmia (VT).
A respiratory alkalosis is typical due to hyperventilation, but metabolic acidosis can occur due to convulsions and hypotension.

Hot flushes are not a feature.

32
Q

Steroids side effects

A

Glucocorticoids and steroids, may cause

Iatrogenic Cushing's with
Thin skin
Easy bruising
Glucose intolerance and diabetes
Hypertension
Hypokalaemia
Hirsutism
Osteoporosis
and may result in hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism (hence amenorrhoea).

Glucocorticoid therapy may also be associated with aseptic necrosis of the femoral

33
Q

Tautomerism is exhibited by

A

Midazolam is ionised (water soluble) in solution at pH 4, changes to an unionised (lipid soluble) ring structure at physiological pH.

Atracurium consists of 10 stereoisomers, as it has 4 chiral centres. Cisatracurium is the most potent. Atracurium does not display tautomerism.

The solubility of thiopental depends on transformation from the keto to the enol form, which occurs in an alkaline solution.

Morphine also displays the keto-enol transformation.

Nitrous oxide exists in two forms, with dynamic interchange between N+=N-=O and N-≡N+-O.

34
Q

Bioavailibility / Absorption

Loperamide

Morphine

Nemocyin

Paracetamol

Sodium cromoglycate

A

Loperamide is a synthetic piperidine derivative used to treat diarrhoea. It is a substrate for the P-glycoprotein efflux transporter in the gut wall causing antiperistalsis. Its oral bioavailability is only 0.3%.

Morphine is well absorbed by the gastrointestinal (GI) tract but has relatively low oral bioavailability of 30-40% because of first pass metabolism by the liver.

The aminoglycoside neomycin is poorly absorbed by the GI tract but can be given orally to alter gut flora in a patient with hepatic encephalopathy.

Paracetamol absorption is negligible in the stomach because of low pH (pKa value is 9.5). In the alkaline environment of the small intestine the absorption of paracetamol is very rapid and complete. Oral bioavailability approaches 100%.

Sodium cromoglycate is a mast cell stabiliser and is poorly absorbed by the GI tract having a bioavailabilty of 1-2%.

35
Q

COX inhibitors?

Aspirin
Rofecox
Clopidogrel

A

Aspirin like most NSAIDs acts through inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase.

Rofecoxib is a selective COX-II inhibitor and is used specifically as it is not associated with the inhibition of COX-I responsible for the production of mucosal protection in the stomach.

Clopidogrel is an ADP receptor antagonist and responsible for inhibtion of platelet aggregation through this route.

Losartan is an angiotensin antagonist.

Domperidone is a dopamine antagonist.

36
Q

Aspirin potentiates which of the following?

Warfarin
Sulphonamides
Chlorpropramide
Diazepam
Tetracycline
A

Warfarin and sulphonamides are highly bound to plasma proteins and aspirin displaces them which increases their unbound proportion and potentiates their effect.

Asprin can cause hypoglycaemia by potentiating the effect of chlorpropamide.

Diazepam and the tetracyclines are unaffected by aspirin.

37
Q

Chlorpromazine,

Effects @

Sedative?
is called
EEG -

Side effects

Affect on cell membrane

Metabolism

A

numerous receptors including dopamine receptors
antagonistic at muscarinic,
5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT),
histamine and alpha (1 and 2) adrenoceptors.

Its sedative effects are known as neurolepsy which are accompanied by a reduction in motor activity and muscle tone. The EEG shows a pattern characteristic of sleep and this sedative side effect limits chlorpromazine’s use as an antiemetic.

Side effects include extrapyramidal symptoms such as dystonias, akathisia and tardive dyskinesia, but it does not commonly cause parkinsonian features (rigidity, akinesia and tremor).

Chlorpromazine has a local anaesthetic effect by stabilising cell membranes and reducing the tendency of nerves to depolarise.

It is extensively metabolised in the liver and many metabolites may be detected in the urine up to 18 months after administration.

38
Q

Enzymatic variations

Hydralazine

suxamethonium

A

Hydralazine is metabolised by N-acetyl transferase and slow acetylators are more likely to develop side effects, particularly drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus.

Suxamethonium is metabolised by cholinesterase and variation in metabolic characterisitics may produce prolonged neuromuscular paralysis.

39
Q

Drugs which inhibit dihydrofolate reductase:

Drugs which intereere with absoprtion & storage

A

Drugs which inhibit dihydrofolate reductase include:

Methotrexate
Pyrimethamine
Trimethoprim.

Drugs which interfere with the absorption and storage of folate include:

Phenytoin
Primidone
Oral contraceptives.
Tetracyclines, vitamin B12 and ibuprofen do not interfere with folic acid metabolism.

40
Q

Carbonic anhydrase - contains

Found where?

Plasma?

How many isoenzymes

where is isonenzyme 4 + 2

A

Carbonic anhydrase is a zinc containing enzyme which is found in

Erythrocytes (not plasma)
The nephron
Pulmonary endothelium
Gut
Pancreas
Cardiac and skeletal muscle.

Seven isoenzymes have been identified to date.

Isoenzyme IV is found in the in the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule and isoenzyme II is found within the luminal cells. It is inhibited by acetazolamide, which is used as prophylaxis against mountain sickness and in the management of glaucoma.

Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist and is classed as a potassium sparing diuretic.

41
Q

Ototoxicity in order

A

1 cisplation

ethacyrnic acid

gent / aminogly

fruse

42
Q

Active transport

A

movement sub across conc gradient

requires expend energy - affect hypoxia
temp

active tport system characterised max tport rate