13 - Antenatal Care Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between gravida and para?

A

Gravida is number of times a woman has been pregnant

Para is the number of live births after 24 weeks gestation

e.g pregnant woman with 4 kids is G5, P4

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2
Q

What is classified as first, second and third trimester?

A

First: 0-12 weeks

Second: 13 - 26 weeks

Third: 27 weeks to birth

Fetal movements start around 20 weeks

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3
Q

How many antenatal appointments does a woman have?

A

10 for nulliparous

7 for multiparous

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4
Q

When should a booking appointment take place and what happens at this?

A

Before 10 weeks

Full history needed included previous mental health, ask about domestic violence if alone

Examination: height, weight, BMI, urinalysis for proteinuria, blood pressure, FBC for blood type and rhesus

Offer screening (can decline): HIV, Syphilis, Rhesus D, Sickle Cell, Thalassemia, Fetal Anomaly

Provide general information about pregnancy

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5
Q

What information about pregnancy is given to a mother in a booking appointment?

A

changes during pregnancy

• staying healthy during pregnancy: flu and whooping cough vaccine, infections that can impact baby, safe use of medicines, mental health

• lifestyle: diet, exercise, smoking, alcohol, recreational drug use

• antenatal care: why different appointments and screening

• contact details for midwifery team if issues e.g bleeding

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6
Q

A nulliparous woman has 10 antenatal appointments, when do these take place and what happens at these?

A
  • Booking scan
  • Dating scan
  • Antenatal Appointment
  • Anomaly scan
  • Antenatal appointments
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7
Q

A multiparous woman only has 7 antenatal appointments, which ones do they not have?

A
  • 25 weeks
  • 31 weeks
  • 40 weeks
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8
Q

At a booking appointment what should you do if a woman is smoking?

A

Offer smoking cessation for both her and her partner as passive smoke is just as bad for the baby
refer to a substance misuse clinic where they can chat to a midwife and a doctor
same for if they were using drugs a year before pregnancy

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9
Q

What are two sensitive issues that need to be established about a woman preferably at the booking scan?

A
  • History of FGM
  • Any domestic violence
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10
Q

What are some screening programmes offered to women who are pregnant?

A
  • Infectious screening e.g HIV, Hep, Syphillis
  • Sickle Cell and Thalassemia screening
  • Fetal anomaly screening

Woman can decline any of these

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11
Q

When should you offer anti-D prophylaxis to rhesus negative women who are pregnant?

A

28 weeks

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12
Q

When should you take symphis fundal height?

A

From 24 weeks at every antenatal scan unless had done in last 2 weeks or if having growth scan

Only do for singleton pregnancy

If large or small for age send for US to assess fetal growth and wellbeing. Base urgency on fetal movements and mothers BP.

Don’t usually US after 28 weeks unless issue with this height

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13
Q

Breech presentation is looked at at the 36 week mark, what should you do if you suspect a baby is breech?

A

Send for US

If confirmed on US discuss the options e.g external cephalic version, elective C-section, breech vaginal birth

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14
Q

What are some things done at every antenatal appointment past 25 weeks?

A
  • Discuss plans for the remainder of the pregnancy and delivery
  • Symphysis–fundal height from 24 weeks
  • Fetal presentation assessment from 36 weeks onwards
  • Urine dipstick for protein for pre-eclampsia
  • Blood pressure for pre-eclampsia
  • Urine for MS+C for asymptomatic bacteriuria
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15
Q

What are some additional appointments that a nulliparous woman may need on top of her 10 appointments scheduled routinely during pregnancy?

A
  • Additional appointments for higher risk
  • Oral glucose tolerance test in women at risk of gestational diabetes (between 24 – 28 weeks)
  • Anti-D injections in rhesus negative women (at 28 and 34 weeks)
  • Ultrasound scan at 32 weeks for women with placenta praevia on the anomaly scan
  • Serial growth scans are offered to women at increased risk of fetal growth restriction
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16
Q

What vaccines are offered to pregnant women?

A

Avoid live vaccines like MMR

  • Flu if winter
  • Whooping cough/Pertussis from 16 weeks gestation
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17
Q

What is some general lifestyle advice to give a mother at a booking appointment?

A
  • Folic Acid 400mcg before pregnancy to 12 weeks
  • Vitamin D supplement
  • Avoid vitamin A supplements and eating liver or pate (vitamin A is teratogenic at high doses)
  • Don’t drink alcohol (risk of fetal alcohol syndrome)
  • Don’t smoke
  • Avoid unpasteurised dairy or blue cheese (risk of listeriosis)
  • Avoid undercooked or raw poultry (risk of salmonella)
  • Continue moderate exercise but avoid contact sports
  • Sex is safe
  • Flying increases the risk of VTE
  • Place car seatbelts above and below the bump (not across it)
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18
Q

What are some of the issues with drinking alcohol during pregnancy?

A

Worse complications if in the first three months

  • Miscarriage
  • Preterm labour
  • Fetal Alcohol syndrome
  • Small for dates
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19
Q

What are some of the risks with smoking during pregnancy?

A
  • Fetal growth restriction (FGR)
  • Miscarriage
  • Stillbirth
  • Preterm labour and delivery
  • Placental abruption
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Cleft lip or palate
  • Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
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20
Q

Can you fly during pregnancy?

A

Can fly up to

  • 37 weeks in a uncomplicated single pregnancy
  • 32 weeks in a uncomplicated twin pregnancy

After 28 weeks gestation, most airlines need a note from a midwife, GP or obstetrician

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21
Q

What is the structure of what happens at a booking appointment?

(image important)

A
  • Education
  • Booking bloods
  • Screening for infectious disease, anomolies
  • Measurements
  • Risk assessment
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22
Q

What booking bloods and measurements are taking at a booking appointment?

A

Bloods

  • FBC for anaemia
  • Blood group, Rhesus D
  • Thalassemia and Sickle Cell screening if agreed
  • Infectious disease screening if agreed - BBV (hep C/B, syphillus, HIV)

Measurements

  • Height, weight, BMI
  • Urinalysis for proteinuria and asymptomatic bacteria
  • Blood pressure
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23
Q

Who should be offered antenatal classes and what do these classes do?

A

Nulliparous women or multiparous women with large gaps between pregnancies

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24
Q

What are some of the conditions screened for in the fetal anomaly scan?

A
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25
Q

What are some of the ways that Down syndrome is screened for and when are these done?

A
  • Combined Test (most accurate): 11 to 14 weeks
  • Triple Test: 14 to 20 weeks
  • Quadruple Test: 14 to 20 weeks
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26
Q

What happens in a combined test for Down’s syndrome and what results would indicate a high risk of Down’s?

A

US

  • Look at nuchal thickness an area of tissue at the back of an unborn baby’s neck. Measuring this thickness helps assess the risk for Down syndrome and other genetic problems in the baby
  • If >9mm higher risk

Maternal Bloods

  • b-hCG, higher results higher risk
  • Pregnancy Associated Plasma Protein A (PAPPA), lower result higher risk, needed for the implantation process and to maintain a healthy placenta
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27
Q

If a woman presents after 13 weeks gestation, a triple or quadruple test may be done to screen for Down’s syndrome. What do these involve and what results indicate a high risk of Down’s?

A

All based on maternal bloods

Triple Test

  • b-hCG: higher means high risk
  • AFP: lower indicates high risk
  • Serum estriol: lower indicates high risk

Quadruple Test

  • Above plus
  • Inhibin A: higher indicates high risk
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28
Q

If a woman is identified as high risk for Down’s syndrome, what diagnostic testing can she be offered?

A

screening determines if the baby is high or low risk
diagnostic test then confirms if baby has it

If risk score is greater than 1 in 150 (5%) offered aminocentesis or CVS

Chorionic Villus Sampling

US guided biopsy of placental tissue, done before 15 weeks

Aminocentesis

US guided aspiration of amniotic fluid. Used later in pregnancy once more amniotic fluid so safer to take a sample

29
Q

What is another test that can be offered before invasive diagnostic testing if a woman has a high risk score for Down’s syndrome?

A

Non-invasive prenatal testing

Blood test from mother taken which will contain fragments of fetal DNA that can be analysed

30
Q

What are the risks associated with aminocentesis and chorionic villus sampling?

A

Aminocentesis

  • 1% risk of miscarriage, higher is <14+0
  • False reassurance
  • Risk of infection
  • Pain
  • Rhesus sensitisation
  • Increased risk of club foot

Chorionic Villus Sampling

  • Miscarriage (higher risk than above)
  • Vaginal bleeding
  • Other maternal complications include: pain, infection, amniotic fluid leakage and resus sensitisation
  • Mosaic result: Amniocentesis may then be offered to establish whether the baby has a mosaic karyotype or if mosaicism is just confined to the placenta
31
Q

What is red blood cell isoimmunisation?

A

When a Rhesus negative mother has a Rhesus positive child, their RBCs get into mother’s blood stream and mother produced IgG antibodies against Rhesus

This is called sensitisation, no issues in first pregnancy but issues in next pregnancies as antibodies can cross placenta and cause haemolysis of fetal blood cells, haemolytic disease of newborn

32
Q

What is the management for rhesus incompatibility?

A
  • Anti-D IM prophylaxis: Given at 28 weeks gestation and then at birth. Prevents sensitisation as once sensitised cannot be reversed
33
Q

What are some sensitisation events?

A
  • Antepartum haemorraghe
  • Aminocentesis
  • Abdominal trauma

Must give Anti-D within 72 hours to prevent sensitisation then do Kleihauer test

34
Q

What is the Kleihauer Test?

A

After 20 weeks

Checks how much fetal blood passed to mother during a sensitisation event to assess whether further doses of Anti-D needed

Add acid to sample of mother’s blood, fetal cells will persist but mothers will die, calculate amount of Hb left behind

35
Q

What is the definition of the following terms related to multiple pregnancies and what is the best case scenario for a multiple pregnancy:

  • Monozygotic
  • Dizygotic
  • Monoamniotic
  • Diamniotic
  • Monochorionic
  • Dichorionic
A

Diamniotic Dichorionic is the best!

36
Q

How is multiple pregnancy diagnosed?

A

On US! (also look at gestational age, risk of Down’s and calculate number of placentas and sacs)

  • Dichorionic diamniotic: membrane between the twins, with a lambda sign or twin peak sign
  • Monochorionic diamniotic : membrane between the twins, with a T sign
  • Monochorionic monoamniotic: have no membrane separating the twins
37
Q

What are the complications with multiple pregnancies?

A

Risks to the mother:

  • Anaemia
  • Polyhydramnios (the buildup of increased amniotic fluid)
  • Hypertension
  • Malpresentation
  • Spontaneous preterm birth
  • Instrumental delivery or caesarean
  • Postpartum haemorrhage

Risks to the fetuses and neonates:

  • Miscarriage
  • Stillbirth
  • Fetal growth restriction
  • Prematurity
  • Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
  • Twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence
  • Congenital abnormalities
38
Q

What is twin to twin transfusion syndrome?

A

When fetuses share a placenta and one fetus receives the majority of the blood

Recipient can become fluid overloaded with heart failure and polyhydraminos

Donor has growth restriction, anaemia and oligohydramnios.

There will be a discrepancy between the size of the fetuses

In severe cases may need laser treatment to separate the blood supplies

39
Q

What is twin anaemia polycythemia sequence?

A

Similar to twin-twin transfusion syndrome, but less acute

One twin becomes anaemic whilst the other develops polycythaemia

40
Q

What are some differences in antenatal care provided for women with a multiple pregnancy compare to a singleton pregnancy?

A

Additional monitoring for anaemia, with a full blood count at:

  • Booking clinic
  • 20 weeks gestation
  • 28 weeks gestation

Additional ultrasound scans are required in multiple pregnancy to monitor for fetal growth restriction, unequal growth and twin-twin transfusion syndrome:

  • 2 weekly scans from 16 weeks for monochorionic twins
  • 4 weekly scans from 20 weeks for dichorionic twins

Planned birth is offered between:

  • 32 and 33 + 6 weeks for uncomplicated monochorionic monoamniotic twins
  • 36 and 36 + 6 weeks for uncomplicated monochorionic diamniotic twins
  • 37 and 37 + 6 weeks for uncomplicated dichorionic diamniotic twins
  • Before 35 + 6 weeks for triplets

Corticosteroids are given before delivery to help mature the lungs.

41
Q

How can twins be delivered?

A

Monoamniotic twins

Elective caesarean section between 32 and 33 + 6 weeks.

Diamniotic twins _(_aim to deliver between 37 and 37 + 6 weeks):

  • Vaginal delivery is possible when first baby has a cephalic presentation
  • Caesarean section may be required for the second baby after successful birth of the first baby
  • Elective caesarean is advised when the presenting twin is not cephalic presentation
42
Q

What is polymorphic eruption of pregnancy and how is it managed?

A

Ichy rash that starts in third trimester, begin on abdomen, particularly associated with stretch marks

  • Urticarial papules
  • Wheals
  • Plaques

Management

  • Topical emollients
  • Topical steroids
  • Oral antihistamines
  • Oral steroids may be used in severe cases
43
Q

What is atopic eruption of pregnancy and how is it managed?

A

Eczema flares during first and second trimester

E type: eczematous inflamed red itchy skin

P (Prurigo) type: intensely itchy papules on abdomen back and limbs

Management

  • Emollients
  • Topical steroids
  • UVB Phototherapy and Oral steroids in severe cases
44
Q

What is melasma and how is it managed?

A

Increased pigmentation to patches of skin on the face. Thought to be due to increase in female sex hormones during pregnancy, COCP, HRT

Linked to sun exposure, thyroid disease and FHx

Managment

  • Avoid sun exposure and wear sun cream
  • Camouflage make up
  • Skin lightening cream after pregnancy
  • Chemical peels
45
Q

What is pemphigoid gestationis?

A

Autoimmune condition where antibodies created to damage connection between dermis and epidermis, in response to placental tissue

Occurs in second or third trimester with itchy red blistering rash around umbilicus that then spreads to other parts of the body and large fluid filled blisters form

Usually resolves after delivery and heals with no scarring

46
Q

How is pemphigoid gestationis managed and what are the risks to the unborn baby with this condition?

A

Management

  • Topical emollients
  • Topical steroids
  • Oral steroids
  • Immunosuppressants
  • Abx if secondary infection

Risks

  • Fetal growth restriction
  • Preterm delivery
  • Blistering rash after delivery as maternal antibodies pass to baby
47
Q

What is still birth and some causes of this?

A

Birth of a dead fetus after 24 weeks gestation

48
Q

What are some factors that can increase the risk of a stillbirth?

A
  • Fetal growth restriction
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
  • Increased maternal age
  • Obesity
  • Twins
  • Sleeping on back
49
Q

How is a still birth prevented?

A
  • Risk assess for fetal growth restriction: if at risk then serial growth scans can closely monitor and early delivery if growth is static
  • Risk assess for pre-eclampsia: If risk five aspirin
  • Lower other risk factors: avoid alcohol, stop smoking, control diabetes, sleep on side
50
Q

What are three key symptoms that should always be asked when seeing a pregnant woman?

A
  • Normal fetal movements?
  • Any abdominal pain?
  • Any vaginal bleeding?
51
Q

How is a still birth diagnosed?

A

US to look for fetal heart beat

Passive fetal movements can still occur after IUFD so do repeat US

52
Q

How is a confirmed stillbirth managed?

A
  • 1st Line: Vaginal birth. Choice of induction of labour with mifepristone/misoprostolol or expectant management
  • Anti-D prophylaxis if Rh-ve: use Kleihauer test to quantify dose
  • Dopamine agonists: e.g Cabergoline to suppress lactation after still birth
  • Identify the cause with parental consent
  • Offer counselling and support with wishes e.g naming baby, funeral arrangements
53
Q

What are the reversible causes of adult cardiac arrest?

A

4 T’s and 4 H’s

4 T’s

  • Thrombosis (MI/PE)
  • Tension pneumothorax
  • Toxins
  • Tamponade (Cardiac)

4 H’s

  • Hypoxia
  • Hypovolemia
  • Hypothermia
  • HyperK, Hypoglycaemia
54
Q

What are the three major causes of cardiac arrest in pregnancy?

A
  • Obstetric haemorrhage
  • PE
  • Sepsis leading to metabolic acidosis and shock
55
Q

Obstetric haemorrhage causes hypovolemia, what are some causes of obstetric haemorrhage?

A
  • Ectopic
  • Placental abruption
  • Placenta praevia - when the placenta is covering the cervix/ too low down
  • Placenta accreta - when the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall
  • Uterine rupture
56
Q

Why should a pregnant woman not lie on her back?

A

After 20 weeks gestation uterus is large and can compress inferior vena cava and aorta on lying down

Compression of IVC reduces venous return, therefore reducing cardiac output so hypotension and can lead to loss of cardiac output and cardiac arrest

Lie woman in left lateral position to lay pregnant uterus away from IVC which is on the right

57
Q

Why is resuscitation during a cardiac arrest in a pregnant woman more difficult than a normal cardiac arrest?

A
  • Aortocaval compression
  • Increased oxygen requirements
  • Splinting of the diaphragm by pregnant abdomen
  • Risk of aspiration
  • Ongoing obstetric haemorrhage
58
Q

What are the principles of CPR that are different in a pregnant person to a non-pregnant person?

A
  • 15 degree tilt to the left side for CPR
  • Early intubation
  • Early supplementary oxygen
  • Aggressive fluid resuscitation
  • Delivery of baby after 4 minutes and within 5 minutes of starting CPR
59
Q

How is a baby delivered if a pregnant woman is having a cardiac arrest?

A

Immediate C-section at site of arrest if doing CPR for 4 minutes

Aim is to deliver baby within 5 minutes of CPR commencing

Improves survival of mother as delivery improves venous return to heart, improves cardiac output and reduces oxygen consumption. Also helps ventilation and chest compressions

60
Q

If a woman has PPROM (Premature rupture of membranes <37 weeks), what medication needs to be given to them?

A
  • IM corticosteroids for lung maturation
  • Prophylactic Erythromycin for 10 days or until delivery
  • Magnesium Sulphate for neuroprotection of baby
61
Q

What are the risks of PPROM and prematurity?

A
  • Respiratory distress syndrome
  • Pulmonary Hypoplasia
  • Necrotizing enterocolitis
  • Intraventricular hemorrhage
  • Retinopathy of prematurity
  • Cerebral palsy
  • Blindness
  • Deafness
  • Infection: chorioamnionitis, sepsis, HIE
62
Q

What did the ORACLE trial show?

A
  • Erythromycin prolonged pregnancy and reduced need for surfactant with PPROM
  • Use of Co-Amoxiclav for prophylaxis with PPROM was associated with NEC
63
Q

How is pemphigoid gestationis managed and what are the risks to the unborn baby with this condition?

A

autoimmune condition during pregnancy that presents with tense blisters, small bumps, hives and intense itching, usually starting around the navel before spreading to limbs in mid-pregnancy or shortly after delivery.

Management

  • Topical emollients
  • Topical steroids
  • Oral steroids
  • Immunosuppressants
  • Abx if secondary infection

Risks

  • Fetal growth restriction
  • Preterm delivery
  • Blistering rash after delivery as maternal antibodies pass to baby
64
Q

When should you start measuring symphis fundal height?

A

25 weeks

Then take at every antenatal appointment unless been measured in the last 2 weeks or if having growth scans

65
Q

If the mother suspects the foetus is moving less than usual what are the steps to take

A
  • carry out a hand held doppler to listen to a heart beat
  • then carry out a cardiotocography, this should be carried out for 20 mins to assess if the foetus is in any distress
66
Q

what appearance does a molar pregnancy have on an US

A

snowstorm appearance

67
Q

what is a screening result for down syndrome

A
  1. low AFP
  2. low estriol
  3. low PAPP-A
    4.HCG
  4. thickened nuchal translucency
68
Q

after 24 weeks what is the rule for S-F height

A

it is proportional to the week of gestation +/- 2cm

69
Q

acute fatty liver clinical investigation results

A
  • increased elevation of the liver enzymes
  • prolonged PT
  • raised bilirubin