1.2 How Markets Work Flashcards

1
Q

what is Homo Economicus

A

a rational individual that, when making choices, will always go for the option that maximises their utility

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2
Q

what does a rational consumer do

A

make choices to maximise their utility

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3
Q

what does a rational producer do

A

aim to maximise their profits (which allows them to maximise their utility to buy more G/S)

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4
Q

evaluation of rational decision making

A

this idea is flawed, since often people act emotionally, or partly emotionally, not fully rationally

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5
Q

what is demand

A

the amount of a G/S that a consumer is willing and able to purchase at a given price in a given time period

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6
Q

description of a demand curve

A

left to right downward sloping
negative/inverse relationship between price and QD

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7
Q

what is the law of diminishing marginal utility

A

where an individual gains less additional utility from consuming a product, the more of it is consumed

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8
Q

what are the reasons for a perverse demand curve

A

positional goods
conspicuous goods/goods of ostentation
Giffen goods

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9
Q

what are positional goods

A

goods which are very scarce and are desired for their ability to show success over other people

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10
Q

what are conspicuous goods

A

goods people like to buy to show social status or success

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11
Q

what are Giffen goods

A

staple products that consumers are willing to pay more for even if price rises. this limits RDY, making luxury products even more out of reach so consumption staples rises more as price does

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12
Q

what are the determinants of demand that will shift the demand curve

A

income - RDY
tastes/fashion
advertising/branding
price/quality of related goods
population + age structure
expectations of future prices
credit availability
seasonal demand

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13
Q

what is a normal good

A

one where QD increases as RDY increases

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14
Q

what is an inferior good

A

one where QD decreases as RDY increases

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15
Q

how does income affect demand

A

RDY directly determines how many G/S a consumer can purchase

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16
Q

how do changes in taste/fashion affect demand

A

if G/S become more fashionable, demand for them increases

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17
Q

how does advertising/branding affect demand

A

if more money is spent on advertising or branding, demand for the G/S will increase as more consumers are aware of the product

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18
Q

how does the price/quality of of related goods affect demand

A

increases in the price or decrease in the quality of substitute goods will increase demand for another good

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19
Q

how does the population/age structure affect demand

A

increases in population will increase demand overall
changes in the age structure of a population will also affect which G/S are in higher demand

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20
Q

what is marginal utility

A

the additional utility/satisfaction gained from the consumption of an additional G/S

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21
Q

what is the law of diminishing marginal utility

A

as additional products are consumed, the utility gained from the next unit is lower than that of the previous unit

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22
Q

how does the law of diminishing marginal utility explain the demand curve

A

when the first unit is purchased there is utility so consumers are willing to pay a high price, but as utility decreases consumers are not willing to pay as high a price

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23
Q

what is price elasticity of demand (PED)

A

the sensitivity of quantity demanded to a change in the price of a G/S

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24
Q

what is the equation for PED

A

%△ in QD / %△in P

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25
Q

what is the range of values on the PED scale

A

0 to ∞

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26
Q

what does a PED of 0 mean

A

perfectly inelastic. there is no change in QD after a change in P

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27
Q

what does a PED of 0 - 1 mean

A

relatively inelastic. the %∆ in QD is less than proportional
to the %∆ in P

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28
Q

what does a PED of 1 mean

A

unitary. the %∆ in QD is exactly equal to the %∆ in P

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29
Q

what does a PED of > 1 mean.

A

relatively elastic. the %∆ in QD is more than proportional to the %∆ in P

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30
Q

what are the determinants of PED

A

necessity vs luxury
quality + quantity of substitutes
price of a product as a proportion of income
time period (short run vs long run)
habit forming/addictiveness of product
number of compliments

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31
Q

what is income elasticity of demand (YED)

A

the sensitivity of quantity demanded to a change in consumer incomes

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32
Q

what is the formula for YED

A

%△ in QD / %△in Y

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33
Q

what is the range of values on the YED scale

A

-∞ to ∞

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34
Q

what does a positive YED mean

A

normal good

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35
Q

what does a negative YED mean

A

inferior good

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36
Q

what does a YED of 0 - 1 mean

A

relatively inelastic. normal necessity/staple
%△ in QD < %△in Y

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37
Q

what does a YED of > 1 mean

A

relatively elastic. normal luxury
%△ in QD > %△in Y

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38
Q

what does a YED of < 0 mean

A

inferior good. demand decreases when income increases

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39
Q

what are the determinants of YED

A

recessions vs economic growth/booms
minimum wage
taxation

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40
Q

what is cross price elasticity (XED)

A

the sensitivity of QD of good A to a change in price to good B

41
Q

what is the formula for XED

A

%△ in QD good A / %△in P good B

42
Q

what is the range of values on the XED scale

A

-∞ to ∞

43
Q

what does an XED of 0 mean

A

there is no relationship between the goods

44
Q

what does an XED of 0 - 1 mean

A

poor substitutes

45
Q

what does an XED of > 1 mean

A

good substitutes

46
Q

what does an XED of 0 - -1 mean

A

poor compliments

47
Q

what does an XED of < -1 mean

A

good compliments

48
Q

why is PED important to firms

A

helps them maximise their revenue.
if a G/S is PED inelastic, they should increase P
if a G/S is PED elastic, they should decrease P
to reach unitary PED

49
Q

why is PED important to Goverments

A

gives them insight for taxation and subsidies
if tax is imposed when a G/S is PED inelastic, tax revenue can be increased without hurting firms too much
if a subsidy is imposed when a G/S is PED elastic, D will increase even more

50
Q

why is XED important to firms

A

helps them maximise their revenue.
adjust pricing strategies for substitute and complementary goods
understand the impact of competitors’ pricing strategies

51
Q

why is YED important to firms

A

helps them maintain sales and maximise profits in recessions/booms.
provide more inferior G/S in a recession
provide more normal G/S in a boom

52
Q

what is the rule with total revenue and PED

A

in order to maximise revenue, when PED is inelastic firms should increase their price and when PED is elastic firms should decrease their price

53
Q

what is supply

A

the amount of a G/S a producer is willing and able to supply at a given price in a given time period

54
Q

what are all the determinants of supply to a firm

55
Q

what are the determinants of supply (costs)

A

costs of FOPs
indirect taxes + subsidies
new technology (increases productivity)
training (increases productivity)
government regulations/laws
weather + seasons

56
Q

what is price elasticity of supply (PES)

A

the sensitivity of QS of a G/S to a change in P of that G/S

57
Q

what is the formula for PES

A

%△ in QS / %△in P

58
Q

what is the range of values on the PES scale

59
Q

what does a PES of 0 mean

A

perfectly inelastic. QS is completely unresponsive to a change in P

60
Q

what does a PES of 0 - 1 mean

A

relatively inelastic. the %∆ in QS is less than proportional to the %∆ in P

61
Q

what does a PES of 1 mean

A

unitary. the the %∆ in QS is equal to the %∆ in P

62
Q

what does a PES of >1 mean

A

relatively elastic. the %∆ in QS is more than proportional to the %∆ in P

63
Q

what does a PES of ∞ mean

A

perfectly elastic. the %∆ in QS will fall to zero with any %∆ in P. however, supply is unlimited at a particular price

64
Q

what are the determinants of PES

A

mobility of FOPs
availability of FOPs
ability to store goods
spare capacity
time period

65
Q

what is the short-run period of production

A

when at least one of the factors of production is fixed

66
Q

what is the long-run period of production

A

when all the factors of production are variable

67
Q

what is the CHOR for explaining dynamic markets

A

identify if the change refers to demand or supply
state which way the curve will shift
state the disequilibrium that now exists in the original market
state if sellers raise or lower prices to clear disequilibrium
explain the contraction or extension in demand to respond
state the new market equilibrium
explain the final market outcome

68
Q

what is an indirect tax

A

as tax that firms pay when G/S are bought

69
Q

what is an indirect subsidy

A

a payment to a firm from the government

70
Q

what is a direct tax

A

a tax directly taken out of income

71
Q

what is a direct subsidy

A

a payment to consumers from the government

72
Q

what are the two types of indirect tax

A

specific tax (a set sum of money added to all G/S)
ad valorem tax (tax is a % of the total price of a G/S)

73
Q

what half of the total tax revenue is the consumer incidence

74
Q

what half of the total tax revenue is the producer incidence

A

bottom half

75
Q

who pays more of the incidence when there is an inelastic PED

A

consumer incidence is higher than producer incidence

76
Q

who pays more of the incidence when there is an elastic PED

A

producer incidence is higher than consumer incidence

77
Q

what does a specific tax look like on a supply + demand diagram

A

parallel left shift of supply

78
Q

what does an ad valorem tax look like on a supply + demand diagram

A

diverging left shift of supply

79
Q

what is consumer surplus

A

the difference between the amount a consumer is willing to pay for a G/S and the price they actually pay

80
Q

what is producer surplus

A

the difference between the amount a producer is willing to sell a G/S for and the price they actually do sell it for

81
Q

where is the consumer surplus on a supply + demand diagram

A

the triangle between the price level, the equilibrium and the top of the D curve

82
Q

where is the producer surplus on a supply + demand diagram

A

the triangle between the price level, the equilibrium and the bottom of the S curve

83
Q

what happens to producer and consumer surplus when there is an increase in supply

A

both surpluses increase

84
Q

what happens to producer and consumer surplus when there is an increase in demand

A

both surpluses increase

85
Q

what is allocative efficiency

A

allocating resources in such a way as to maximise net social welfare (NSW)

86
Q

what is marginal social benefit (MSB)

A

value placed on a G/S by consuming an extra unit (represented by the D curve)

87
Q

what is the price/market mechanism

A

the interaction of demand and supply in a free market that determines price which are the means by which scarce resources are allocated

88
Q

what is marginal social cost (MSC)

A

additional cost of producing one extra unit - opportunity cost (represented by the S curve)

89
Q

what are the four functions of the price mechanism

A

allocation
incentive to firms
signals to firm to increase or decrease production
rationing

90
Q

what are the positives of the market mechanism

A

creates inequality - acts as an incentive to workers, stimulating economic growth
trickle down/invisible hand effect - wealth trickles down through the economy

91
Q

what are the negatives of the market mechanism

A

creates inequality

92
Q

who do rational people consider when making a decision

A

they act only in their own self interest

93
Q

what are the causes of irrational consumer behaviour

A

imperfect or asymmetric information
social norms and conformity
habitual behaviour
weakness at computation
consumer inertia
short-term vs long-term costs and benefits

94
Q

how does information affect the rationality of a consumer’s decision

A

imperfect information - not all information being available
asymmetric information - being provided with less information than is available

95
Q

how does weakness at computation affect the rationality of a consumer’s decision

A

consumers are not able to gather all the information required to compute which options give them the highest net benefit

96
Q

how do social norms and conformity affect the rationality of a consumer’s decision

A

peer pressure often influences consumers to buy things that may not be net beneficial to them
producers also influence consumers through advertising which results in consumers acting emotionally instead of rationally

97
Q

how does habitual behaviour affect the rationality of a consumer’s decision

A

consumers often rely on habits to speed up their decision processes, using a ‘rule of thumb’ approach, or using information from the past to make decisions which may be outdated. consumer inertia then develops as convenience is prioritised

98
Q

how does the short-term vs long-term affect the rationality of a consumer’s decision

A

consumers tend to see short-term costs or benefits much clearer than long-term costs or benefits, which skews their perspective on a decision